F70

What is the approximate wingspan of the Fokker 70?. 32 m. 28 m. 22 m. 25 m.

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180° turn of the Fokker 70?. 19.3 m. 25.6 m. 22.2 m. 18.9 m.

What are the flight manoeuvring load acceleration limits with flaps up?. 180 kts. 200 kts. 250 kts. 265 kts.

What are the flight manoeuvring load acceleration limits with flaps up?. +2.0 to 0.0g. +2.5 to 1.0g. +2.0 to -2.0g. +2.5 to -1.0g.

How is correct eye reference position determined?. When looking below the glare shield a horizontal white line on top of the main instrument panel should just be visible. The retractable reference marker must align with the white mark on top of the main instrument panel. Correct eye reference is not critical. The pilot’s eyes must be in a position to align both eye reference targets mounted on the central windshield divider.

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the Fokker 70?. 38.325 kg. 36.740 kg. 33.565 kg. 37.995 kg.

The maximum take-off weight of the Fokker 70 is: 45 540 kg. 39 915 kg. 37 995 kg. 38 325 kg.

The maximum operating speed (VMO) is. 320 knots. 330 knots. 350 knots. 310 knots.

The passenger door is located: On the forward right-hand side of the fuselag. On the aft left-hand side of the fuselage. On the forward left-hand side of the fuselage. On the forward left and right hand side of the fuselage.

The indication on the door panel when the door is closed and NOT locked: Red. Red flashing. Green flashing. No indication.

The service/emergency door is normally opened: Manually from both inside and outside. Electrically from the inside and manually from the outside. Electrically from both inside and outside. Electrically from the outside and manually from the inside.

With the service/emergency door in automati. The door can be opened from the flight deck. The slide will inflate automatically when the door is opened from either side. The door selector moves to the manual position when the door is opened from the outside. Cannot be opened from the outside.

Static Dischargers on the Fokker 70 aircraft consist of. 5 on each wing including aileron, 4 on each elevator/stabilizer & 1 on the rudder. 4 on each wing including aileron, 3 on each elevator/stabilizer & 1 on the rudder. 4 on each wing including aileron, 4 on each elevator/stabilizer & 2 on the rudde. 5 on each wing including aileron, 3 on each elevator/stabilizer & 2 on the rudder.

The Flight Deck Door is powered by: AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. DC BUS 1. DC BUS 2.

The air conditioning packs will operate when bleed air pressure is: Above 10 PSI, no overheat exists and no auto shut–off has occurred. Above 10 PSI, no overheat exists and auto shut–off has occurred. Below 10 PSI and no overheat exists. Below 10 PSI and no auto shut–off has occurred.

If an external air conditioning unit (LP connection) is used: Temperature control should be switched to manual. This air can be used to start the engines. Both air-conditioning packs should be switched off. Make sure the avionics compartment hatch is open.

In manual mode pressurization is controlled: By the manual control lever and manual rate control knob. By manual selection on the PRESS CONTROL p/b. Only when Emergency DC power is available. By the pressure control toggle switch.

The manual pressurisation mode provides pneumatic pressurisation control independent. Of pneumatic air supply. Of electrical supplies. Of electrical supplies. Answers b. and c. are correct.

The pack valve can regulate the flow in: Two modes: Normal and Economy. Two modes: Normal and Augmented. Three modes: Normal, Economy and Emergency. Three modes: Normal, Economy and Augmented.

Which air conditioning mode is automatically selected during take–off?. Augmented mode. Economy mode. Normal mode. TOGA mode.

The connection for external conditioned cabin air is. Left hand forward fuselage. Left hand rear fuselage. Right hand forward fuselage. Right hand rear fuselage.

Automatic air-conditioning shut-off will occur: Engine failure at flights below 13500 and thrust setting below MIN TO. On the ground during engine starting or when both thrust reversers are unlocked. In flight above 13 500 ft when a take-off thrust setting is selected. When the automatic air-conditioning shut off button is depressed.

If during take-off one engine fails: The air-conditioning system will go to the augmented mode. Only the pack of the failed engine closes. Both packs will close automatically. Pack operation is not affected.

After automatic pack shut-off following an engine failure after take off: Pack operation can be restored. Pack operation can not be restored. Air-conditioning is only possible with ram air. Ram air will be automatically selected.

After switching OFF pack 1, the air-conditioning system will. Go to the economy mode. Go to the augmented mode. Stay in the normal mode. Is not affected.

The re-circulation fans are controlled by: 2 PB’s on the air-conditioning panel for 2 fans. The ECON p/b on the air-conditioning panel. 2 PB’s on the air-conditioning panel for 6 fans. 2 PB's on the air-conditioning panel for 4 fans.

The ram air valve is open when the RAM AIR pushbutton: Is blank. Indicates white ON and white OPEN. Indicates white ON and green OPEN. Indicates a blue OPEN.

Changing the active channel of the automatic pressure controller: Is possible by pressing the PRESS CONTROL p/b. Is possible by pressing the PRESS CONTROL p/b twice. Is not possible. Is only possible when the aircraft is on the ground and the aircraft is depressurized.

The Flight Augmentation System (FAS) provides: Yaw damping, turn coordination and alternate stabilizer trim operation. Yaw damping, turn coordination and stabilizer trim operation. Yaw damping, Mach trim compensation and altitude alerting. Yaw damping, turn coordination and aileron trim compensation.

The basic modes of the AFCAS are: ALT hold and HDG select. ALT hold and HDG hold. HDG hold and V/S hold. HDG select and ALT select.

How can the ATS be engaged in flight?. By pressing the AT PB’s on the overhead FAP. By pulling the ATS button on the FMP. By pressing the ATS engage buttons at the thrust levers. By pressing the ATS p/b on the FMP or by TOGA triggers activation.

The TO and GA modes are activated by means of: Pressing TOGA p/b on the TRP. Pulling the TOGA triggers. Pressing the ATS p/b on the FMP. A selection on the CDU of the FMS.

Normally both Autopilots engage after take–off: If both AP p/b are depressed. When aircraft climbs above 35 feet AGL. When an AP p/b is depressed below 1500 ft AGL. When an AP p/b is depressed above 1500 ft AGL.

When GA mode is activated by the TOGA triggers, the thrust levers will initially advance to the: TOGA thrust limit. CLB thrust limit. Last TRP setting. Mechanical stop.

Alpha mode speed protection is NOT available when the: ATS is engaged in thrust or speed mode. ATS is disengaged (no FMA indication). AT pb's selected off at the FAC panel. ATS and autopilot are both in use together.

During an altitude capture after a climb in LVLCH, a new higher altitude is selected, the AFCAS will: Change to the V/S mode. Remain in the ALT capture mode. Revert to the PROF mode. Change to the LVLCH mode.

During landing, automatic thrust lever retardation occurs below: 200 ft. 100 ft. 50 ft. 25 ft.

The ATS will ’reclutch’ when: A new thrust rating is selected below 400 ft. A new altitude is selected on the FMP above 400 ft. A new thrust rating is selected above 400 ft. Another thrust rating is selected in the FMS.

In the LVLCH mode, an altitude change is normally performed with: A CLB thrust rating. Selected indicated airspeed or Mach number. A selected vertical speed. The FMS.

The ATS can be manually overridden: At any time. Only if ATS is disengaged. And causes the ATS to disengage. This is not possible.

During an automatic landing with auto roll out, the autopilot: Will automatically disengaged at touchdown. Should be manually disengaged not later than 60 kts. Will automatically disengage at 60 kts. Should be manually disengaged before lift dumpers activate.

If during an automatic approach the TOGA triggers are pulled: The autopilots will disconnect. The auto throttle system will disconnect. An automatic go–around will be initiated. Nothing happens until LVLCH is selected.

Runway alignment on a “LAND 2” approach starts at: 250 ft. 150 ft. 50 ft. 35 ft.

The AFCAS operates in the take-off mode: Above 60 kts during the take-off roll. When the toga trigger is pulled on the ground. After rotation at 30 ft AGL. After rotation at 100 ft AGL.

A boxed mode annunciation on the FMA indicates. FMS related mode. Acquire mode. Mode failure. Manual mode.

The ATS declutches at: TOGA Selection. 1500 ft above AGL. When OVRD is shown on the FMA. At 80 knots during the take off roll.

NAV-mode, when armed on the ground becomes active: When the TOGA triggers are activated. After the gear is selected up. At 30 ft AGL. At 400 ft AGL,.

The indication in the status window of the FMA, when AP1 is engaged above 1500ft AGL and both flight directors are on, is: AP1 on the left-hand PFD and FD2 on the right-hand PFD. AP1/FD1 on the LH PFD and AP1/FD2 on the RH PFD. AP1 on both PFD's. FD2 on the RH PFD only.

When airborne the APU can supply: Bleed air only. Electrical power only. Bleed air and electrical power. Neither bleed nor electrical power when airborne.

The APU requires: Fuel and normal AC power for operation. Fuel and DC power for operation. Fuel and essential AC power for operation. Fuel only.

If an APU start is unsuccessful. The start selector must be selected off, and restarting is inhibited for 30 seconds. The start selector must left in the ON position, and restarting is inhibited for 30 seconds. The start selector must left in the ON position, and restarting is inhibited for 60 seconds. The start selector must be selected off, and restarting is inhibited for 60 seconds.

After APU start on ground, APU bleed air is available. Immediately after blue ’AVAIL’ light illuminates. Approximately 2 min. after reaching operating speed. Only after APU bleed air p/b selected to on. When APU bleed air pressure exceeds 55 PSI.

After an “Overspeed Fault” the APU. Cannot be restarted in the air. Can be restarted in the air. Cannot be restarted on the ground. Answers a & c are correct.

Planned APU fuel consumption rate in flight is. 75 kg/hour. 70 kg/hour. 87 kg/hour. 90 kg/hour.

On the ground APU bleed air is used for: Engine starting and anti-icing only. Cabin pressurization only. Engine starting,air conditioning, hydraulic pressurisation and anti-icing.. Engine starting only.

On the ground, the APU can supply. AC power and hydraulic power. AC power and bleed air. Only AC power. AC power, bleed air & hydraulic power.

In flight, automatic shut-down of the APU occurs in case of: APU fire and high EGT. APU fire, APU overspeed and low oil pressure. APU fire and low oil pressure. APU fire and APU overspeed.

A blue ‘AVAIL’ light on the APU panel indicates. APU electrical power and bleed air available on the ground. APU electrical power and bleed air available in the air. APU electrical power only available. APU bleed air only available.

The APU takes fuel from: The left-hand collector tank. The right-hand collector tank. The tank with the highest fuel quantity. From its own collector tank.

What is the function of the ’RESET’ button on the lower left side overhead panel?. To cancel a SELCAL alert. To reset a CALL light alert. To reset a SELCAL and CALL signals. To reset the ALL ATTND call button.

Which COM system is supplied by the EMER DC Bus. VHF 1. VHF 2. VHF 3. VHF 1 and 3.

A blue ’CALL’ light in the cockpit indicates: A SELCAL message is received. A cabin attendant or ground engineer has called the cockpit. The CA1 is making a public announcement. A SELCAL message or call from the ground engineer.

How is a PA announcement made from the cockpit?. Hold down or push the PA switch (depending on audio panel type) and use a boom headset or hand mike. With PA button pulled out and either pilot boom mike. With RADIO/INTER switch in INTER and either pilot boom mike. Hold thumb switch on yoke to "IC" and use headset or hand mike.

After the use of the oxygen mask, communications can be restored by. Placing the oxygen mask back into the container. Removing the oxygen mask mike jack above the container. Moving both oxygen switches on the audio panel to OFF. Closing the container doors and moving the reset/test lever downwards.

Selection of the F/O “ALTN” audio selection. Disables communication facilities for the observer. Selects the Captains audio. Inhibits the F/O audio. Selects the Captain “ALTN” audio.

An oxygen mask mike, which is permanently connected to the audio system and becomes operative when: The oxygen mask is removed from its stowage. The TEST/RESET lever is moved downwards. The RELEASE LEVERS are squeezed. The UNLOCK LEVER is moved to the 100% position.

For flight deck to ground communication a service jack is installed. In the nose wheel bay. Next to the external power receptacle. In the right-hand main wheel bay. Under the service door.

Crew call pb's are located: On the right-hand and left hand lower panels on the overhead panels. On the crew call panel on the pedestal. On the left lower overhead panel. On the flight mode panel.

Automatic AC cross–tie is prevented from closing: By selecting both AUTO AC X–TIE p/b to off. When the ESS+EMER PWR ONLY p/b is selected ON. When only the APU is supplying AC power. When APU is in operation.

When the ESS+EMER PWR ONLY p/b is selected on. Only the essential and emergency buses are energized. All essential and emergency buses are taken off line. The essential and emergency buses are powered by GEN 2. Only the EMER DC and EMER AC buses are energized.

In flight with just one generator in operation, the galley busses: Are automatically de-energized. Have to be switched off manually. Are still energized. Can only supply 50% of their maximum capacity.

The emergency inverter can supply. The Essential AC bus. The Emergency AC bus. AC bus when GEN 2 is lost. The DC emergency bus.

During normal operation the DC buses are. Cross–tied. Cross–tied if generator loads are different in order to balance them. Will automatically cross–tie if DC failure occurs. Not cross–tied.

Three generators (engines and APU) are running. If generator two fails. APU supplies AC Bus 2. GEN 1 supplies both AC buses. AC Bus 2 is lost. Essential AC Bus 2 is lost.

When either engine generator comes on line and external power is on: . External power is automatically disconnected. Generator power has priority to supply the essential and emergency buses. Generator power is connected to only the ground handling buses. External power continues to supply all buses.

A 28V DC connection supplies: The DC Ground Handling Bus and the Engine Starting circuit. The DC Ground Service Bus and the AC Ground Handling Bus. The DC Ground Service Bus and the APU starter. The AC Ground Service Bus.

The Controls and Indicator for the DC external power are: On the overhead panel. On the pedestal. There are no controls or indicator for the DC external power. On the electrics panel.

The DC X–tie connects. Both battery buses. The Essential DC Bus to the Emergency DC bus. TRU 1 with the Essential TRU. DC Bus 1 with DC Bus 2.

The Essential DC Bus is normally supplied by: TRU 1. DC Bus 1. Essential TRU. AC Bus 2.

. Which AC Bus normally supplies TRU 2?. AC Bus 1. AC Bus 2. Essential AC Bus. Emergency AC Bus.

If both TRU 1 and 2 fail, what supplies DC Buses 1 and 2?. The Essential TRU. The batteries via the battery buses. The supply is lost. Emergency DC Bus.

When the Essential TRU fails: The essential DC bus is supplied by DC Bus 1. The essential DC bus is supplied by the batteries. DC cross–tie must be selected. The essential DC bus becomes unserviceable.

Battery condition is monitored by the. MFDS. Battery monitoring units. FWC’s. Battery chargers.

DC power can be generated by: Four Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU). Three Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU). Two Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU). Five Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU).

In case of single generator operation in flight: All AC buses remain energized, except for the galley buses. AC cross-tie has to be selected. The associated AC buses will be de-energized. The galley buses have to be manually de-energised.

During normal operation: a. GEN I supplies AC bus 1 and 2.GEN 2 supplies emergency AC bus 1 and 2. Both GEN 1 and 2 are connected to all buses via automatic AC cross-tie. GEN 1 supplies AC bus 1. GEN 2 supplies AC bus 2 and the essential AC bus. GEN 1 supplies AC bus 1 and the essential AC bus. GEN 2 supplies AC bus 2.

The AVAIL light in the EXT PWR p/b indicates. External DC power is supplied to the DC buses and external AC power is supplied to the AC buses. External AC power is supplied to all AC buses. External AC power is connected to the AC ground service bus and is within limits. External DC power is available after 2 minutes.

. Under normal power conditions, the emergency AC bus is supplied by the: ESS AC BUS. Emergency DC BUS. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2.

The essential AC bus is normally powered by: EMER AC BUS. EMER inverter. ESS AC BUS. Generator 1.

The Dual DC Bus provides an uninterrupted power source for. The lift dumpers only. The anti-skid only. The speed brake only. The Lift dumpers, anti-skid and speed brake.

Electrical power controls and indicators are located at. A control panel on the overhead panel with indication on the MFDS. The electric panel on the overhead panel. A separate AC and DC control panel on the overhead panel. The electric panel on the overhead panel with indication on the MFDS.

The DC Ground Handling bus supplies power to the. Hydraulic panel, refuelling panel and TOW switch. Maintenance panel and internal lighting. Refuelling panel, maintenance panel and vacuum socket. Hydraulic panel, refuelling panel, vacuum socket and TOW switch.

If the service door is opened from outside: The slide is automatically disarmed. The slide is automatically disconnected from the slide bar. The door selector will return automatically to the AUTOMATIC position. The service door cannot be opened with the slide armed.

At approximately what cabin altitude are the passenger masks automatically presented?. Approx. 10.000 ft. Approx. 12.000 ft. Approx. 14.000 ft. Approx. 20.000 ft.

If NORMAL (N) is selected on crew oxygen mask, how is oxygen supplied?. Diluted oxygen below a cabin altitude of 30.000 ft and 100% oxygen above. 100% oxygen on demand at all flight levels. Pure oxygen, under emergency supply conditions at all levels. 75% oxygen and 25% external RAM AIR.

The minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch with observer seat occupied is. 1650 PSI. 1560 PSI. 1060 PSI. 1200 PSI.

Inflation of the Emergency Slide takes approximately. 25 seconds. 15 seconds. 10 seconds. 5 seconds.

Emergency lighting consists of. Exit, standby and emergency lights. Exit and emergency lights. Floor lighting, exit, standby and emergency lights. Floor lighting, exit and emergency lights.

The Flight Deck door can be opened in case of an emergency: From the cockpit by kicking the lower part of the door. From the cockpit by removing the unlock pins from the center panel and pushing it open. By the cabin crew using the key stored in the galley dry stores. From the cockpit by removing the upper part of the door.

At 30.000 ft cabin altitude the flow in Normal. 50% ambient air & 50% oxygen,. 75% ambient air & 25% oxygen. 75% oxygen & 25% ambient air. 100% oxygen.

If smoke of fumes enter the oxygen mask you should: Select the control lever to N (normal). Select the emergency flow selector to EMERGENCY. Select the control lever to reset. Remove the mask and re-apply.

The left hand seat rows contain: One oxygen generator and two masks. Three oxygen generators and three masks. One oxygen generator and three masks. Three oxygen generators and four masks.

The fire detection system on an engine consists of. A single loop system and two fire detection units. A dual loop system and two fire detection units. A dual loop system and a single fire detection unit. A single loop system and a single fire detection unit.

A fire bottle discharge is indicated by the corresponding. Fire handle light extinguishing. Amber DISCH light illuminating. AGENT LO light illuminating. MDFU blue memo message.

If LOOP B FAULT light is on. LOOP A must be switched off for fire detection. LOOP B must be switched off for fire detection. Does not affect LOOP fire detection. LOOP B must be switched on for fire detection.

When an APU fire is detected, the APU will shutdown automatically and. The fire bottle must be manually discharged via the DISCH switch. After a few seconds the fire bottle will discharge automatically. Both fire bottles will be discharged automatically. None of the above answers are correct.

Toilet(s) are provided with automatic fire extinguishers, these discharge into th. Full toilet compartment. Waste container area only. Lower floor area of compartment. Toilet bowl area only.

The APU fire detection system: Has two sensor probes. Is a single loop system. Is a dual loop system. Is a dual loop system.

The engine fire extinguishing system contains. One separate extinguisher bottle for each engine. One extinguisher bottle which can be used for either engine. One extinguisher bottle for each engine and one common back-up bottle. Two extinguisher bottles which can be used for either engine.

If there is no engine fire warning, operation of the fire handles is. Prevented and cannot be overridden. Not prevented. Automatic. Prevented but can be overridden.

If the APU sensing loop is broken. The APU cannot detect a fire. The fire detection system is still active. The related loop and fire detection system are both inoperative and can only be restored on the ground. The loop has to be switched off before the APU will detect a fire.

The APU FIRE TEST switch is located. On the TEST panel. On the APU fire panel. On the pedestal. On the APU maintenance panel.

When the TAKE OFF CONF button is pressed before take off the normal indication is: Nothing. A SAP alert if parking brake on. A memo on the MFDU, TO CONFIG NORM. A SAP alert when all is normal.

When the flight control lock is on: The elevators, rudders and ailerons are locked. The ailerons and the elevators are locked. Stabilizer, elevator and ailerons are locked. Only the ailerons and rudder are locked.

In flight the speed brake will automatically retract when: The landing gear is lowered on approach. Thrust lever advanced above MIN TO position with landing gear down. A ’LESS DRAG’ message is displayed on PFD. TOGA triggers are pulled.

If a loss of hydraulic power to the stabilizer occurs. Stabilizer trim may be used normally. Alternate stabilizer control must be used. Stabilizer control is only possible via the stabilizer wheel. The stabilizer trim is unaffected.

When using the Alternate flap switch. Hydraulic power to the flaps is de–activated and cannot be reset during flight. Hydraulic power to the flaps is de–activated but can be reset during flight. Asymmetric protection is still provided. Hydraulic power from accumulator is used.

During alternate operation of the flaps. Asymmetry protection is NOT provided. Asymmetry protection is provided. The hydraulic power is still connected to the flaps. The disagreement alert will still be alerted.

In case of a FAS (Flight Augmentation System) failure how is the stabilizer trimmed. By using the trim switch on the control yoke. By rotating the trim wheel manually. By using the alternate stab trim switch. It cannot be trimmed following this failure.

The rudder is normally operated by: Hydraulic system 2. Hydraulic system 1. Hydraulic system 1 & 2. .Hydraulic system 1 with an electrical backup for the trim.

After operation of the ALT FLAP switch. Hydraulic system operation is reset automatically on the ground when the flap lever is moved. Hydraulic system cannot be reset. Hydraulic system 2 can be used as a backup. Electrical operation is inhibited.

Extension of the lift dumper panels takes place when. One reverse thrust lever is raised. Both reverse thrust levers are raised. One reverse thrust lever is raised and the wheel speed is above 50 kts. Either reverse thrust lever is raised and airspeed below 50 kts.

. With hydraulic system 1 depressurized, the lift dumpers can. Be operated with pressure from hydraulic system 2. No longer operate. Be extended and retracted once with accumulator pressure. Retracted only with hydraulic system 2 pressure.

The stick shaker is armed. During the take off roll. Upon TOGA trigger selection. 10 seconds after lift off. Until 10 seconds after lift off.

After use of the stick pusher disconnect handle the system. Resets automatically. Can be reset manually in the air. Can be reset manually on the ground. Resets after touchdown wheel spin up.

. With Lift dumpers ’armed’, they will automatically extend. At wheel spin–up with thrust levers in idle. Upon selection idle reverse thrust. Upon nose wheel touchdown. Upon TOGA trigger activation.

When will the stick pusher become operative. When both channels of the stall computer detect a stall condition. When either channel of the stall computer detects an approaching stall condition. When either alpha vane exceeds approximately 10 degrees. When both alpha vanes exceed approximately 14 degrees.

Above 20.250ft stick shaker activation. Is controlled by the stall enhancement units when the airspeed drops below Vma. Is controlled by the stall protection computers only. Is controlled by the stall enhancement units when the airspeed drops to Vss. Is controlled by the combined stall protection/enhancement unit.

Stabilizer trim can be operated hydraulically by. A switch on the pedestal. Trim switches on the control wheels and the trim wheel on the pedestal. Two trim wheels on either side of the pedestal. Alternate stab trim switch.

The stabilizer position indicator is located on: The left-hand side of the pedestal. The right-hand side of the pedestal. The main instrument panel. The Primary Flight Display (PFD).

The hydraulic pressure for the rudder is normally limited by. Air data computer airspeed information. Landing gear position. Barometric altitude. Aircraft attitude.

In case of a rudder limiter failure, the system will default to. The LO mode at all times. The LO mode when the landing gear is up and the HI mode when the landing gear is down. The HI mode when the landing gear is up and the LO mode when the landing gear is down. The HI mode at all times.

The elevator is powered by. Two actuators powered from system 1. Two actuators powered from system 2. One actuator powered by system 1. Two actuators, LH powered by system 1 and the RH powered by system 2.

The ailerons are powered by. System 1. System 2. LH aileron by system 1 and RH aileron by system 2. LH aileron by system 2 and RH aileron by system 1.

Hydraulic power for speed brake operation is obtained from. Hydraulic system 1. Hydraulic system 2. Hydraulic system 1 and an accumulator for back-up. Hydraulic system 2 and an accumulator for back-up.

The speed brake will automatically retract: During landing. Upon TOGA trigger selection or when the thrust levers are advanced beyond MIN TO with the gear up. Upon TOGA trigger selection or when the thrust levers are advanced beyond. IN TO with the gear down. Upon go-around only.

In the event of a hydraulic failure the speed brake will. Remain extended and cannot be selected in. Will retract under aerodynamic load. Is not affected. Remain in the selected position.

A take off configuration warning will be presented for. Flaps in the alternate mode. Parking brake set. One elevator hydraulic system depressurized. Answers a b & c are correct.

A yellow off flag in the STABILIZER POSITION INDICATOR indicates. Loss of AC power to the indicator. Setting not in the TO range. Loss of signal. Answers a & c are correct.

The stall prevention system consists of. A stall protection computer, and a stall enhancement unit. A combined stall protection computer and stall enhancement unit. Two stall computers and two stall enhancement units. Two stall computers and one stall enhancement unit.

The stick pusher is: Operated hydraulically. Operated pneumatically. Operated pneumatically with a hydraulic backup. Operated pneumatically with an electrical backup.