Cuestiones
ayuda
option
Mi Daypo

TEST BORRADO, QUIZÁS LE INTERESETAT

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del test:
TAT

Descripción:
cisco ccna

Autor:
AVATAR

Fecha de Creación:
09/09/2014

Categoría:
Informática

Número preguntas: 57
Comparte el test:
Facebook
Twitter
Whatsapp
Comparte el test:
Facebook
Twitter
Whatsapp
Últimos Comentarios
No hay ningún comentario sobre este test.
Temario:
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) The database information for each router is obtained from the same source. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router. Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check? ingress port buffering cut-through switching store-and-forward switching borderless switching.
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58? ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0 ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0 ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0 ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0.
Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.) RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS. Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) It connects multiple IP networks. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. It determines the best path to send packets. It manages the VLAN database. It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically? It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network. It has an administrative distance of 1. It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing? IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers. IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols. IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes. IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.) Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. Configuration of static routes is error-free. Static routes scale well as the network grows. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does. The path a static route uses to send data is known. No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B? R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1 R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254 R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1 R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254.
What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified? recursive static route directly connected static route fully specified static route floating static route.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will properly configure an IPv6 static route on R2 that will allow traffic from PC2 to reach PC1 without any recursive lookups by router R2? R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32::1 R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0 R2(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:32::1 R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet? Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226. Change the exit interface to S0/0/1. Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.0. Add an administrative distance of 254.
The following network assignments have been made in a company: 10.50.0.0/28 10.50.0.128/26 10.50.0.40/29 A company branch office has recently added an IP-based video surveillance system that requires a server and 20 cameras to be on a separate network. Which network number and mask could be used for this network if the branch office is using an overall block of addresses of 10.50.0.0/24? 10.50.0.32/27 10.50.0.64/27 10.50.0.96/28 10.50.0.32/28 10.50.0.48/27.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate? A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination. Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination. Cost equals bandwidth. A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Refer to the exhibit. What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3? 192.168.0.0/24 192.168.0.0/23 192.168.0.0/22 192.168.0.0/21.
Refer to the exhibit. What two types of devices are connected to R1? (Choose two.) router switch repeater hub Source Route Bridge.
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.) scalability ISP selection speed of convergence the autonomous system that is used campus backbone architecture.
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.) the link router interface IP address and subnet mask the type of network link the link next-hop IP address the link bandwidth the cost of that link.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16? child route ultimate route default route level 1 parent route.
When are EIGRP update packets sent? only when necessary when learned routes age out every 5 seconds via multicast every 30 seconds via broadcast.
Which three addresses are EIGRP multicast addresses? (Choose three.) 224.0.0.10 FF02::A FF02::9 01-00-5E-00-00-10 224.0.0.9 01-00-5E-00-00-0A.
Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered? B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63.
Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.) k1 k2 k3 k4 k5 k6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.) There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30. The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1. The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256. The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages? the 32-bit router ID the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address the interface IPv6 link-local address.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured? no shutdown eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100 ipv6 unicast-routing ipv6 eigrp 100 ipv6 cef.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output? A static default route has been manually configured on this router. Summarization of routes has been manually configured. A default route is being learned through an external process. The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off? when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes when a router has more than three active interfaces when a network contains discontiguous network addresses when a router has less than five active interfaces when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM.
Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.) It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table. It increases the size of routing updates. It reduces the frequency of routing updates. It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork. It improves reachability in discontiguous networks. It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.
A router is participating in an OPSFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OPSF router? OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election. SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”. A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start. OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency? They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals. They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network. They request more information about their databases. They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0? It changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1. It enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router. It tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process. It allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.
What is the reason for a network engineer to alter the default reference bandwidth parameter when configuring OSPF? to more accurately reflect the cost of links greater than 100 Mb/s to increase the speed of the link to force that specific link to be used in the destination route to enable the link for OSPF routing.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.) The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command. The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command. The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match. The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router. The link interface subnet masks must match. The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined? the highest IPv6 address on an active interface the lowest MAC address on an active interface the highest IPv4 address on an active interface the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the results of the OSPF election process of the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.) R2 will be elected DR. R1 will be elected BDR. R3 will be elected BDR. The R4 router ID is 172.16.1.1. The R4 FastEthernet 0/0 priority is 128. The router ID on R2 is the loopback interface.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the command default-information originate in OSPFv3 global configuration mode on R1, but R2 is not receiving a default route. What is the problem? OSPFv3 is not running on R2. R1 and R2 are on different subnets. R1 does not have a default route configured. The default-information originate command is only used for OSPFv2.
Which two commands will configure OSPFv2 MD5 authentication on a router interface? (Choose two.) router ospf 10 ip ospf priority 255 default-information originate area 0 authentication message-digest ip ospf authentication message-digest ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCO-ABC.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. The database information for each router is obtained from the same source. Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
When does an OSPF router become an ABR? when the router has interfaces in different areas when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator when the router has the highest router ID when the router has an OSPF priority of 0.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table? This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area. This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR. This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0. This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
Refer to the exhibit. What are two things that are different about the highlighted E2 routes in the routing table? (Choose two.) These routes were learned using Type 5 LSAs. These routes have an administrative distance of 20. These routes can be used as backup default routes. These routes are used to reach networks outside the OSPF multiarea network. These routes are networks connected to other routers in the same OSPF area.
Which two OSPFv3 statements are true? (Choose two.) OSPF networks are configured under router configuration mode. The multicast address FF02::6 is used to forward packets to the OSPF DR and BDR. The router ID is configured using an IPv4 address. The router-id router-id command is issued in interface configuration mode. The router ospf priority priority command is issued under the router configuration mode.
Refer to the exhibit. The R1 router is participating in a multiarea OSPF network. What can the network administrator determine from the output? The router does not have a default gateway. The correct wildcard masks have not been entered properly as part of the network commands entered on this router. The router has been configured to not participate in DR/BDR elections on interfaces Serial 0/0/0 and Serial 0/01. The routing protocol configuration mode network commands have been entered on this router and adjacent routers.
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs? They are configured in the interface configuration mode. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only. They can be created with a number but not with a name. They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.) R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255 R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures an ACL on the router. Which statement describes the result of the configuration? An SSH connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 172.16.45.16 to a device with IP 192.168.25.18. An SSH connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 192.168.25.18 to a device with IP 172.16.45.16. A Telnet connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 172.16.45.16 to a device with IP 192.168.25.18. A Telnet connection is allowed from a workstation with IP 192.168.25.18 to a device with IP 172.16.45.16.
The security policy in a company specifies that employee workstations can initiate HTTP and HTTPS connections to outside websites and the return traffic is allowed. However, connections initiated from outside hosts are not allowed. Which parameter can be used in extended ACLs to meet this requirement? eq dscp established precedence.
Which ACE will permit a packet that originates from any network and is destined for a web server at 192.168.1.1? access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.1 any eq 80 access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.1 eq 80 any access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 80 host 192.168.1.1 access-list 101 permit tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 80.
Which packet types are implicitly permitted by IPv6 ACLs? router solicitation packets IPv6 unicast packets neighbor discovery packets ping packets.
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions? (Choose two.) The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version. The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12 license key is not device specific. Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but not the IOS 15 versions. IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release. The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS 15 version still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential order.
What are three characteristics of the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4T train? (Choose three.) It requires the activation of a license. It has a number of embedded technology packages. It is updated with new features and hardware support. It is derived from the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4 Mainline train. It has extended maintenance new feature releases approximately every 16 to 20 months. It receives regular software fixes that are synchronized with the 12.4 Mainline train.
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router? The FTP server is operational. The old IOS image file has been deleted. There is sufficient space in flash memory. The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM? The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register. The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image. The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image. The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration. The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command? The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router. The features in the Security package are available immediately. The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license. The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.
Which message was displayed on the web server? You’ve made it! Congratulations Wonderful work! Work done!.
Which message is displayed on the website? Correct! Good Job! Well Done! Configured Correctly!.
Denunciar test Consentimiento Condiciones de uso