4 Instru

4271. (Refer to Figure 30.) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (GNATS1. MOURN) departure?. A— R-333 beyond 30 NM below 6,500 feet. B— R-210 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet. C— R-251 within 15 NM below 6,100 feet.

4400. For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than. A— 75 NM. B— 100 NM. C— 200 NM.

4273. (Refer to Figures 27 and 30.) To which maximum service volume distance from the OED VORTAC should you expect to receive adequate signal coverage for navigation at the flight planned altitude?. A— 100 NM. B— 80 NM. C— 40 NM.

4397. Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?. A— Slant range distance in NM. B— Slant range distance in SM. C— Line-of-sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.

4399. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?. A— High altitudes far from the VORTAC. B— High altitudes close to the VORTAC. C— Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

4674. (Refer to Figure 128.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?. A— The airborne DME will always indicate “0” mileage. B— The airborne DME will “search,” but will not “lock on. C— The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.

4413. Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?. A— 0. B— 1. C— 1.3.

4472. As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?. A— Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility. B— One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility. C— No specific distance is specified since the reception is line-of-sight.

4663. When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of. A— 20 second intervals at 1020 Hz. B— 30 second intervals at 1350 Hz. C— 60 second intervals at 1350 Hz.

4412. What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?. A— The VOR and DME components are operative. B— VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service. C— The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.

4320. (Refer to Figure 55.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one-half mile deviation from the desired arc?. A— 2° to 3°. B— 5° maximum. C— 10° to 20°.

4669. How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?. A— IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box. B— LOC/DME are indicated on en route low altitude frequency box. C— LOC/DME frequencies available in the Airman’s Information Manual.

4664. When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used. A— in lieu of the OM. B— in lieu of visibility requirements. C— to determine distance from TDZ.

4044. Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?. A— VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error, and signature. B— Place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature. C— Date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error.

4046. What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?. A— The date, place, bearing error, and signature. B— The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature. C— The date, place, bearing error, aircraft total time, and signature.

4054. When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?. A— 4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR. B— Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR. C— 6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.

4362. (Refer to Figure 76.) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the aircraft is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?. A— A. B— B. C— C.

4383. While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?. A— Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR. B— 4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR. C— Plus or minus 6° when set to identical radials of a VOR.

4382. (Refer to Figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR’s are satisfactory?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 4.

4377. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?. A— Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication. B— Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication. C— With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.

4385. (Refer to Figure 82.) Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VOR’s using one system against the other?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 4.

4386. Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?. A— On the IAP Chart and in the Airport/Facility Directory. B— Only in the Airport/Facility Directory. C— In the Airport/Facility Directory and on the A/G Voice Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude Chart.

4387. Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?. A— 360° TO and 003° TO, respectively. B— 001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively. C— 176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.

4388. In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?. A— Aeronautical Information Manual. B— En Route Low Altitude Chart. C— Airport/Facility Directory.

4389. Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?. A— Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial. B— Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial. C— Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.

4372. What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?. A— Plus or minus 4°. B— Plus or minus 6°. C— Plus or minus 8°.

4384. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?. A— With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication. B— Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication. C— Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

4376. When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the. A— 090 radial. B— 180 radial. C— 360 radial.

4378. When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omni-bearing selector and the OBS indicator should read. A— within 4° of the selected radial. B— within 6° of the selected radial. C— 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.

4326. (Refer to Figure 58.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight? VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME No. 1 No. 2. A— 097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3. B— 097° TO 096° TO 3.2. C— 277° FROM 280° FROM 3.3.

4337. (Refer to Figure 64.) The course deviation indicator (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check? VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM No. 1 No. 2. A— 162° TO 346° FROM. B— 160° FROM 162° FROM. C— 341° FROM 330° FROM.

4410. What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?. A— No coded identification, but possible navigation indications. B— Coded identification, but no navigation indications. C— A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.

4411. A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by. A— removal of the navigational feature. B— broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel. C— removal of the identification feature.

4548. What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?. A— 4°. B— 5°. C— 10°.

4549. When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?. A— The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion. B— The moment the TO-FROM indicator becomes blank. C— The first positive, complete reversal of the TOFROM indicator.

4550. Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?. A— The first flickering of the TO-FROM indicator and CDI as the station is approached. B— The first full-scale deflection of the CDI. C— The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.

4551. When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between. A— 5° and 6°. B— 8° and 10°. C— 10° and 12°.

4552. A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?. A— 2 NM. B— 3 NM. C— 5 NM.

4553. An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?. A— 1 1/2 miles. B— 2 1/2 miles. C— 3 1/2 miles.

4554. What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?. A— 2°. B— 4°. C— 5°.

4556. After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?. A— The airplane is getting closer to the radial. B— The OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading. C— The airplane is flying away from the radial.

4557. (Refer to Figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?. A— 5.0 NM. B— 7.5 NM. C— 10.0 NM.

4558. (Refer to Figure 95.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?. A— R-175. B— R-165. C— R-345.

4559. (Refer to Figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/ FROM indication to a TO?. A— 175°. B— 165°. C— 345°.

4560. (Refer to Figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?. A— 1°. B— 2°. C— 4°.

4561. (Refer to Figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?. A— 174°. B— 166°. C— 335°.

4562. (Refer to Figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/ FROM indication to a TO?. A— 166°. B— 346°. C— 354°.

4601. (Refer to Figure 106.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 3.

4666. Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle. A— deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale. B— deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale. C— deflects from half scale left to half scale right.

4338. (Refer to Figures 65 and 66.) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection?. A— Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection. B— Right of V552 and past GRICE intersection. C— Left of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.

4347. (Refer to Figures 71 and 71A.) What is your position relative to the Flosi intersection Northbound on V213?. A— West of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection. B— East of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection. C— West of V213 and past the Flosi intersection.

4495. (Refer to Figures 87 and 88.) What is your position with reference to FALSE intersection (V222) if your VOR receivers indicate as shown?. A— South of V222 and east of FALSE intersection. B— North of V222 and east of FALSE intersection. C— South of V222 and west of FALSE intersection.

4507. (Refer to Figures 89 and 90.) What is your relationship to the airway while en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8?. A— Left of course on V8. B— Left of course on V382. C— Right of course on V8.

4606. (Refer to Figure 109.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?. A— Northeast. B— Southeast. C— Southwest.

4607. (Refer to Figure 110.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?. A— Southwest. B— Northwest. C— Northeast.

4608. (Refer to Figure 111.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?. A— Northeast. B— Southeast. C— Northwest.

4563. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond?. A— 9 and 6. B— 9 only. C— 6 only.

4564. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond?. A— 11. B— 5 and 13. C— 7 and 11.

4565. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?. A— 9. B— 4. C— 12.

4566. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?. A— 1. B— 10. C— 2.

4567. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond?. A— 8 only. B— 3 only. C— 8 and 3.

4568. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?. A— 4. B— 11. C— 5.

4569. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond?. A— 7 only. B— 7 and 11. C— 5 and 13.

4570. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “H” correspond?. A— 8. B— 1. C— 2.

4571. (Refer to Figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “I” correspond?. A— 4. B— 12. C— 11.

4572. (Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “D” correspond?. A— 4. B— 15. C— 17.

4573. (Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “E” correspond?. A— 5. B— 6. C— 15.

4574. (Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “F” correspond?. A— 10. B— 14. C— 16.

4575. (Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “A” correspond?. A— 1. B— 8. C— 11.

4576. (Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “B” correspond?. A— 9. B— 13. C— 19.

4577. (Refer to Figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “C” correspond?. A— 6. B— 7. C— 12.

4578. (Refer to Figure 101.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station?. A— 060°. B— 260°. C— 270°.

4583. (Refer to instruments in Figure 102.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be. A— 175°. B— 255°. C— 355°.

4584. (Refer to instruments in Figure 102.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing FROM the station would be. A— 175°. B— 255°. C— 355°.

4585. (Refer to instruments in Figure 103.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing FROM the station would be. A— 030°. B— 060°. C— 240°.

4586. (Refer to instruments in Figure 103.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be. A— 060°. B— 240°. C— 270.

4591. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 7 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 120° magnetic bearing FROM the station?. A— 2. B— 4. C— 5.

4592. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 210° magnetic bearing FROM the station?. A— 2. B— 3. C— 4.

4593. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 3 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 120° magnetic bearing TO the station?. A— 4. B— 5. C— 8.

4594. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 1 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 060° magnetic bearing TO the station? . A— 2. B— 4. C— 5.

4595. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 2 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 255° magnetic bearing TO the station?. A— 2. B— 4. C— 5.

4596. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 4 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 135° magnetic bearing TO the station?. A— 1. B— 4. C— 8.

4597. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 6 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 255° magnetic bearing FROM the station?. A— 2. B— 4. C— 5.

4598. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 090° magnetic bearing FROM the station?. A— 3. B— 4. C— 6.

4599. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 240° magnetic bearing TO the station?. A— 2. B— 3. C— 4.

4600. (Refer to Figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 315° magnetic bearing TO the station?. A— 3. B— 4. C— 1.

4579. (Refer to Figure 100.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235° FROM the station? (Wind 050° at 20 knots.). A— 2. B— 3. C— 4.

4580. (Refer to Figure 100.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?. A— 285°. B— 055°. C— 235°.

4581. (Refer to Figure 100.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 3.

4582. (Refer to Figure 100.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and heading away from the station?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 3.

4587. (Refer to Figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 115° radial?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 3.

4588. (Refer to Figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 335° radial?. A— 2. B— 3. C— 4.

4589. (Refer to Figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 315° radial?. A— 2. B— 3. C— 4.

4590. (Refer to Figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 010° radial?. A— 1. B— 2. C— 3.

4602. (Refer to Figure 107.) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wing-tip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a right-hand arc with a right crosswind component?. A— Behind the right wing-tip reference for VOR-2. B— Ahead of the right wing-tip reference for VOR-2. C— Behind the right wing-tip reference for VOR-1.

4603. (Refer to Figure 108.) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wing-tip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a left-hand arc with a left crosswind component?. A— Ahead of the left wing-tip reference for the VOR-2. B— Ahead of the right wing-tip reference for the VOR‑1. C— Behind the left wing-tip reference for the VOR-2.

4331. (Refer to Figures 60A and 61.) What is your position relative to the PLATS intersection, glide slope, and the localizer course?. A— Past PLATS, below the glide slope, and right of the localizer course. B— Approaching PLATS, above the glide slope, and left of the localizer course. C— Past PLATS, above the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.

4367. (Refer to Figures 78 and 79.) What is your position relative to the VOR COP southeast bound on V86 between the BOZEMAN and LIVINGSTON VORTACs? The No. 1 VOR is tuned to 116.1 and the No. 2 VOR is tuned to 112.2. A— Past the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110. B— Approaching the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110. C— Past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZN R-110.

4269. (Refer to Figure 30.) During the arc portion of the instrument departure procedure (GNATS1.MOURN), a left crosswind is encountered. Where should the bearing pointer of an RMI be referenced relative to the wing-tip to compensate for wind drift and maintain the 15 DME arc?. A— Behind the right wing-tip reference point. B— On the right wing-tip reference point. C— Behind the left wing-tip reference point.

4069. What is a way point when used for an IFR flight?. A— A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach. B— A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials. C— A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.

4684-1. What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?. A— Provides optimal routing and altitudes. B— Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized. C— Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.

4684-2. In what circumstances would a baro-VNAV approach not be authorized? . A— When the ground-based NAVAIDs, such as the ILS, are out of service. B— In areas of hazardous terrain or when a remote altimeter setting is required. C— When the lower limit of the published temperature is -20°C and the outside temperature is -15°C.

4684-3. How does baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach?. A— GPS-equipped airplanes use the existing ILS glideslope signal for vertical guidance during baro-VNAV approaches. B— By defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes using the local altimeter setting. C— Using a series of step-down fixes.

4684-4. The missed approach for the BARO-VNAV and LNAV is initiated at the. A— decision height. B— missed approach point. C— final approach fix.

4684. (Refer to Figure 129.) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?. A— An approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance. B— A transponder and an approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance. C— Any approved RNAV receiver.

4353. (Refer to Figure 73.) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the MAP?. A— Blue—alternate dots and dashes; amber—dashes. B— Amber—alternate dots and dashes; blue—dashes. C— Blue—dashes; amber—alternate dots and dashes.

4353-1. Which indications will a pilot receive when passing over an inner marker (IM) on a front course ILS approach?. A— One dot per second and a steady amber light. B— Four dots per second and a flashing white light. C— Alternating dashes and a blue light.

4702. What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?. A— The SDF course width is either 6° or 12° while the LDA course width is approximately 5°. B— The SDF course has no glide slope guidance while the LDA does. C— The SDF has no marker beacons while the LDA has at least an OM.

4703. What is the difference between a Localizer-Type Directional Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?. A— The LDA is not aligned with the runway. B— The LDA uses a course width of 6° or 12°, while an ILS uses only 5°. C— The LDA signal is generated from a VOR-type facility and has no glide slope.

4704. How wide is an SDF course?. A— Either 3° or 6°. B— Either 6° or 12°. C— Varies from 5° to 10°.

4705. What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?. A— The useable off-course indications are limited to 35° for the localizer and up to 90° for the SDF. B— The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider. C— The course width for the localizer will always be 5° while the SDF course will be between 6° and 12°.

4729. Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?. A— Inner marker. B— Outer marker. C— Middle compass locator.

4730. Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two-letter coded signal?. A— Middle marker. B— Outer marker. C— Compass locator.

4747. Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?. A— One dot per second and a steady amber light. B— Four dots per second and a flashing white light. C— Alternate dashes and a blue light.

4753. Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?. A— 100 feet. B— 200 feet. C— 300 feet.

4773. When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?. A— Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°. B— Drift corrections should be made in 5° increments after passing the outer marker. C— Drift corrections should be made in 10° increments after passing the outer marker.

4824. (Refer to Figures 139 and 140.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?. A— 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. B— 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C— 430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.

4825. (Refer to Figures 139 and 141.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?. A— 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B— 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C— 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

4826. (Refer to Figures 139 and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?. A— 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope. B— 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope. C— 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.

4685. (Refer to Figure 130.) How does an LDA facility, such as the one at Roanoke Regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility?. A— The LOC is wider. B— The LOC is offset from the runway. C— The GS is unusable beyond the MM.

4799. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should. A— use a navigation system other than GPS for the approach. B— continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. C— continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF.

4799-1. While on a GPS approach, you receive a RAIM annunciation about the status of RAIM reliability. You should. A— execute an immediate missed approach regardless of where you are on the approach path. B— execute an immediate missed approach only if you are past the FAWP. C— continue the approach since you have up to 5 minutes of GPS accuracy to complete the approach after you receive the annunciation.

4799-2. As part of your GPS preflight planning, RAIM prediction should be verified. This means that. A— RAIM availability is assured for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination. B— RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination. C— if RAIM is predicted to be available, you must still have ILS capability to use a GPS approach.

4801. When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have. A— authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics systems. B— a GPS approach that is anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA. C— an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.

4801-1. Your onboard GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129. Your destination is below minimums and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that. A— GPS units certified under TSO-C129 are not authorized for alternate approach requirements; subsequently, you must use an approach procedure based on ground based NAVAIDS. B— once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup. C— if your aircraft is equipped with a second TSOC129 certified GPS as a backup in place of a ground-based NAVAID receiver, you may complete the approach even if the IAP is based on ground-based NAVAIDS.

4947. Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as. A— the principal reference to determine enroute waypoints. B— an aid to situational awareness. C— the primary source of navigation.

4947-1. A hand-held GPS is. A— authorized for IFR use under VMC. B— authorized for IFR use under IMC until the runway is in sight. C— not authorized for IFR use.

4947-2. A hand-held GPS system. A— may be used for IFR operations in VFR weather conditions. B— is not authorized for IFR navigation. C— may be used in IFR weather conditions only for en route navigation.

4948. During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities. A— are only required during the approach portion of the flight. B— must be operational along the entire route. C— must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.

4949. During IFR en route operations using an approved GPS system for navigation,. A— no other navigation system is required. B— active monitoring of an alternate navigation system is always required. C— the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.

4949-1. On a GPS approach, the GPS/HSI shows an LNAV/VNAV flag. What should you do?. A— Descend to the LNAV MDA missed approach point. B— Follow the glideslope to the LNAV/VNAV DA. C— Execute the missed approach.

4949-2. Changing the default sensitivity on your GPS approach will. A— deselect the altitude mode. B— deselect the altitude and heading mode. C— disable the GPS annunciator.

4949-3. In a Technically Advanced Aircraft (TAA), the typical warning message is a. A— flashing red indication with a repeating tone. B— yellow indication with a single tone. C— white or green indication with no tone.

4949-4. On a WAAS-capable GPS approach, what is the significance of “LNAV+V” being displayed?. A— Advisory vertical guidance is provided to the pilot that must be used in lieu of published step-down fixes on the instrument approach. B— Advisory vertical guidance is provided as an aid to the pilot during the descent to the runway. C— Approved vertical guidance to descend to the decision height is provided to the pilot.