sim

1. A good battery should supply power to the hot battery bus and the emergency bus for approximately: 2 hour. 1 hour. 30 minutes. 10 minutes.

2. The battery bus serves as: power-off DC source. An emergency power source. An extension bus. A generator tie bus.

3. In flight, with the generators on the line, the battery is isolated from any charging source when the battery switch is in: OFF. BATT. EMER. BOTH OFF AND EMER.

4. If manual termination of a start sequence is desired, the switch to press is: ENGINE STAR. STAR DISENGAGE. LH START. RH START.

5. The voltage read on the voltmeter with the selector switch in BATT is sensed from the: BATERRY BUS. LEFT MAIN BUS. HOT BATTERY BUS. RIGHT MAIN BUS.

6. If the generators are not operating, the volt-meter reads battery voltage when the battery switch is in: OFF. BATT. EMER. BATT AND EMER.

7. The light in each engine start button illuminates to indicate: Starting is complete. Opening of the start relay. Closing of the start relay. Generator disconnect.

8.The generator field relay opens when: An internal feeder fault is sensed. An overvoltage condition is sensed. An engine fire switch is activated. All of the above.

9. If a battery start is intended, the generator switches should be placed to: OFF. GEN. RESET. ON.

10. When the inverter/AVIONICS POWER switches are positioned to AC and ON, or NORM and ON, normally: No. 1 inverter supplies all AC buses. Both inverters are paralleled to supply all AC buses. No. 2 inverter produces only 26-VAC power. Each inverter supplies its own AC buses.

11. Illumination of the AC FAIL annunciator light and the MASTER WARNING lights indicates: Failure of No. 1 inverter. Failure of No. 2 inverter. Failure of both inverters. Any of the above.

Positioning the inverter test switch to the INV 1 position disables (UNs 0260-0292 and 0294-0306): No. 1 inverter. No. 2 inverter. The No. 1 inverter and both of its buses. Neither inverter.

With the battery as the only source of power and the battery switch in the OFF position, the bus(es) powered are: Battery bus, hot battery bus. Emergency bus, hot battery bus. Hot battery bus. Emergency bus, battery bus, hot battery Bus.

With the battery as the only source of power and the battery switch in the EMER position, the following bus(es) are powered: Battery bus, hot battery bus. Emergency bus, hot battery bus. Hot battery bus. Emergency bus, battery bus, hot battery bus.

With the battery as the only source of power and the battery switch in the BATT position, the following condition exists: The battery, emergency, and hot battery buses only receive power. All buses are powered except the emer- gency bus. LH and RH main DC buses only are powered. All DC buses are powered.

With only the hot battery and emergency buses powered, the following item is inoperative: Nav 1B. Cockpit floodlights, emergency exit light. Copilot’s compass system, Com 1. Nav 2.

The correct statement is: With external power connected and the battery switch in OFF, all DC buses are powered from the external power unit. The battery switch must be out of the OFF position before the voltmeter will indicate the voltage of the hot battery bus. With external power connected and the battery switch in OFF, all DC buses are powered from the external unit except for the battery itself. The battery continues to charge with the generators on the line regardless of the battery switch position.

Regarding the engine starting sequence (bat- tery start on the ground): It is normally terminated by the pilot with the STARTER DISENGAGE button. The boost pumps and ignition switches must both be in the ON position before the start button is depressed. A minimum of 50% Nquired on the operating engine prior to starting the sec- ond engine. It is terminated normally by the speed sensing switch on the starter-generator.

The incorrect statement is: The illumination of the STARTER DIS- ENGAGE button is a function of the panel lights master switch. The generator switches are placed in the OFF position for an EPU start. The battery switch is placed in the OFF position prior to an EPU start. A failed LH 225-amps current limiter pre- vents starting of the left engine.

Regarding a generator-assist start: It is necessary to observe a drop in amper- age to below 150 before depressing the second start button (to protect the 225- amps current limiter). The operating generator switch must be placed to OFF before the start button is depressed. A maximum of 49% Nrpm is set on the operating engine. 52% to 53% N2 is set on the operating engine.

Placing the battery switch in the EMER posi-tion with the generators on line: Does not cause the immediate loss of any buses. Causes loss of power to the emergency bus since the generators are on the line. Can still provide charging power to the battery. Should result in the voltage indication remaining at 28.5 volts.

The correct statement regarding the GEN OFF LH/RH annunciator light is: Illumination of one light triggers the MASTER WARNING lights. The light illuminates whenever the power relay is open. Illumination of the light indicates that both the power and field relays have opened. It indicates that the generator is still in its starter mode.

Ignition: Occurs immediately when the start button is depressed. Is initiated automatically by the speed sensing switch at 8 to 10% N2. Occurs when the throttle is brought to idle. Is terminated by the fuel control step mod- ulator when it senses ITT above 300°C.

The BATT O’TEMP light illuminates steady but. Extinguishes if the battery cools down. Flashes as the battery is cooling down. therefore the battery switch should be position to OFF (all buses continue to receive power). The MASTER WARNING lights do not illuminate until the BATT O’TEMP light begins to flash.

With the battery switch in EMER in flight (both generators online), the following indi- cations are observed: No noticeable change is observed. The voltmeter drops to near zero as power is lost on all buses except the emergency and hot battery buses. There is a loss of power to all buses except the emergency and battery buses. The voltmeter indicates approximately 25 volts.

The lighting rheostat labeled “LEFT” controls: A. Pilot’s instrument panel lights. B.Center instrument panel lights. C.Copilot’s instrument panel lights. D.Both A and B.

The lighting rheostat that controls the elec-troluminescent lighting is labeled: LEFT. CENTER. RIGHT. EL.

Turning the PANEL LIGHT CONTROL mas-ter switch to ON: Activates the control rheostats. Dims the annunciator panel lights. Illuminates the STARTER DISENGAGE button. All the above.

The map lights are controlled with rheostats located on: The center pedestal. The pilot and copilot instrument panels. The overhead lights panel. The pilot and copilot side armrests.

When the indirect fluorescent lights are turned on and positioned to DIM, the lights illuminate: Bright for 3 seconds and then dim. Dim. Bright until the switch is reactuated. After 3 seconds.

The landing lights: Go out automatically upon gear extraction. Must be used for inflight “see-and-avoid” situations. Are normally turned on in the takeoff and approach phase. All of the above.

An annunciator panel light will extinguish: When pressed. Upon landing. When the malfunction is corrected. If the master warning system is reset under all conditions.

The master warning lights illuminate: A.When any annunciator panel light illuminates. B.When a red annunciator panel light illuminates. C. When both GEN OFF annunciators illuminate. D.Both B and C.

The rotary test switch: Illuminates all annunciators in the ANNU position. Is spring loaded to OFF. Only illuminates all red annunciators in the ANNU position. Only illuminates all amber annunciators in the ANNU position.

Concerning the fuel system, the incorrect statement is: The FUEL BOOST pump switches do not have to be on for the engine start. With the FUEL BOOST pump switch- es off, the respective boost pump will automatically be energized whenever the respective start button is depressed, or when crossfeed from that tank is selected. It is normal for both fuel boost pumps to be operated during crossfeed operation. The fuel boost pump will be automatical- ly energized anytime the FUEL BOOST switches are in NORM and the START button is depressed, crossfeed is selected, or low pressure (5 psi) is sensed in the engine supply line (throttle at IDLE or above).

After engine start, the fuel boost pump is deen-ergized by: The fuel boost pump switch. The generator speed sensor switch. Discontinuing crossfeed. A time-delay relay.

Concerning the fuel system, the correct state-ment is. In the event of DC power loss, the primary ejector pump ceases to operate and the engine flames out. The respective engine should be shut down if the respective FUEL FLTR BYPASS annunciator illuminates. The fuel boost switches should be on for takeoff and landing. The fuel filter should be inspected prior to the next flight if the FUEL FLTR BYPASS light illuminates.

If the FUEL BOOST ON LH/RH annunci-ators illuminate without any action by the crew (engine operating normally), the prob- able cause is: The engine-driven fuel pump has failed. The fire wall shutoff valve has closed. The low-pressure sensing switch has ener-gized the boost pumps. The fuel flow compensator has energized the boost pumps below 5 psi.

To verify that crossfeed is in fact occurring, it is necessary to: Monitor the FUEL QTY indicators for appropriate quantity changes. Only observe that the IN TRANSIT light is out. Ensure both FUEL BOOST ON lights are illuminated. Ensure that the FUEL BOOST pump switch for the tank being fed is on.

When crossfeed is selected by positioning the crossfeed switch to LH TANK, and the green IN TRANSIT light stays on: This is normal. The boost pumps did not actuate. One or both crossfeed valves did not fully close. One or both crossfeed valves did not fully open.

Operation of the primary ejector pump is directly dependent upon: A. DC electrical power. High-pressure fuel from the engine-driven fuel pump. AC electrical power supplied by the No. 1 or No. 2 inverter. Flow from the transfer ejector pump.

If the engine-driven fuel pump fails: The engine will flame out. The primary ejector pump will fail also, but the boost pump will be energized by low pressure and will sustain the engine. The transfer ejector pumps will also be inoperative. Crossfeed must be selected in order to obtain high-pressure motive flow from the opposite engine.

If crossfeed has been selected and normal DC electrical power is lost (battery switch in EMER with a dual generator failure): The system will remain in crossfeed. The crossfeed valves will fail closed. Both boost pumps will be energized to terminate crossfeed. The motive-flow shutoff valve will fail open.

To use the SPPR system a precheck: Is mandatory. Consists of establishing stabilized fuel flow from the truck, then rotating the pre- check levers straight out, with the totalizer showing zero fuel flow within 30 seconds. That is unsuccessful means using over- wing refuel and repairing the SPR system. All of the above.

Maximum SPR refueling is limited to: A. 60 psi. B.Any pressure. C. 105 gpm. D. A and C.

The primary thrust indicator for JT15D-5D is: Fuel flow. N1. ITT. N2.

If one igniter should fail during engine start: The engine will start normally. It will result in a “hot” start. Combustion will not occur. The exciter box will act as a backup and the engine will start.

3. Ignition during normal engine start is activated. Turning the IGNITION switches to ON at 8 to 10% N. Moving the throttle to IDLE at 8 to 10% N2. Depressing the start button. Nothing. Ignition is not needed during normal engine start.

Ignition during engine start is normally termi-nated by: Turning the IGNITION switches to OFF. The speed-sensing switch on the starter- generator at approximately 38% N2. Turning the boost pump switch off. Opening the ignition circuit breakers on the right-hand circuit breaker panel.

Power will be automatically applied to the igniters when the IGNITION switch is in NORM anytime: A.The start button is depressed and the throt- tle is out of idle cutoff. B. The surface anti-ice system is activated. . C. The engine anti-ice switch is on. D. Both A and C.

Of the following statements concerning the JT15D-5D engine, the correct one is: Fuel from the engine fuel system is used to cool the engine oil through a fuel-oil heat exchanger. The engine accessory gearbox has its own oil lubricating system (independent of the engine itself). The indication of low oil pressure is only the OIL PRESS WARN LH/RH annun- ciator light. Electrical power is not required to power the ITT instrument since it is self-generating.

The OIL PRESS WARN LH/RH light on the annunciator panel illuminates whenever: A. Oil temperature exceeds 121°C. B. Oil pressure is less than 40 psi. Oil filter clogs and bypasses oil. The fuel-oil cooler becomes clogged.

The maximum allowable oil consump tion for the JTl5D-5D engine is: 1 quart every 10 hours. 1 quart every 4 hours (measured over a 10-hour period). 5 gallon every 40 hours (measured over a 10-hour period). No specified figure since it depends upon TBO.

If the inner turbine shaft shifts to the rear as much as .070 inches: The engine automatically shuts down. The vibration detector causes illumination of the master warning lights. The synchronizer shuts the engine down. Nothing occurs.

The following engine instruments are available in the event of a loss of normal DC electrical power: N1 rpm and ITT. N1 RPM, N2 rpm, and ITT. N1 rpm (tape and LCD display). N1 rpm (tape only).

The ENGINE SYNC switch: Should be in FAN for takeoffs and landings. Should be in TURB at altitude. Can be placed in FAN or TURB after take- off and should be left there for the remain- der of the flight. Should be off for large power changes.

The thrust reversers: A.May be deployed only when the throttles are in IDLE. B.Must have both EMER STOW switches in EMER for takeoffs to guard against inadvertent deployment during that criti- cal phase of flight. C.May be left in idle reverse until the air- plane is brought to a full stop. D. Both A and C.

When normal deployment of the thrust revers-ers is obtained, the following annunciator lights should be illuminated: ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY. DOOR NOT LOCKED, ARM, UNLOCK, DEPLOY. C. HYD PRESS ON, ARM, UN LOCK, DEPLOY. DOOR NOT LOCKED, HYD PRESS ON, DEPLOY.

The incorrect statement regarding the use of thrust reversers is: They may be used in flight to slow the airplane. They should not be used on touch-and-go landings. The reversers must be in idle reverse by 60 KIAS. Either squat switch on the ground will allow both reversers to deploy.

The master warning lights: Have nothing to do with the reverser system. Will illuminate if an ARM light illumi- nates while in flight. Will illuminate if the HYD PRESS ON light remains illuminated after the DEPLOY light is illuminated. Will illuminate if a DEPLOY light illumi- nates in flight.

An ENG FIRE switchlight illuminates when: It is depressed. The MASTER WARNING lights illumi- nate for an engine fire. Temperature in the nacelle area reaches 500°F. Electrical resistance of the sensing loop increases due to increasing nacelle temperature.

Depressing an illuminated ENG FIRE switchlight: Fires bottle No. 1 into the nacelle. Fires bottle No. 2 into the nacelle. Fires both bottles into the nacelle. Illuminates both BOTTLE ARMED switchlights, arming the system.

After a bottle has been discharged into a nacell. No cleaning of the engine and nacelle area is required. A thorough cleaning of the engine and nacelle area is required. An inspection of the engine and nacelle area is required to determine if cleaning is necessary. None of the above.

When the fire-extinguishing system is armed for operation: The FUEL LOW PRESS light illuminates. The HYD FLOW LOW light illuminates. The GEN OFF light illuminates. All the above.

If the contents of a bottle has been discharged into a nacelle and the ENG FIRE switchlight remains on: The fire has been extinguished. The other bottle can be dis charged into the same nacelle by depressing the other BOTTLE ARMED switchlight. The fire still exists, but no further action can be taken. The same BOTTLE ARMED switchlight can be depressed again, firing a second charge of agent from the same bottle.

Depressing the ENG FIRE switchlight a sec- ond time: Opens the fuel shutoff valve. Opens only the hydraulic shutoff valve. Resets the generator field relay. All the above.

The source of bleed air for cabin pressuriza-tion when the EMERG PRESS ON light is illuminated in the air is: Either the left or right engine. The left engine only. The right engine only. Ram air.

The systems that use pneumatic bleed air for operation are the: Emergency brakes and entrance door seal. Surface deice, thrust reversers, entrance door seal, and ACM. Entrance door seal, ACM, and thrust reversers. Entrance door seal and ACM.

The flow control valves, when open, allow engine bleed air to operate the: ACM. Windshield anti-ice. Entrance door seal. All of the above.

The entrance door seal air is supplied by: Regulated bleed air from the right engine only. Regulated bleed air from the left engine only. Regulated bleed air when either engine is operating. Regulated ram air.

The correct statement regarding the pitot-static anti-ice system is: Electrical power is not required (if bleed air is available). The squat switch will not allow full power to the heating elements while the airplane is on the ground. Failure of one static port heater will illu- minate the P/S HTR OFF annunciator. Failure of one standby static port heat- er will illuminate the P/S HTR OFF annunciator.

Regarding the windshield anti-ice system: A. The W/S BLEED switch controls volume (HI or LOW). The W/S BLEED switch controls temperature. Electrical power must be avail able to open the solenoid control valve in the tail cone. Temperature is controlled by the WIND- SHIELD BLEED AIR valves.

Regarding use of the W/S BLEED switch: HI position should be used with an OAT above -18°C. LOW position should be used with an OAT below -18°C. HI position should be used if greater air- flow is desired. It deenergizes the solenoid control valve open when HI or LOW is selected.

If the W/S AIR O’HEAT light illuminates with the W/S BLEED switch in OFF, there is: 5-psi pressure sensed in the duct. A 5-psi pressure buildup in the duct, and the light is to alert the pilot to open the WINDSHIELD BLEED AIR valve to relieve the pressure to prevent damage to the duct. A system malfunction; the light should never illuminate with the W/S BLEED switch in OFF. An overtemperature in the duct.

The W/S AIR O’HEAT light will illuminate: A.If 5-psi pressure is sensed in the duct with the W/S BLEED switch in OFF. B.If the temperature of the air going to the windshield exceeds 146°C with the W/S BLEED switch in the HI or LOW position. C. Neither A nor B. D. Both A and B.

In order to operate the rain removal system, the pilot should: A. Open the rain doors only. B. Open the rain doors, and turn on the W/S ALCOHOL switch. C.Open the rain doors, position the WIND- SHIELD BLEED AIR knobs to MAX, and position the W/S BLEED switch to LOW. D. Open the rain doors, and position the W/S BLEED switch to LOW.

The windshield alcohol system: A. Is a backup system for the windshield anti- ice system. B. Energizes ejectors which apply alco- hol to both the pilot’s and the copilot’s windshields. C. Utilizes a pump that supplies alcohol to the pilot’s wind shield only for a maximum of ten minutes. D. Both A and C.

The surface deice system: A. Should not be activated until ice thickness exceeds 1/2 inch. B. Should not be activated until ice thickness exceeds 1/4 inch. C. Will function during an electrical failure because it is pneumatically operated. D. Has a maximum ice accumulation limit of one inch.

If the left engine is shut down in flight and XFD is selected with the left ENGINE ANTI- ICE switch (right ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch on): The left ignition light will not illuminate. The ENG ANTI-ICE LH annunci ator will remain illuminated because the nacelle and stator valves will remain closed. If the temperature exceeds 160°F on the left heated panel, the WING O’HEAT LH light will illuminate, and the crossfeed valve will be closed. None of the above.

Regarding the P/S HTR OFF LH light: A. It will illuminate if the PITOT & STATIC switch is OFF. B. Illumination of the light could mean the loss of electrical power to the pitot tube. C. If power is lost to one heated static port on the pilot’s normal system, the light will illuminate. D. All the above.

A correct statement concerning the surface deice system is: A. The SURFACE switch must be held in the AUTO position for 18 second to ensure that all deice boots receive infla- tion pressure. B. The SURFACE switch must be cycled to MANUAL to reset the timer circuit after each use. C. The system should not be used below -40°C IOAT. D. Illumination of the white SURFACE DE- ICE annunciator after the SURFACE switch has been cycled to AUTO indicates a lack of bleed air to the boots.

A correct choice regarding engine anti-ice is: A. When the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch- es are positioned to XFD, the two green lights above the ignition switches should illuminate. B. The throttles must be above 60% N2 rpm before the wing leading edge anti-ice sys- tem is activated. C. The T1 temperature probe is anti-iced only when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch is selected on. D. None of the above.

Switching on the engine anti-ice system with. A. An increase in ITT, an increase in amps, and illumination of the ENG ANTI-ICE annunciators for at least five seconds. B. Illumination of the WING ANTI-ICE annunciators and remain on until power is increased. C. No bleed air to flow to the wing leading edges unless rpm is increased above 63% N2. Y B. D. The rpm will drop since the nacelle and stator bleed-air valves open at this power setting.

The ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator will illumi-nate when: A. The wing leading edge temperature is above 160°F. B. The nacelle temperature exceeds 220°F. C. The bleed-air valve to the stators is not open (all other conditions satisfied). D. The ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch is in OFF.

When controlling the cabin tempera ture with the manual temperature switch, the mixing valve is positioned from full hot to full cold in approxi matel. A. 18 seconds. B. 6 seconds. C. 3 seconds. D. 10 seconds.

The AIR DUCT O’HEAT annunciator light illuminates when the: A. ACM shuts down. B. Temperature of air in the duct to the cabin is excessive. C. Temperature of the air going to the wind- shield is excessive. D. EMER source is selected unless the left throttle is retarded.

If the ACM overheat switch has activated, it may be reset by placing the PRESS SOURCE selector in: A. EMER and then NORM, LH or RH. B. GND. C. NORMAL. D. Either LH or RH.

Selecting the HI position with the OVHD fan switch. A. Increases the airflow through the overhead ducts. B. Increases airflow through the underfloor ducts. C. Increases the airflow in the windshield defog system. D. Keeps the toilet area ventilated.

Closing the footwarmers on descent: A. Cuts off all airflow to the windshields. B. Cuts off all air to the side windows. C. Increases airflow to the side windows for defogging on descent. D. Results in side window fogging.

The source of bleed air when the EMER PRESS ON annunciator is illuminated in flight is: A. Either the left or right engine. B. The left engine only. C. The right engine only (provided that the GND position is not selected). D. Ram air.

7. The OAT is 90°F; as the airplane passes through 4,000 feet on climb out, the EMERG PRESS ON light illuminates and the noise level in the cockpit increases: A. The ACM has shut down due to an over- heat; select EMER with the PRESS SOURCE selector and a cooler temper- ature with the automatic temperature selector. B. The ACM has shut down; turn the PRESS SOURCE selector OFF and call for the checklist. C. The ACM has shut down due to an over- heat; select a warmer setting, wait for 12 seconds, and call for the checklist. D. The ACM has not shut down; select MAN- UAL and full cold to cool it down, thus pre vent ing damage.

Pressurization of the airplane is normally maintained by: A. Controlling the amount of air entering the cabin. B. Controlling the amount of air escaping the cabin. C. Modulating the temperature of the ACM. D. Manipulating the throttles.

If the main vacuum source to the pressuriza-tion controller is lost, the airplane pressure differential will: A. Go to zero as the airplane depressurizes. B. Go to maximum limits as allowed by the outflow valves. C. Stabilize at about 13,500 feet as controlled by the altitude limit valve. D. Cause the passenger oxygen system to activate.

The emergency dump valve: A. Fail safes open if electrical power is lost. B. Is effective whether vacuum is available or not. C. Is intended for ground use only in the event of a vacuum failure. D. Depends upon vacuum to have any effect on pressurization.

The landing gear squat switch causes the air-plane to completely depressurize while on the ground by opening a solenoid valve, routing vacuum directly to: A. Both outflow valves. B. The pressure controller. C. The cabin altitude limit valve. D. The emergency dump valve.

While cruising at FL350 the airplane vacuum system fails. The cabin altitude: A. Immediately goes to 13,500 feet. B. Remains at approximately 10,000 feet (as set by the limiters). C. Rapidly approaches 35,000 feet. D. Decreases to a value as determined by the maximum differential pressure.

The source of bleed air for cabin pressuriza-tion when the EMERG PRESS ON light is illuminated in flight is: A. Either the left or right engine. B. The left engine only. C. The right engine only. D. Ram air.

The system bypass valve is: A. Spring-loaded closed. . B. Spring-loaded open. C. Energized closed. D. B and C.

Depressing an ENG FIRE switchlight: A. Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the pump. B. Trips the generator field relay.. C. Arms the fire extinguishing system. D. All of the above.

3. Closing of a hydraulic firewall shutoff valve is indicated by. A. A warning horn. B. Illumination of the applicable segment of the F/W SHUT-OFF annunciator. C. Illumination of the HYD PRESS ON annunciator. D. None of the above.

4. If electrical power is lost, the system bypass. A. Spring loads to the closed position. . B. Is not affected. C. Spring loads to the open position. . D. None of the above.

The hydraulic system provides pressure to operate the: A. Landing gear and speedbrakes only. B. Antiskid brakes, landing gear, and flaps. C. Speedbrakes, landing gear, thrust revers-ers, and flaps. D. Speedbrakes, landing gear, and wheel brakes.

The reservoir quantity indicator is located: A. In the right forward baggage compartment. B. On the copilot’s instrument panel. C.. On the right engine near the oil filter. D. In the tail cone area.

Reservoir fluid level below 0.2 gallon is indi-cated by illumination of the: A. HYD LOW LEVEL annunci ator. B. HYD PRESS ON annunciator. C. LH or RH HYD LOW LEVEL annunciator. D. LH or RH HYD FLOW LOW annunciator.

Hydraulic system operation is indicated by illumination of the: A. HYD LOW LEVEL annunciator.. B. HYD PRESS ON annunciator. C. LH or RH HYD LOW LEVEL annunciator. D. LH or RH HYD FLOW LOW annunciator.

Of the following statements concerning the hydraulic system, the correct one is: A. The HYD PRESS ON annunciator illumi- nates anytime the engine-driven pumps are operating. B. A HYD PRESS ON annunciat or illumi- nating while the gear is extending may indicate a failed hydraulic pump. C. The HYD LOW LEVEL annunciator illu- minates whenever reservoir fluid level is 0.5 gallon. D. A HYD FLOW LOW annunciator illu- minating may indicate a failed hydraulic pump.

On the ground, the LDG GEAR handle is pre-vented from movement to the UP position by: A. Mechanical detents. B. A spring-loaded locking solenoid. .C. Hydraulic pressure. D. A manually applied handle locking device.

The landing gear uplock mechanisms are: A. Mechanically held engaged by springs. B. Hydraulically disengaged. C. Electrically engaged and disengaged. D. A and B.

Landing gear downlocks are disengaged: A. When hydraulic pressure is applied to the retract side of the gear actuators. B. By action of the gear squat switches. C. By removing the external downlock pins. D. By mechanical linkage as the gear begins to retract.

4. Each main gear wheel incorporates a fusible plug that: :A. Blows out if the tire is over serviced with air. B. Melts, deflating the tire if an overheated brake creates excessive tire pressure. C. Is thrown out by centrifugal force if maxi- mum wheel speed is exceeded. D. None of the above.

At retraction, if the nose gear does not lock in the up position, the gear panel light indication will be: A. Red light on, green LH and RH lights on. B. Red light out, green LH and RH lights on. C. Red light on, all three green lights out. D. All four lights out.

The gear warning horn cannot be silenced when one or more gear are not down and locked and: A. Flaps are extended beyond the 15° position. B. Airspeed is less than 150 KIAS. C. Either throttle is retarded below 70% N2 rpm. D. Both throttles are retarded below 70% N2 rpm and airspeed is not less than 150 KIAS.

When the LDG GEAR handle is positioned either UP or DOWN: A. The bypass valve (in the hydraulic system) is energized open. B. The bypass valve is energized closed. . C. The bypass valve is not affected. D. The HYD PRESS ON annunciator light goes out.

Emergency extension of the landing gear is accomplished by actuation of: A. A switch for uplock release and applica- tion of air pressure. B. One manual control to release the uplocks and apply air pressure for extension. C. Two manual controls—one to mechan- ically release the uplocks, the other to apply air pressure for gear extension and downlocking. D. None of the above.

9. Nosewheel steering is operative: A. Only on the ground. B. With the gear extended or retracted. C. With the gear extended, in flight or on the ground. D. None of the above.

The power brake valve is actuated: A. Mechanically by the rudder pedals. B. Mechanically by the emergency airbrake control lever. C. Hydraulically by master cylinder pressure. D. Automatically at touchdown.

11. Do not actuate the brake pedals while apply-ing brakes with the emergency brake system because: A. Air bubbles will be induced into the brake fluid. B. The shuttle valve may allow air pressure into the brake reservoir, rupturing it. C. The shuttle valve will move to the neutral position and no braking action will occur. D. The brakes will be “spongy.”.

12. The DC motor-driven hydraulic pump in the brake system operates: A. During the entire time the LDG GEAR handle is in the DOWN position. B. As needed with the LDG GEAR han- dle DOWN in order to maintain system pressure. C. Only when the POWER BRAKE LOW PRESS annunciator illuminates. D. Even when the LDG GEAR handle is UP to keep air out of the system as the air- plane climbs to altitude.

13. Concerning the landing gear, the correct state-ment is. A. The red GEAR UNLOCKED light will illuminate and the warning horn will sound whenever either or both throttles are retarded below 70% N2 and the gear up. B. The gear warning horn can be silenced when the gear is not down and locked and the flaps are extended beyond 15°. C. The landing gear pins must be inserted on the ground due to loss of hydraulic pres- sure as the engines are shut down. D. The landing gear are secured in the extend- ed position by mechanical locks.

14. Concerning landing gear auxiliary extension, the correct statement is: A. If three green lights are observed after yawing the airplane, it is not necessary to use the pneumatic bottle. B. The optimum airspeed for this procedure is 200 KIAS. C. The LDG GEAR handle is placed in the DOWN position to release the gear uplocks in order to allow the red T-handle to release the doors. D. After the gear are extended by this procedure, they can be retracted in flight if the hydraulic system is returned to normal operation.

15. Concerning the landing gear, an incorrect statement is: A. The AUX GEAR CONTROL is inopera- tive with loss of DC electrical power. B. The pneumatic system should be used to assure positive locking of the actua- tors following a free-fall gear extension even though all three green lights are illuminated. C. The LDG GEAR warning cir cuit breaker on the LH circuit-breaker panel controls the power to the landing gear position light, warning horn, and solenoid lock. D. The GEAR CONTROL circuit breaker on the LH circuit-breaker panel controls the power to the landing gear control valve; if open, the gear cannot be extended or retracted normally.

16. The wheel brakes: A. Will be inoperative with a HYD LOW LEVEL light illuminated. B. Must be applied with the emergency system if a HYD LOW LEVEL light is illum inated. C. Use a different type of approved fluid than the airplane hydraulic system. D. Are totally independent of the open center airplane hydraulic system.

17. When the emergency brakes are used: A. The EMER BRAKE PULL lever should be pumped in order to build up sufficient pressure to stop the airplane. B. The normal toe brakes must also be applied to allow the bottle pressure to reach the brakes. C. Differential braking is not available. D. Braking action will be insufficient if the gear has been extended pneumatically, since that process will exhaust the bottle pressure.

18. The parking brake: A. May be set immediately after a maximum braking effort due to the modulation of the anti-skid system. B. Will still be operable if the emergency brakes have to be utilized. C. Must be off to ensure proper operation of the anti-skid system. D. Has thermal relief valves to prevent the fusible plugs in the tire from melting.

1. The ailerons are operated by: A. Hydraulic pressure. B. Mechanical inputs from the control wheels. C. A fly-by-wire system. D. An active control system that totally elimi- nates adverse yaw.

2. The aileron trim tab is operated by: A. An electrically operated trim tab motor. B. A hydraulically operated trim tab motor. C. A mechanical trim knob on the throttle control quadrant. D. Changing the angle of the aileron “fence.”.

3. Regarding the rudder: A. The pilot’s and copilot’s pedals are interconnected. B. The trim tab actuator is powered only electrically. C. The servo is connected to the air data com- puter to restrict rudder pedal deflection at high airspeeds. D. It is independent of the nosewheel steering on the ground.

4. The elevator: A. Trim tab is controlled only electrically. B. Runaway trim condition can be allevi- ated by depressing the AP/TRIM DISC switch and pulling the PITCH TRIM cir- cuit breaker.pull. C. Electric pitch trim has both high speed and low speed positions. D. Trim tab is located on the right elevator only.

5. If hydraulic power is lost: A. The flaps will be inoperative. B. The flaps will operate with the backup electrical system, but will extend and retract at a reduced rate. C. There is no effect on wing flap operation. D. A split flap condition could result if the flaps are lowered.

6. The wing flaps: A. Can be preselected to only four positions (up, 7°, 15°, full). B. Depend on both actuators to function to prevent a split flap condition. C. Can be lowered manually if electrical power is lost, but only if all hydraulic fluid has not been lost. D. Normally take 16 to 20 seconds to fully extend from the up position.

7. Regarding the gust lock: A. The engines may be started with it engaged. B. The airplane should not be towed with it engaged. C. It may be engaged for towing. D. If the airplane is towed past the 60° limit, nosewheel steering may be lost if the gear is left down.

8. Moving the flap selector lever to any position: A. Energizes the hydraulic system bypass valve closed. B. Energizes the flap control valve to the selected position. C. A and B. D. Energizes the electric hydraulic pump for flap operation.

9. If hydraulic failure occurs with the flaps extended, the flaps: A. Will “blow up,” depending on airload. B. Cannot be fully retracted. C. Can be retracted to the midrange position. D. Can be completely retracted.

10. Extended speedbrakes are maintained in that position by: A. Hydraulic pressure. B. Trapped fluid in the lines from the control valve. C. Internal locks in the actuators. D. External locks on the actuators.

11. The amber HYD PRESS ON light on the annunciator panel will illuminate during speedbrake operation: A. When the speedbrakes are fully extended. B. While the speedbrakes are extending and retracting. C. Both A and B. D. Neither A nor B.

12. A true statement concerning the speedbrake is: A. The white SPEED BRAKE EXTEND light will illuminate whenever both sets of speed brakes are fully extended. B. If DC electrical failure occurs while the speedbrakes are extended, they will remain extended since the hydraulic pres- sure is trapped on the extend side of the actuators. C. If hydraulic pressure loss should occur while the speedbrakes are extended (sys- tem bypass valve fails open), the speed- brakes will automatically blow to trail. D. The speedbrakes can only be retract- ed by placing the speedbrake switch to RETRACT.

1. The cockpit oxygen pressure gauge reads: A. The oxygen pressure which is present at the crew masks. B. Electrically derived system low pressure. C. Bottle pressure. D. Electrically derived system high pressure.

2. Passenger masks are automatically dropped when the: A. Oxygen selector is in NORMAL and cabin altitude exceeds 13,500 feet. B. Cabin altitude exceeds 13,500 feet, regard- less of oxygen selector position. C. Oxygen selector is in MANUAL DROP, regardless of altitude. D. A and C.

3. If DC power fails, placing the oxygen selector in: A. MANUAL DROP deploys the passenger masks, regardless of the cabin altitude. B. MANUAL DROP deploys the passenger masks only if 13,500 feet cabin altitude is exceeded. C. CREW ONLY does not restrict oxygen to the crew only if the cabin altitude is above 13,500 feet. D. Any of the three operating positions will not route oxygen to the passengers—they have their own oxygen.

4. The purpose of the altitude pressure switch is to: A. Bypass oxygen flow directly to the passen- gers regardless of oxygen selector position. B. Open a solenoid at 13,500 feet cabin alti- tude, allowing oxygen flow to the passen- ger oxygen distribution system. C. Close a solenoid valve at 13,500 feet cabin altitude, stopping oxygen flow to the passengers. D. Restore cabin altitude to 8,000 feet so that oxygen is not required.

5. If the oxygen selector is placed in CREW ONLY: A. The passenger masks cannot be dropped automatically. B. The passenger masks will not deploy auto- matically, but they can still be dropped manually. C. The passengers will still receive oxygen if the cabin altitude is above 8,000 feet. D. Normal DC power is removed from the passenger mask door actuators, thus pre- venting them from dropping the masks.

6. If normal DC power is lost with the oxygen selector in NORMAL: A. The passenger masks will deploy imme- diately, regardless of the cabin altitude. B. The passenger masks cannot be dropped manually. C. The oxygen pressure gauge on the copi- lot’s panel will be inoperative. D. Automatic dropping of the passenger masks will not occur.