5 Instru

4024. When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?. A— Flight through an MOA. B— Flight into an ADIZ. C— Flight into Class A airspace.

4025. The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating. A— under IFR in positive control airspace. B— under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, and in a Class A airspace. C— in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.

4028. A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least. A— an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class. B— a First-Class Medical Certificate. C— an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.

4031. Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?. A— When operating in Class E airspace. B— For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan. C— For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.

4029. You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single-engine airplane within a 25-mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?. A— A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a singleengine land rating. B— A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a singleengine and instrument (airplane) rating. C— A Private Pilot Certificate with a single-engine land and instrument airplane rating.

4002. What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?. A— The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM). B— The carrying of passengers for hire on crosscountry flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights. C— The carrying of passengers for hire on crosscountry flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

4034. Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?. A— That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night. B— The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM. C— The carrying of passengers for hire on crosscountry flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

4035. To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least. A— a Category II pilot authorization. B— a First-Class Medical certificate. C— a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

4030-2. Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, Rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?. A— No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate, limited to VFR. B— No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating. C— Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.

4012. To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need. A— six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft. B— six hours in the same category aircraft. C— six hours in the same category aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions.

4013. After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?. A— 6 months. B— 90 days. C— 12 months.

4014. An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot. A— completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner. B— passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector. C— passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.

4015. A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?. A— December 31, this year. B— June 30, next year. C— July 31, this year.

4015-1. An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight under IFR on July 10, this year. Before conducting the. flight, the pilot must have A— performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than January 10, this year. B— performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than February 10, this year. C— passed an instrument proficiency check between August 1 last year and July 1 this year.

4017. What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?. A— The approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device. B— At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown. C— At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.

4020. How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? Within the previous 6 calendar months, logged. A— six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved. B— six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems. C— 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft.

4021. How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made?. A— 90 days. B— 6 calendar months. C— 12 calendar months.

4027. To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches,. A— holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems. B— and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft. C— three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.

4001. No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least. A— three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours. B— six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions. C— six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.

4001-1. Enroute weather conditions are IMC. However, during the descent to your destination for an ILS approach, you encounter VMC weather conditions prior to reaching the initial approach fix. You know that to log the ILS approach toward instrument currency requirements,. A— the flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing. B— the ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device. C— the ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

4023. What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?. A— A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved simulator (airplane) or ground trainer, within the preceding 6 calendar months. B— A minimum of six instrument approaches, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months. C— A minimum of six instrument approaches in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the preceding 6 calendar months.

4026. What additional instrument experience is required for you to meet the recent flight experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR? Your present instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is: 1. 3 hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator. 2. two instrument approaches in an airplane. A— Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter, and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter. B— Three instrument approaches in an airplane. C— Four instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved airplane flight simulator or training device.

4037. In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above. A— 12,500 feet MSL. B— 10,000 feet MSL. C— Flight level (FL) 180.

4038. A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace. A— at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL. B— at and above 2,500 feet above the surface. C— below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

4051. An aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?. A— Radar altimeter. B— Dual VOR system. C— Gyroscopic direction indicator.

4055. What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?. A— VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME. B— VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting. C— Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

4050. Where is DME required under IFR?. A— At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. B— In positive control airspace. C— Above 18,000 feet MSL.

4448. What action should you take if your DME fails at FL240?. A— Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made. B— Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed. C— Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

4459. What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?. A— Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet. B— Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction. C— After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

4007. If the aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,. A— the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace. B— ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination. C— aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination.

4438. When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?. A— A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight. B— The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules. C— The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).

4043. Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least. A— distance measuring equipment. B— dual VOR receivers. C— a slip skid indicator.

4057. To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is. A— a clock with sweep-second pointer or digital presentation. B— a radar altimeter. C— a transponder with altitude reporting capability.

4653. (Refer to Figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?. A— One VOR receiver. B— One VOR receiver and DME. C— Two VOR receivers and DME.

4375. The aircraft’s transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace. A— The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace. B— No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace. C— Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.

4695. (Refer to Figure 131.) Other than VOR/DME RNAV, what additional navigation equipment is required to conduct the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS?. A— None. B— VNAV. C— Transponder with altitude encoding and Marker Beacon.

4426. In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?. A— DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability. B— Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder. C— An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

4439. Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the. A— FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation. B— nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation. C— controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.

4440. Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?. A— A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment. B— A VOR receiver with DME. C— A 4096 code transponder.

4004. The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under. A— IFR. B— VFR. C— DVFR.

4284. How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?. A— Flight manual supplement. B— GPS operator’s manual. C— Aircraft owner’s handbook.

4047. Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by. A— January 5, next year. B— January 5, 2 years hence. C— January 31, 2 years hence.

4048. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. A— VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. B— ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. C— VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months.

4049. An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within. A— 12 calendar months. B— 18 calendar months. C— 24 calendar months.

4039. Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?. A— Owner. B— Operator. C— Pilot-in-command.

4036. When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when used to operate under IFR?. A— Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time. B— Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time. C— Within the preceding 30 days.

4042. If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?. A— 2 hours 20 minutes. B— 1 hour 20 minutes. C— 1 hour 50 minutes.

4045. What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?. A— 10,500 feet. B— 12,000 feet. C— 12,500 feet.

4052. What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?. A— 12,500 feet. B— 14,000 feet. C— 15,000 feet.

4053. What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?. A— All occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude. B— Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet. C— Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.

4503. (Refer to Figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?. A— The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes. B— The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen. C— The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.

4513. (Refer to Figure 91.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA?. A— The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes. B— The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen. C— The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen.

4809. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?. A— Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft. B— Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected. C— The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

4816. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?. A— Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths. B— Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal. C— Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

4008. To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions: What other qualifying information must be entered?. A— Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot. B— Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight. C— Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.

4010. Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?. A— All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references. B— Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments. C— Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

4011. What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?. A— Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft. B— Private pilot with instrument rating. C— Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.

4009. What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?. A— All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions. B— All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions. C— Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.

4003. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including: A— all instrument approaches at the destination airport. B— an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C— the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data.

4033. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must. A— list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport. B— list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C— be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.

airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?. A— 700 feet AGL. B— 1,200 feet AGL. C— 1,500 feet AGL.

4528. (Refer to Figure 93.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?. A— 500 feet AGL. B— 700 feet AGL. C— 1,200 feet AGL.

4530. (Refer to Figure 93.) What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.). A— 18,000 feet MSL. B— 14,500 feet MSL. C— 14,000 feet MSL.

4531. (Refer to Figure 93.) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace? . A— 4,000 feet MSL. B— 10,000 feet MSL. C— 14,500 feet MSL.

4532. (Refer to Figure 93.) What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?. A— 8 NM. B— 5 NM. C— 4 NM.

4533. (Refer to Figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace?. A— 10,000 feet MSL. B— 14,500 feet MSL. C— 18,000 feet MSL.

4434. MOAs are established to. A— prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities. B— separate certain military activities from IFR traffic. C— restrict civil aircraft during periods of high-density training activities.

4473. Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?. A— The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace. B— That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area. C— The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.

4529. (Refer to Figure 93.) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?. A— 14,500 feet MSL. B— 18,000 feet MSL. C— 60,000 feet MSL.

4474. The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from. A— 18,000 feet to and including FL450. B— 18,000 feet to and including FL600. C— 12,500 feet to and including FL600.

4475. Class G airspace is that airspace where. A— ATC does not control air traffic. B— ATC controls only IFR flights. C— the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.

4476. What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?. A— Surface to 700 feet AGL. B— 1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying. controlled airspace. C— 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

4485. Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is. A— 18,000 feet MSL. B— 24,000 feet MSL. C— 10,000 feet MSL.

4508. (Refer to Figure 89.) What type airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1,200 feet AGL?. A— Class D. B— Class E. C— Class G.

4527. (Refer to Figure 93.) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?. A— 1,000 feet AGL. B— 2,500 feet AGL. C— 4,000 feet AGL.

4539. What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?. A— Two-way communications and Mode C transponder. B— Two-way communications. C— Transponder and DME.

4518. What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-On-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.). A— 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. B— 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. C— 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

4519. What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-On-Top clearance during daylight hours?. A— 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. B— 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. C— 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

4520. (Refer to Figure 92.) What is the minimum inflight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-On-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?. A— 2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. B— 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. C— 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

4521. (Refer to Figure 92.) A flight is to be conducted in VFR-On-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1?. A— 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet. B— 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. C— 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 1,000 feet.

4522. (Refer to Figure 92.) What is the minimum inflight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2?. A— 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet. B— 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. C— 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet. In Class G airspace, more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or.

4523. (Refer to Figure 92.) What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4?. A— 1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. B— 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet. C— 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1 mile; (H) 1,000 feet.

4524. (Refer to Figure 92.) What is the minimum inflight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in area 6?. A— 3 miles; (I) 1,000 feet; (K) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet. B— 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds. C— 1 mile; (I) 500 feet; (K) 1,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.

4525. (Refer to Figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5?. A— 1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet. B— 3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) 500 feet. C— 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.

4088. Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?. A— FAR Part 61. B— FAR Part 91. C— NTSB Part 830.

4079. Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?. A— Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM’s). B— Airport Facility Directory, FDC NOTAM’s, and Local (L) NOTAM’s. C— Airport Facility Directory and Distant (D) NOTAM’s.

4080. What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?. A— To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts. B— To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time. C— To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

4080-1. What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?. A— Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs. B— All Current NOTAMs. C— Current FDC NOTAMs.

4406. From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM’s?. A— Notices to Airmen Publications. B— FAA AFSS/FSS. C— Airport/Facility Directory.

4810. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions. A— are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience. B— occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight. C— must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.

4811. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?. A— Rely on kinesthetic sense. B— Use a very rapid cross-check. C— Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

4814. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if. A— kinesthetic senses are ignored. B— eyes are moved often in the process of crosschecking the flight instruments. C— body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.

4815. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?. A— Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible. B— Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C— Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

4813. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?. A— Use a very rapid cross-check. B— Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly. C— Avoid banking in excess of 30°.

4802. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of. A— rising or falling. B— turning. C— motion reversal.

4805. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause. A— Coriolis illusion. B— false horizon. C— elevator illusion.

4807. An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of. A— tumbling backwards. B— a noseup attitude. C— a descent with the wings level.

4808. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of. A— spinning in the opposite direction. B— being in a noseup attitude. C— diving into the ground.

4808-1. Tunnel vision and cyanosis are symptoms of. A— hypoxia. B— hyperventilation. C— carbon monoxide poisoning.

4806. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as. A— elevator illusions. B— autokinesis. C— false horizons.

4803. Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrowerthan- usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be. A— higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach. B— lower than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach. C— higher than actual, leading to a higher-thannormal approach.

4804. What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower-than-usual runway?. A— An upsloping runway. B— A wider-than-usual runway. C— A downsloping runway.

4819. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?. A— Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see. B— The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. C— Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.

4812. Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?. A— Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots. B— The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation. C— Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

4817. Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?. A— Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level. B— The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation. C— Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

4818. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?. A— Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. B— Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. C— Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

4634. What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?. A— If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline. B— Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing. C— Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.

4428. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off-airways flight over mountainous terrain?. A— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course. B— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course. C— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.

4425. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off-airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?. A— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course. B— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course. C— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.

4441. Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?. A— Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions. B— Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions. C— Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.

4541. In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of. A— 500 feet above the highest obstacle. B— 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle. C— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.

4543. If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to “maintain VFR conditions on top,” the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the. A— true course. B— magnetic heading. C— magnetic course.

4006. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is. A— 3,000 feet over all terrain. B— 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere. C— 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

4765. In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of. A— 3 SM from the course flown. B— 4 SM from the course flown. C— 4 NM from the course flown.

4456. Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?. A— Entering instrument meteorological conditions. B— When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach. C— Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

4071. For which speed variation should you notify ATC?. A— When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots. B— When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. C— Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.

4379. What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?. A— Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B— Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport. C— Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

4380. When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between. A— 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute. B— 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. C— 1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

4078. For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?. A— Fixes selected to define the route. B— There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC. C— At the changeover points.

4460. What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/ Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/ Localizer capability. A— Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. B— Continue the flight as cleared; no report is required. C— Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.

4381. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should. A— not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. B— wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency. C— contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.

4605. During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?. A— Set transponder to code 1200. B— Resume normal position reporting. C— Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.

4605-1. A pilot or crew may not perform any activities except those required to safely operate the aircraft during. A— the preflight walk-around of the aircraft. B— fueling of the aircraft. C— critical phases of flight.

4605-2. The “sterile cockpit” rule is good practice not just for airline pilots but for all pilots because. A— keeping the cockpit neat and clean keeps you better organized. B— it greatly reduces distractions during critical phases of flight. C— it keeps radio transmissions to a minimum. Commonly known as the “sterile cockpit rule,” regulations.

4462. During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?. A— Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach. B— Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach. C— Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.

4463. Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.). A— Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time. B— Depart the holding fix at the EFC time. C— Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

4464. You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?. A— Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher. B— Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions. C— Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.

4465. Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?. A— Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. B— Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival. C— Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

4466. What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?. A— Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA. B— Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route. C— Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.

4505. In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue. A— by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received. B— the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical. C— the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.

4500. (Refer to Figure 87.) While holding at the 10 DME fix east of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake Charles Muni airport, ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000 you experience two-way radio communications failure. Which procedure should be followed?. A— Squawk 7600 and listen on the LOM frequency for instructions from ATC. If no instructions are received, start your approach at 1015. B— Squawk 7700 for 1 minute, then 7600. After 1 minute, descend to the minimum final approach fix altitude. Start your approach at 1015. C— Squawk 7600; plan to begin your approach at 1015.

4374. While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under. A— VFR and land as soon as practicable. B— VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination. C— IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.