6 Instru

4062. When is an IFR flight plan required?. A— When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace. B— In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace. C— In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

4063. Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?. A— Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace. B— Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists. C— Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.

4064. To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to. A— entering controlled airspace. B— entering weather conditions below VFR minimums. C— takeoff.

4065. To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. A— controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments. B— entering weather conditions in any airspace. C— entering controlled airspace.

4066. When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?. A— When operating in the Class E airspace. B— When operating in a Class A airspace. C— When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

4067. Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?. A— Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile. B— Class E airspace with IMC and class A airspace. C— Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.

4068. When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before. A— takeoff. B— entering IFR conditions. C— entering Class E airspace.

4427. No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan. A— and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff. B— prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway. C— and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

4427-1. When may VFR waypoints be used on an IFR flight plan?. A— Never. B— Always. C— When filing a composite flight plan.

4005-1. During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. A— then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. B— then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C— and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

4032. What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. A— and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. B— fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C— fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

4073. (Refer to Figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?. A— Total fuel required for the flight. B— Total useable fuel on board. C— The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45-minute reserve.

4059. When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?. A— When requested or advised by ATC. B— Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR. C— Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.

4060. When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?. A— All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix. B— Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight. C— Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment.

4061. What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?. A— Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance. B— Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance. C— Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.

4072. (Refer to Figure 1.) Which item(s) should be checked in block 1 for a composite flight plan?. A— VFR with an explanation in block 11. B— IFR with an explanation in block 11. C— VFR and IFR.

the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?. A— DME, ADF, and airborne radar. B— DME, transponder, and ADF. C— DME, transponder, and RNAV.

4266. (Refer to Figure 27.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— T. B— U. C— A.

4277. (Refer to Figure 32.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— A. B— C. C— I.

4288. (Refer to Figure 38.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— C. B— I. C— A.

4300. (Refer to Figure 44.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— A. B— C. C— I.

4312. (Refer to Figure 50.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— I. B— T. C— U.

4344. (Refer to Figure 69.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— A. B— B. C— U.

4358. (Refer to Figure 74.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?. A— T. B— U. C— A.

4074. (Refer to Figure 1.) What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude?. A— Altitude for first leg. B— Average cruise altitude. C— Highest altitude.

4081. What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?. A— 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility. B— 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. C— 1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.

4081-1. An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. A— the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting. B— the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area. C— the only standard approach procedure is GPS.

4760-1. What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?. A— 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. B— 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. C— 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

4760-2. When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?. A— Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach. B— 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. C— Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.

4086. What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?. A— The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. B— The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. C— The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.

4719. When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?. A— 600-1 if the airport has an ILS. B— Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles. C— The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

4630. If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the. A— minimums specified for the approach procedure selected. B— alternate minimums shown on the approach chart. C— minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”.

4637. When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?. A— Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2). B— The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport. C— The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

4769. An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will. A— allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions. B— be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile. C— allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.

4070. Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by. A— the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix. B— an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors. C— direct route only.

4275. (Refer to Figure 29.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/ Mahlon Sweet Field?. A— 0800 - 2300. B— 0600 - 0000. C— 0700 - 0100.

4305. (Refer to Figure 46.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?. A— 0500 to 2100 local. B— 0600 to 2200 local. C— 0700 to 2300 local.

4405. The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from the. A— ATIS broadcast. B— AFSS. C— Notices to Airmen publications.

4761. What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?. A— The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach. B— The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach. C— The point of first intended landing.

4085-1. For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?. A— Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. B— Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. C— Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

4087-1. For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?. A— 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. B— 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA. C— 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

4082-2. For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=. A— No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. B— No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. C— Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.

4083-1. For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?. A— From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles. B— From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles. C— From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

4083-3. For aircraft other than helicopters, under what conditions are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport?. A— When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is 2 miles more than the minimum landing visibility within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport. B— When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport. C— When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.

4407. When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. A— When priority has been given. B— Any time an emergency occurs. C— When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

4461. While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?. A— Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. B— Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. C— Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

approach and Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?. A— Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance. B— Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/ heading will not permit VFR. C— Abandon the approach and advise ATC of your intentions.

4395. What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?. A— Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation. B— Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. C— Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

4396. Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.). A— Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. B— Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name- Number-Transition, if appropriate. C— Clearance limit, and DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

4398. On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED—MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND—SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE— DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the. A— departure control frequency. B— destination airport and route. C— requested enroute altitude.

4414. Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?. A— DP or transition name and altitude to maintain. B— Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude. C— Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

4486. An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name. A— and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. B— of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. C— of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

4394. When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that. A— ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time. B— the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. C— ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

4392. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?. A— The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B— Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion. C— The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/ MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

4458. A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to. A— vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. B— climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance. C— use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

4393. What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?. A— Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level. B— Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet. C— Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

4555. To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?. A— As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached. B— 1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude. C— As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

4442. Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?. A— DPs, STARs, and contact approaches. B— Contact and visual approaches. C— DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.

4443. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?. A— The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B— It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. C— The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

4270. (Refer to Figure 30.) Using an average ground speed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 4,100 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure?. A— 400 feet per minute. B— 500 feet per minute. C— 800 feet per minute.

4272. (Refer to Figures 30 and 30A.) What is your position relative to GNATS intersection and the instrument departure routing?. A— On departure course and past GNATS. B— Right of departure course and past GNATS. C— Left of departure course and have not passed GNATS.

4303. (Refer to Figure 46.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure?. A— 350 feet per minute. B— 583 feet per minute. C— 816 feet per minute.

4304. (Refer to Figures 46 and 48.) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206° radial of the instrument departure procedure?. A— On the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206. B— Outside the 9 DME arc and past R-206. C— Inside the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206.

4315. (Refer to Figures 52 and 54.) What is the aircraft’s position relative to the HABUT intersection? (The VOR-2 is tuned to 116.5.). A— South of the localizer and past the GVO R-163. B— North of the localizer and approaching the GVO R-163. C— South of the localizer and approaching the GVO R-163.

4316. (Refer to Figure 52.) Using an average ground speed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the instrument departure procedure?. A— 425 feet per minute. B— 580 feet per minute. C— 642 feet per minute.

4361. (Refer to Figure 77.) At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate?. A— When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact. B— At STAKK intersection. C— Over the BOZEMAN VOR.

4363. (Refer to Figure 77.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?. A— 6,500 feet MSL. B— 1,400 feet MSL. C— 10,200 feet MSL.

speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure?. A— 350 feet per minute. B— 475 feet per minute. C— 700 feet per minute.

4417. What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?. A— Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure. B— Advise departure control upon initial contact. C— Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

4418. A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?. A— 210. B— 450. C— 490.

4419. Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?. A— Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot. B— The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC. C— If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description.

4488. (Refer to Figures 85 and 86.) Which combination of indications confirm that you are approaching WAGGE intersection slightly to the right of the LOC centerline on departure?. A— 1 and 3. B— 1 and 4. C— 2 and 3.

4489. (Refer to Figure 85.) What route should you take if cleared for the Washoe Two Departure and your assigned route is V6?. A— Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where you will be vectored to V6. B— Climb on the LOC south course to cross WAGGE at 9,000, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC and cross at or above 10,000, and proceed on FMG R-241. C— Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC. If at 10,000 turn left and proceed on FMG R-241; if not at 10,000 enter depicted holding pattern and climb to 10,000 before proceeding on FMG R-241.

4490. (Refer to Figure 85.) What procedure should be followed if communications are lost before reaching 9,000 feet?. A— At 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route if at proper altitude; if not, climb in holding pattern until reaching the proper altitude. B— Continue climb to WAGGE INT, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at the proper altitude. C— Continue climb on LOC course to cross WAGGE INT at or above 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC to cross at 10,000 or above, and continue on assigned course.

4491. (Refer to Figure 85.) What is the minimum rate climb per NM to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE Departure?. A— 400 feet. B— 750 feet. C— 875 feet.

4492. (Refer to Figure 85.) Of the following, which is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per minute) to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE departure at a GS of 150 knots?. A— 750 feet per minute. B— 825 feet per minute. C— 1,000 feet per minute.

4638. Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?. A— The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory. B— To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. C— To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure.

4409. What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. A— Separation from all aircraft. B— Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot’s line of flight and altitude. C— Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

4390. When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?. A— Only when ATC requests Mode C. B— At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC. C— When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

4416. Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?. A— Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan. B— Airport advisories. C— All functions of approach control.

4421. During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?. A— 40° to the right of the aircraft’s nose. B— 20° to the right of the aircraft’s nose. C— Straight ahead.

4422. What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?. A— You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment. B— Radar service is terminated. C— You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

4423. What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?. A— Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. B— Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. C— You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

4424. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that. A— you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. B— radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports. C— you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

4736. When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?. A— Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower. B— Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot. C— When ATC advises, “Radar service terminated; resume own navigation.”.

4420. During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?. A— Before penetrating the clouds. B— When advised by the tower. C— Upon completing the first turn after takeoff.

4471. What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?. A— Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued. B— Use VFR operating procedures. C— To see and avoid other traffic.

4373. When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?. A— At all times when not in radar contact with ATC. B— When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR. C— Only when advised by ATC.

4538. When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?. A— When visibility is less than 1 mile. B— When parallel runways are in use. C— When departing from a runway intersection.

4633. Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?. A— Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid. B— When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic. C— When the pilot requests it.

4725. What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.). A— Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC. B— Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC. C— Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.

4534. (Refer to Figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having—. A— Yellow lettering with a black background. B— White lettering with a red background. C— Black lettering with a yellow background.

4535. (Refer to Figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?. A— Location sign. B— Mandatory instruction sign. C— Direction sign.

4536. (Refer to Figure 94.) What colors are runway holding position signs?. A— White with a red background. B— Red with a white background. C— Yellow with a black background.

4537. (Refer to Figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are—. A— white and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. B— yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. C— yellow and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

4537-1. Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?. A— Solid lines. B— Striped lines. C— Both solid and striped lines.

4774. (Refer to Figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?. A— 2.75°. B— 3.00°. C— 3.25°.

4775. Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?. A— If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white. B— If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white. C— If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

4776. The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will. A— both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath. B— constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath. C— constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

4777. Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of. A— a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path. B— three separate light units, each projecting a different color approach path. C— three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles.

4778. When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as. A— white and the far bar as red. B— red and the far bar as white. C— white and the far bar as white.

4779. If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should. A— start a climb to reach the proper glidepath. B— continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight. C— level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

4780. Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?. A— One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber. B— Two visual glidepaths for the runway. C— Three glidepaths, with the center path indicated by a white light.

4781. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?. A— Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR. B— Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. C— Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

4782. (Refer to Figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?. A— 2.3°. B— 2.75°. C— 3.0°.

4783. (Refer to Figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?. A— 4. B— 5. C— 6.

4784. (Refer to Figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?. A— 5. B— 6. C— 7.

4785. (Refer to Figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?. A— 4. B— 5. C— 6.

4786. (Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an “on glidepath” indication?. A— 8. B— 10. C— 11.

4787. (Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8°) indication?. A— 9. B— 10. C— 11.

4788. (Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?. A— 8. B— 9. C— 11.

4789. (Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is “slightly high” (3.2°) on the glidepath?. A— 8. B— 9. C— 11.

4790. (Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°?. A— 10. B— 11. C— 12.

4795. Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?. A— RAIL. B— HIRL. C— REIL.

4796. The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide. A— rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility. B— a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position. C— rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

4791. (Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?. A— 500 feet. B— 1,000 feet. C— 1,500 feet.

4792. (Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?. A— 250 feet. B— 500 feet. C— 750 feet.

4793. (Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?. A— 1,000 feet. B— 500 feet. C— 250 feet.

4794. Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?. A— Arrows leading to the threshold mark. B— Centerline dashes starting at the threshold. C— Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway.

4797. (Refer to Figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?. A— No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights. B— Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights. C— Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

4943. The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes. A— intersecting runways. B— an entrance to runway from a taxiway. C— an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.

4944. ‘Runway hold position’ markings on the taxiway. A— identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway. B— identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. C— allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.

4945. The ‘No Entry’ sign identifies. A— the exit boundary for the runway protected area. B— an area that does not continue beyond intersection. C— paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

4946. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates. A— direction to the take-off runway. B— designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. C— designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

4954. When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?. A— Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. B— Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. C— Indicates direction to take-off runway.

4954-1. A runway exit sign. A— points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway. B— designated an intersection of two or more runways. C— indicates the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway.

4951. (Refer to Runway Incursion Figure.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: “N123, Taxi to runway 16.” Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller’s instructions?. A— 5 (Five). B— 6 (Six). C— 9 (Nine).

4952. In the movement area of an airport, what does a “Destination” sign indicate?. A— Direction to the takeoff runway. B— Direction from taxiway to runway. C— Direction from ramp to taxiway.

4963. The ILS critical area markings denote. A— where you are clear of the runway. B— where you must be to start your ILS procedure. C— where you are clear of the ILS critical area.

4430. What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR-On-Top clearance?. A— Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition. B— Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions. C— Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.

4431. When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?. A— When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions. B— When flying in VFR conditions above clouds. C— When assigned a VFR-On-Top clearance.

4433. You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFROn- Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.). A— Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions. B— An odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. C— An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

4447. Where are VFR-On-Top operations prohibited?. A— In Class A airspace. B— During off-airways direct flights. C— When flying through Class B airspace.

4449. Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-On-Top clearance?. A— VFR only. B— VFR and IFR. C— VFR when “in the clear” and IFR when “in the clouds.”.

4450. When can a VFR-On-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?. A— Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable. B— Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow. C— When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.

4451. Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?. A— To VFR-On-Top. B— Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top. C— VFR Over-the-Top.

4452. When on a VFR-On-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on. A— true course. B— magnetic course. C— magnetic heading.

4453. In which airspace is VFR-On-Top operation prohibited?. A— Class B airspace. B— Class E airspace. C— Class A airspace.

4454. What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?. A— Even thousand-foot levels. B— Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA. C— Odd thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.

4510. (Refer to Figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes useable on V343 for a VFR-On-Top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection?. A— 14,500 and 16,500 feet. B— 15,000 and 17,000 feet. C— 15,500 and 17,500 feet.

4455. What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?. A— The same reports that are required for any IFR flight. B— All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes. C— Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.

4457. What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-On-Top clearance?. A— At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition. B— At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition. C— Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.

4643. When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?. A— The last IFR altitude assigned by ATC. B— An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown. C— A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.