TEST 2 Los pijuyos
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Título del Test:
![]() TEST 2 Los pijuyos Descripción: Test de M42 |



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1. Vertical Stabilizer is constructed of the following material. a. AFRP. b. PFRP. c. CFRP. 2 What indication is shown in the cockpit when is installed the safety pin on the nose landing gear electrical box?. a. On the EWD memo display the message "N.WHEEL STEERG DISC" disappears. b. On the SD system display the message "N.WHEEL STEERG DISC" disappears. c. On the ECAM memo display the message "N.WHEEL STEERG DISC" appears in green. 3. What is the condition in flight in case of total loss of the main generators before the emergency generator comes on line?. a. Battery 1 supplies the AC ESS via Static Inverter and Battery 2 de DC ESS BUS. b. Battery 2 supplies the AC ESS via Static Inverter and Battery 1 de DC ESS BUS. c. Battery 1 supplies the AC BUS1 via Static Inverter and Battery 2 de DC BUS. 4. How is the information shown on the upper and lower ECAM?. a. Upper Ecam is used to show secondary engine parameters, flap/slat position, fuel on board, warnings /caution and the lower Ecam is used for 10 system pages, status and cruise pages „permanent data. b. Upper Ecam is used to show primary engine parameters, flap/slat position, fuel on board, warnings /caution and the lower Ecam is used for 10 system pages, status and cruise pages, memo messages. c. Upper Ecam is used to primary engine parameters, flap/slat position ,fuel on board, warnings /caution and the lower Ecam is used for 11 system pages, status and cruise pages, permanent data. 5. In case of DU failure, what message is displayed on screen (A320 Classic)?. a. INVALID DISPLAY UNIT. b. INVALID DATA. c. SCREEN BECOMES BLANK. 6. What happens with the indication lights when the parameters of the external power are not correct after a normal connection on the cockpit panel?. a. The NOT IN USE light in the external power receptacle is ON. b. The AVAILABLE light in the external power receptacle remains ON. c. The AVAILABLE light in the cockpit and external power receptacle are OFF. 7. The A/C is in cruise, what happens when the center tank fuel has been used (A320)?. a. The center tank pumps stop 5 minutes after the fuel low level has been reached and wing tank pumps supply the engines. b. The center tank pumps stop 5 minutes before the fuel high level has been reached and wing tank pumps supply the engines. c. The center tank pumps stop 5 minutes after the fuel high level has been reached and wing tank pumps supply the engines. 8. On the Classic A320, Which unit sends the electrical information to the SDAC?. a. GLC. b. GCU. c. EGIU. 9. Which inputs are directly sent to DMC to elaborate information on the system pages?. a. Engines, fuel, navigation. b. Engines, fuel, doors status, APU. c. Engines, air conditioning, navigation. 10. From where are accessed the function of the CFDS?. a. The Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS = DFDRS + BITEs) functions are accessed through the MCDUs. b. The Centralized Fault Display System (CDS = CFDIU +BITEs) functions are accessed through the MCDUs. c. The Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS = FDIMU+ BITEs) functions are accessed through the MCDUs. 11. What is the function of the Digital Flight Data Recorder System?. a. The DFDR stores data, which the CFDIU part has collected during the last 25 hours. b. The DFDR stores data, which the FDIU part has collected during the last 25 hours. c. The DFDR stores data, which the DU part has collected during the last 25 hours. 12. How you can weigh the aircraft?. a. The aircraft on landing gear jacks, the aircraft on a jack point only and the aircraft on flight. b. The aircraft on jacks, the aircraft on its wheels, the aircraft without engines, the aircraft on nose landing gear jack only. c. The aircraft on jacks, the aircraft on its wheels, and the aircraft on landing gear jacks. 13. What information can be found in the AVIONICS STATUS CDS MENU?. a. The list of systems affected for a failure and also indicates ECAM Warnings erased failures. b. The list of systems affected for a failure occurred only on ground. c. The list of systems affected for a failure and also indicates Class 3 failures. 14. What characterizes an independent failure?. a. Its absence of consequences on other systems. b. Associated attention getters not activated. c. Its consequences on other systems (secondary failure). 15. What indicates the STS reminder on the E/W display?. a. Status messages (info) is present on the SD STS. b. A parameter has drifted on the STS page. c. Status memo messages is present on the E/W display info. 16. Which units are combined on the FDIMU?. a. FDIU and DMU. b. FDIU and DU. c. FDU and DMU. 17. Which statement is correct about The Post Flight Report (PFR)?. a. The Post Flight Report (PFR) is the sum of the LAST LEG REPORT and of the CURRENT LEG ECAM REPORT. The PFR can only be printed on flight. b. The Post Flight Report (PFR) is the sum of the CURRENT LEG REPORT and of the LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. The PFR can only be printed on ground. c. The Post Flight Report (PFR) is the sum of the LAST LEG REPORT and of the LAST LEG ECAM REPORT. The PFR can only be printed on ground. 18. What are the priorities of the aircraft generators to supply the AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2?. a. Onside generator, External power, APU, opposite generator. b. Onside generator, Batteries, External power, APU,. c. Onside generator, External power, APU, Batteries Emergency generator. 19. The following valves make sure that the center tank is emptied first: a. Transfer valves. b. Sequence valves. c. Crossfeed valves. 20. Which computers provide information for flight phases computations, identify the affected circuits or systems and provide corrective actions?. a. FWC. b. SDAC. c. CFDIU. 21. When do the batteries supply their own Hot Bus?. a. The Hot Bus is energized, when the Batteries are connected to the aircraft network. b. The Hot Bus is always connected to the aircraft network. c. The Hot Bus is energized, when the Batteries are only disconnected from the aircraft network. 22. When is the fault light at the IDG push button illuminated?. a. High oil out temperature & low oil pressure not caused by drive under speed. b. Low oil out temperature & low oil pressure not caused by drive under speed. c. High oil out temperature & low oil pressure caused by drive under speed. 23. What lights are controlled with the NAV & LOGO light sw in position 2?. a. Turns on the LOGO light and the first set of navigation lights. b. Turns off all lights. c. Turns on the LOGO light and the second set of navigation lights. 24. The panels made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP) and Aramid Fiber Reinforced Plastic (AFRP) sandwich construction are composite hybrid. a. TRUE. b. FALSE. 25. On the Enhanced A320, Which unit sends the electrical information to the SDAC?. a. GCU. b. EGIU. c. GLC. 26. What class of failures has operational consequences and needs to be Refer to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL): "GO", "GO IF" or "NO GO"?. a. Class 3. b. Class 1. c. Class 2. 27. What must be done with the IDG after a thermal disconnection?. a. Reset it. b. Replace it. c. Service it. 28. Which type of aircraft system can memorize failures occurred in the last 64 flight legs?. a. Type 3 system. b. Type 1 system. c. Type 2 system. 29. What is indicated to the captain when an independent failure is occurring in the aircraft?. a. An independent is displayed with a box around the failure. b. An independent failure is displayed with a title underlined. c. An independent failure is displayed with an asterisk. 30. When is the ADV indication presented?. a. Appears in normal display configuration on the lower memo area when a parameter drifts from its normal value. b. Appears in single display configuration on the status page area when a parameter drifts from its normal value. c. Appears in single display configuration on the lower memo area when a parameter drifts from its normal value. 31. Where is the fuel pressure obtained for starting the APU?. a. Only from the engine fuel pumps. b. APU fuel pumps or engine fuel pumps. c. APU fuel pumps or crossfeed valves. 32. What is indicated to the captain when a primary failure is occurring in the aircraft?. a. A primary failure is displayed with a title underlined. b. A primary failure is displayed with an asterisk. c. A primary failure is displayed with a box around the failure. 33. What is the purpose of the fuel diverter and return valve?. a. Allows the hot fuel to be returned to the center tank. b. Allows the hot fuel to be returned to the outer cell first. c. Allows the hot fuel to be returned to the inner cell. 34. What are characteristics of the Engine and APU generators?. a. 115/200 volts three phase, 400 hz, 5 kva. b. 115/200 volts three phase, 400 hz, 90 kva. c. 115/200 volts single phase, 400 hz, 90 kva. 35. Is possible dispatch for MEL the Fuel pump number 1 of L/H wing?. a. No, because when the aircraft is in emergency electrical power, it is used. b. NO, because when is the aircraft emergency hydraulic power, it is used. c. Yes, because when is the aircraft emergency electrical power, it is not used. 36. Which type of aircraft system can memorize failures occurred in the last leg only?. a. Type 1 system. b. Type 3 system. c. Type 2 system. 37. What are the functions of the ECAM system?. a. Data acquisition and concentration, Data warning computation and Warning announcement and data display SAC, FWC and DMC. b. Data acquisition and concentration, Data warning computation and Warning announcement and data display SAC, FWC and BSCU. c. Data acquisition and concentration, Data warning computation and Warning announcement and data display SAC, BMC and DMC. 38. Which statement is correct according to aircraft jacking?. a. Three jacking points, when equipped with jacking pads, are used to lift the A/C and a safety stay is positioned in the rear after jacking to stabilize the aircraft. b. Three jacking points, when equipped with jacking pads, are used to lift the A/C and a safety stay is positioned in the rear before jacking to stabilize the aircraft. c. Three jacking points, when equipped with jacking pads, are used to lift the A/C and a safety stay is positioned in the rear to lift and stabilize the aircraft. 39. How is confirmed the opening of the Defuel Transfer valve?. a. When the red open light comes on, the MODE SELECT is set to normal position. b. When the green open light comes on ,the MODE SELECT is set to DEFUEL/XFR. c. When the amber open light comes on, the MODE SELECT is set to DEFUEL/XFR. 40. What class of failures have no immediate operational consequence and can be displayed on request on the ECAM STATUS page, under the MAINTENANCE title?. a. Class 2. b. Class 3. c. Class 1. 41. Which type of warning generates the alerts 3 and 2?. a. Alert 2 master warning + CRC, Alert 3 master caution + SC. b. Alert 1 master warning + CRC, Alert 2 master caution +SC. c. Alert 3 master warning + CRC, Alert 2 master caution + SC. 42. Which are the Bus Tie Logic tasks?. a. No parallel operation of two power sources on the transfer line or busbars, Automatic power transfer in case of a supply failure, and the priority of Power Sources to supply the AC BUSES. b. Parallel operation of two power sources on the transfer line or busbars, manual power transfer in case of a supply failure, and the priority of Power Sources to supply the AC BUSES. c. Parallel operation of two power sources on the transfer line or busbars, Automatic power transfer in case of a supply failure, and the priority of Power Sources to supply the AC BUSES. 43. What are the two types of composites construction of the Airbus A320?. a. Monolithic or sandwich construction. b. Monocoque and monolithic. c. Monocoque and semimonocoque. 44. If the engines are running and cockpit door open, what is the dim of the entry light?. a. 50%. b. 100 %. c. 10%. 45. What functions are combined in the GAPCU?. a. GPCU and the APU GCU. b. GPCU and the GCU. c. GCU and the APU GCU. 46. The flight surfaces on the outer wing are made of: a. Five slats made of aluminum alloy and five CFRP spoilers. b. Five slats made of aluminum alloy and five AFRP spoilers. c. Five slats made of composites material and five CFRP spoilers. 47. How is the CSM/G operation monitored?. a. By an amber FAULT light. The FAULT light activation is controlled by either Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) 1 or 2. During transient configuration, or if the generator is faulty, there is no ESS Transformer Rectifier (TR) output, thus the FAULT light comes on. b. By a red FAULT light. The FAULT light activation is controlled by either Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) 1 or 2. During transient configuration, or if the generator is faulty, there is no ESS Transformer Rectifier (TR) output, thus the FAULT light comes on. c. By an amber FAULT light. The FAULT light activation is controlled by either Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) 1 or 2. During transient configuration, or if the generator is faulty, there is no Static Inverter output, thus the FAULT light comes on. 48. What indication is shown in the cockpit with the aircraft in flight if the strobe lights are set to OFF?. a. STROBE LT OFF is displayed on the lights memo message. b. STROBE LT OFF is displayed on the upper ECAM memo message. c. STROBE LT OFF is displayed on the System Display memo message. 50. How is the engine isolated from the fuel supply?. a. The engine cannot be isolated from the fuel supply. b. The engine is isolated when a LP valve closes at engine Shutdown in normal procedure or in case pf emergency such as engine fire procedure. c. The engine is isolated when a HP valve open at engine shutdown in normal procedure or in case of emergency such as engine fire procedure. |





