Wich document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a
particular geographic area?
OPCION A: Operations Specifications OPCION B: Operating Certificate OPCION C: Dispatch Release.
Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxygen masks in a pressurized
cabin airplane?
OPCION A: Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen masks above FL 350
OPCION B: At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot leaves the pilot duty station,
the remaining pilot at the controls shall use an oxygen mask OPCION C: At altitudes above FL 250, one of the two pilots at the controls shall use an
oxygen mask continuosly.
.
What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second
in command? OPCION A: 15 seats OPCION B: 12 seats OPCION C: 10 seats.
What aircraft operating under FAR Part 135 are required to have a third
gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator installed? OPCION A: All airplanes that are turbojet powered OPCION B: All multiengine airplanes that require a two pilot flightcrew OPCION C: All turbine powered aircraft having a passenger seating capacity of 30 seats
or more.
In airplanes where a third gyroscopic bank-and pitch indicator is required,
that instrument must OPCION A: continue reliable operation for at least 30 minutes after the output of the
airplane's electrical generating system falls below an optimun level.
OPCION B: be operable by a selector switch which may be actuated from either pilot
station OPCION C: continue reliable operation for a minimum of 30 minutes after total failure of
the electrical generating system.
The two pilots stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved
quick- donning masks. What is the maximun altitude authorized if one pilot is
not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen? OPCION A: 41,000 feet MSL OPCION B: 35,000 feet MSL OPCION C: 25,000 feet MSL
.
If the weather forecast do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an
IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination
airport and OPCION A: make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45 minute reserve at normal
cruising speed OPCION B: fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed OPCION C: fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed.
A pilot's experience includes 8 hours in a particular make and basic model
multiengine, turboprop airplane while acting as pilot in command. Which
additional pilot in command experience meets the requirements for
designation as pilot in command of that airplane when operated by a
commuter air carrier in passenger carryng service?
OPCION A: Twelve takeoffs and landings OPCION B: Five takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours OPCION C: Ten takeoffs and landings, and 2 hours.
If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at
FL 410, the other pilot OPCION A: and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen OPCION B: shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen OPCION C: must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.
if a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? OPCION A: FL 200 OPCION B: FL 300 OPCION C: FL 250.
If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying
escape slide system, when must this system be armed? OPCION A: For taxi, takeoff, and landing OPCION B: Only for takeoff and landing
OPCION C: During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.
If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment,
the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. OPCION A: unlocked during takeoff and landing OPCION B: locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in
command OPCION C: latched open during takeoff and landing.
Regulations require that interior emergency lights must: OPCION A: operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load OPCION B: be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger
compartment OPCION C: be armed or turned on during taxiling and all flight operations.
Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one
is required on a passenger-carrying airplane? OPCION A: The most forward location in the passenger cabin OPCION B: in the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit OPCION C: The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by
the flightcrew is OPCION A: encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are
accomplished OPCION B: required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures OPCION C: required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has
been accomplished.
(8164)
Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between
John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England? OPCION A: A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other
flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane OPCION B: An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft OPCION C: A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survivaltype emergency locator
transmitter for each required liferaft.
(8166)
Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each OPCION A: aircraft occupant OPCION B: seat on the aircraft OPCION C: passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
(8167)
For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or
supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival
kits for OPCION A: all of the passengers, plus 10 percent OPCION B: all aircraft occupants OPCION C: all passenger seats.
(8168)
When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how
many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft? OPCION A: One for each passenger seat OPCION B: One for each passenger, plus 10 percent OPCION C: One for each occupant of the aircraft.
(8169)
Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored OPCION A: within easy reach of each passenger OPCION B: under each occupant seat OPCION C: within easy reach of each seated occupant.
(8170)
An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited
terrain must carry which emergency equipment?
OPCION A: Survival kit for each passenger OPCION B: Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices OPCION C: Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
(8171)
An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited
terrain must carry which emergency equipment? OPCION A: A signal mirror and colored smoke flares
OPCION B: Survival kit for each passenger OPCION C: An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
(8172)
An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited
terrain must carry which emergency equipment? OPCION A: Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices OPCION B: Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror OPCION C: Survival kit for each passenger.
what is the passenger oxygen supple requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxgygen for OPCION A: each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude OPCION B: 30 percent of the passengers OPCION C: 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
(8173)
How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized
turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on
flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet? OPCION A: A minimum of 2 hours supply OPCION B: Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure
altitude OPCION C: Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to
exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.
(8175)
Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin OPCION A: may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is
secured by a cargo net OPCION B: must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15,
using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo
that may be carried in the bin OPCION C: must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.
(8176)
Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers
required for flight under RAP Part 121? OPCION A: Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard OPCION B: Number of passenger cabin occupants OPCION C: Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers,
megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane? OPCION A: All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers
OPCION B: Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is
not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment OPCION C: Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to
indicate its method of operation.
(8178)
A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? OPCION A: A large airplane OPCION B: A turbojet airplane OPCION C: An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
(8179)
An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it OPCION A: has a seating capacity of 19 passengers OPCION B: has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers OPCION C: weighs more than 12,500 pounds.
What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons? OPCION A: Two OPCION B: Four OPCION C: Three.
(8181)
A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers
on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior
to flights conducted above OPCION A: FL 200 OPCION B: FL 240 OPCION C: FL 250.
(8183)
Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided
with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at
flight altitudes
OPCION A: of FL 260
OPCION B: of FL 250
OPCION C: above FL 250.
A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen
mask within OPCION A: 5 seconds OPCION B: 10 seconds OPCION C: 15 seconds.
At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during
the entire flight at those altitudes
OPCION A: 15,000 feet OPCION B: 16,000 feet OPCION C: 14,000 feet.
What is the flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at
the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away
from the duty station?
OPCION A: FL 240 OPCION B: FL 250 OPCION C: Above FL 250.
(8188)
If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the
flight engineer's duties? OPCION A: The second in command only OPCION B: Any flight crewmember, if qualified OPCION C: Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
(8189)
Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in
FAR Part 121 operations?
OPCION A: If the airplane is being flown on proving flight, with revenue cargo aboard OPCION B: If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines OPCION C: If required by the airplane's type certificate.
Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions
to be performed in the event of an emergency? OPCION A: Airplane Flight Manual
OPCION B: Certificate holder's manual
OPCION C: Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of
an emergency shall be assigned by the OPCION A: pilot in command OPCION B: air carrier's chief pilot OPCION C: certificate holder.
(8204)
The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia,
and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes
operated above
OPCION A: FL 180 OPCION B: FL 200 OPCION C: FL 250.
(8205)
A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training
within the preceding OPCION A: 6 calendar months OPCION B: 12 calendar months OPCION C: 24 calendar months.
A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles
and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an
established and approved training program within the preceding OPCION A: 24 calendar months OPCION B: 12 calendar months OPCION C: 6 calendar months.
(8207)
A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received
a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding OPCION A: 6 calendar months OPCION B: 12 calendar months OPCION C: 24 calendar months.
(8208)
Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight
crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? OPCION A: At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most
critical engine OPCION B: At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the
certificate holder and a landing from that approach OPCION C: At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? OPCION A: At least one landing must be made from a circling approach OPCION B: At least one full stop landing must be made OPCION C: At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums
authorized for the certificate holder.
If a flight crewmember completes a required anual flight check in December
1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter
check is considered to have been taken in OPCION A: November 1988 OPCION B: December 1988
OPCION C: January 1989.
The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and
served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g.,
turbojet powered) is OPCION A: upgrade training
OPCION B: transition training OPCION C: initial training
.
(8216)
A crewmember who has served as second incommand on a particular type
airplane (e.g., B-727-100) may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing
which training program? OPCION A: Upgrade training
OPCION B: Recurrent training OPCION C: Initial training.
The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been
qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same
group is
OPCION A: difference training
OPCION B: transition training OPCION C: upgrade training
.
What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic
air carrier?
OPCION A: The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of
airplanes to be flown OPCION B: The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special
areas and airports OPCION C: The line checks is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the
pilot may fly.
An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew
of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes
incapacitated OPCION A: at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight
engineer duties OPCION B: one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight
engineer OPCION C: one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform
the flight engineer duties.
When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary
for OPCION A: one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the
flight engineer duties in an emergency OPCION B: the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least
one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight
engineer duties OPCION C: at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight
engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency
equipment, after initial training? Once every OPCION A: 6 calendar months OPCION B: 12 calendar months OPCION C: 24 calendar months.
A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots
and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than OPCION A: 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours OPCION B: 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours
OPCION C: 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours
.
The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may
schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew without a rest period is OPCION A: 8 hours
OPCION B: 10 hours OPCION C: 12 hours.
(8222)
The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly,
as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is OPCION A: 100 hours OPCION B: 120 hours OPCION C: 300 hours.
(8223)
A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for
flight deck duty during any 24-consecutive-hour period for not more than OPCION A: 6 hours OPCION B: 8 hours OPCION C: 10 hours.
(8225)
Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? OPCION A: Keep safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft
lavatories OPCION B: Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated OPCION C: How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for
tampering with a smoke detector.
How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect
the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is OPCION A: considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two
pilots OPCION B: considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators OPCION C: not considered to be part of a rest period.
Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a
flight crewmember OPCION A: not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period OPCION B: not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30 day period OPCION C: be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.
A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an
intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? OPCION A: Not more than 1 hour OPCION B: Not more than 2 hours
OPCION C: More than 6 hours
.
If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the
certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the
Administrator within OPCION A: 7 days OPCION B: 5 days OPCION C: 48 hours.
(8234)
When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the
following applies? OPCION A: The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment OPCION B: The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew
compartment OPCION C: Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
(8235)
Each crewmember shall have readly available for individual use on each
flight a OPCION A: key to the flight deck door OPCION B: certificate holder's manual OPCION C: flashlight in good working order.
(8236)
If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report
it, as soon as practicable, to the OPCION A: appropriate ground radio station OPCION B: DGAC office OPCION C: operations manager (or director of operations).
(8237)
If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier
three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command OPCION A: must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe
landing can be made
OPCION B: may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft
dispatcher OPCION C: may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing
at the nearest suitable airport.
(8240)
When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an
emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within OPCION A: 10 days after the deviation
OPCION B: 10 days after returning home OPCION C: 72 hours after returning to home base
.
(8241)
What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut
down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? OPCION A: Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest
suitable airport in point of time
OPCION B: Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing
can be made OPCION C: Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.
The persons jointly responsable for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and
termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the OPCION A: pilot in command and chief pilot OPCION B: pilot in command and director of operations OPCION C: pilot in command and the flight follower.
(8244)
The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons
from admittance to the flight deck OPCION A: except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks OPCION B: in the interest of safety OPCION C: except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the
FAA or NTSB.
(8245)
If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier
flight during an emergency the aircraft dispatcher should OPCION A: take any action considered necessary under the circumstances OPCION B: comply wiht the company's lost aircraft plan OPCION C: phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with
the flight.
(8246)
Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during
an emergency? OPCION A: Pilot in command OPCION B: Dispatcher OPCION C: Person who declares the emergency.
A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest
time it may depart without being redispatched is OPCION A: 2005Z OPCION B: 1905Z
OPCION C: 0005Z
.
(8260)
A domestic air carrier airplane land at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The
latest it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft
dispatcher is OPCION A: 1945Z
OPCION B: 1915Z
OPCION C: 1845Z.
If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and
experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport
without a redispatch release? OPCION A: 1945Z
OPCION B: 2015Z OPCION C: 0045Z.
(8268)
The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is OPCION A: 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel
required to the alternate airport OPCION B: 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly
to and at the most distant alternate airport OPCION C: 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the
alternate airport
.
A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport
which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? OPCION A: 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption OPCION B: 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption
OPCION C: 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag
air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregulrities of
facilities and services? OPCION A: The aircraft dispatcher OPCION B: Air route traffic control center OPCION C: Director of operations.
Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions,
weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air
carrier flight? OPCION A: Aircraft dispatcher OPCION B: Director of operations or flight follower OPCION C: Pilot in command.
During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining
information on meteorological conditions?
OPCION A: Aircraft dispatcher OPCION B: Pilot in command OPCION C: Director of operations or flight follower.
(8283)
Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest NOTAMs? OPCION A: Any company dispatch facility OPCION B: Notices To Airmen publication OPCION C: Airport/Facility Directory.
Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier
pilot in command on all available weather information? OPCION A: Company meteorologist OPCION B: Aircraft dispatcher OPCION C: Director of operations.
Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be
approved after the pilot in command has OPCION A: logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model
airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR
conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding
month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121 OPCION B: made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-
foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months OPCION C: logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part
121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR
conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding
month.
(8286)
Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier
flight?
OPCION A: Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release OPCION B: Dispatch release and weight and balance release
OPCION C: Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
(8287)
How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a
record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification,
flight release, and flight plan? OPCION A: 1 monts
OPCION B: 3 months
OPCION C: 12 months.
(8288)
A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch
releases, and load manifests for at least OPCION A: 3 months OPCION B: 6 months OPCION C: 30 months.
(8289)
When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a
particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the
destination airport? OPCION A: Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and
1 OPCION B: Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile OPCION C: Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.
(8290)
Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release
for a flag air carrier flight? OPCION A: Type of operation (e.g. IFR, VFR), trip number OPCION B: Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane OPCION C: Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.
The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on,
the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant,
and designated pilot in command are OPCION A: supplemental and commercial OPCION B: supplemental and domestic
OPCION C: flag and commercial.
What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release
for a domestic air carrier flight OPCION A: Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip
number OPCION B: Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply OPCION C: Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? OPCION A: Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of
the type of operation OPCION B: Minimum fuel supply and trip number OPCION C: Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.
(8295)
The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers
and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag
and domestic air carriers is the OPCION A: weather reports and forecasts OPCION B: names of all crewmembers
OPCION C: minimum fuel supply
.
(8296)
Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier
flight? OPCION A: Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release OPCION B: Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release OPCION C: Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172
If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing
acetone? OPCION A: No label is required.
OPCION B: POISON OPCION C: FLAMMABLE LIQUID.
(8300)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172)
What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetyl bromide in one package
that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft? (Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) OPCION A: 1 quart. OPCION B: 1 gallon OPCION C: No limit is specified.
.
(8301)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172)
What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetylene in one package that
may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft? OPCION A: Any amount is forbbiden. OPCION B: 300 pounds.
OPCION C: No limit is specified.
(8302)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172)
If not expected, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing
allethrin? OPCION A: ORM-A. OPCION B: None. OPCION C: CORROSIVE.
(8303)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172)
What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of aluminum hydride in one
package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?
OPCION A: No limit is specified. OPCION B: 25 pounds OPCION C: Any amount is forbbiden.
.
(8304)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on
a shipping paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft
operator retain one copy of this document?
OPCION A: 30 days. OPCION B: 60 days.
OPCION C: 90 days.
(8305)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
Certain classes of hazardous material may be shipped by air but are not
permitted aboard passenger-carrying aircraft. How must such material be
labeled?
OPCION A: DANGEROUS OPCION B: HAZARDOUS/CLASS X. OPCION C: CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY.
.
(8306)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
The aircraft operator discovers that the label on a container of hazardous
materials is missing. How should the appropriate replacement label be
determined? OPCION A: Shipping papers. OPCION B: Hazardous material index OPCION C: Hazardous Materials Tables of CFR 49.
.
(8307)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
An operator makes a telephone report of an incident involving fire during the
loading of hazardous materials. Within what period of time must a written
report be submitted? OPCION A: 48 hours.
OPCION B: 10 days.
OPCION C: 15 days.
(8308)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
Which procedure must be followed if an operator, when loading magnetized
material, cannot avoid placing it in a position where it affects the accuracy of
the magnetic compass?
OPCION A: Placard the compass "unreliable" OPCION B: Rely solely on electronic navigation OPCION C: Make a special compass swing and calibration.
(8309)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
Which class of hazardous material must be loaded aboard an aircraft in a
position that allows no contact with containers of corrosive materials? OPCION A: Organic chemicals. OPCION B: Oxidizing materials. OPCION C: Catalytic agents.
(8310)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
What is the maximum weight of hazardous material (other than
nonflammable compressed gas) that may be carried in an accessible cargo
compartment of a passenger-carrying aircraft? OPCION A: 50 pounds, unless otherwise specifically permitted OPCION B: 10 pounds, if classified as corrosive.
OPCION C: 25 pounds, if classified as ORM-D.
(8311)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
What is the maximum, if any, number of packages of ORM material that may
be transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft? OPCION A: No limit applies OPCION B: A number whose combined transportation indices total 50. OPCION C: A number whose combined transportation indices total 100.
.
(8312)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
If transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft, what is the maximum
combined transportation indices of packages containing radioactive
materials? OPCION A: 100. OPCION B: 50.
OPCION C: 25.
(8313)
What precaution, if any, should be taken if dry ice is carried aboard an
aircraft? OPCION A: This material does not require special precautions OPCION B: A waiver to carry this material should be requested from the DGTA OPCION C: Proper ventilation of the aircraft should be assured.
.
(8315)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175)
What is the minimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing
the label "RADIOACTIVE YELLOW II", and having a transport index of 15,
may be placed from a space continuously occupied by people? OPCION A: 3 feet. OPCION B: 4 feet. OPCION C: 5 feet.
(8316)
(Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175.) What is the maximum quantity of
flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin of a small,
nonscheduled, passenger-carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of
the United States? OPCION A: 10 gallons OPCION B: 15 gallons OPCION C: 20 gallons.
The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are
specified in the OPCION A: certificate holder's operations specifications
OPCION B: application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the
applicant OPCION C: Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
(8792)
The crew interphone system on a large turbojet-powered airplane provides a
means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least
one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is
on the ground. The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be
located so that those using the system, from that station OPCION A: are always visible, from within the airplane OPCION B: are able to avold the intake areas of the engines OPCION C: may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.
Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? OPCION A: Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft
during flight time.
OPCION B: A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. OPCION C: Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight
engineer.
(9326)
"Operational control" of a flight refer to OPCION A: the specific duties of any required crewmember.
OPCION B: exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. OPCION C: exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.
.
A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is
completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot
privileges may be exercised? OPCION A: ATP: B-727 and DC-3; Commercial: DC-9 OPCION B: ATP: B-727 only; Commercial: DC-9 and DC-3.
OPCION C: ATP: B-727 and DC-9; Commercial: DC-3.
In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding
briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots
in air transportation service? OPCION A: 6 hours. OPCION B: 8 hours. OPCION C: 10 hours.
.
The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline
transport pilot is restricted to OPCION A: 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
OPCION B: 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period.
OPCION C: 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument
competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain
current if no further IFR flights are made? OPCION A: 12 months OPCION B: 90 days. OPCION C: 6 months.
(9340)
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot
certificate, in an aircraft, needs OPCION A: a first-class medical certificate. OPCION B: at least a current third-class medical certificate. OPCION C: a second-class medical certificate.
(9342)
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an
aircraft requiring two pilots? OPCION A: All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by
reference to flight instruments. OPCION B: One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. OPCION C: One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
(9343)
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and
the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or
approved flight simulator, the applicant is OPCION A: required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
OPCION B: is not required to have a medical certificate.
OPCION C: required to have a first-class medical certificate.
(9344)
To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a
pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least OPCION A: six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through
the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator
or in the category of aircraft to be flown OPCION B: six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and
class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in
any aircraft. OPCION C: six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may
be in a glider.
When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? OPCION A: When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot
decision height and landing. OPCION B: When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums have been completed in
the past 6 months. OPCION C: 120 days after issue or renewal.
A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally
limited to OPCION A: Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH OPCION B: pilots who have completed an DGTA-approved Category II training program.
OPCION C: Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
(9348)
What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified
during the original issuance of the authorization? OPCION A: 100 feet AGL. OPCION B: 150 feet AGL OPCION C: 200 feet AGL.
Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a
type rating? OPCION A: When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. OPCION B: When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500
pounds. OPCION C: When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than
6,000 pounds.
To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II
authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?
OPCION A: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be
flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
OPCION B: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an
approach coupler to the Category I DH OPCION C: Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use
of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
.
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and
the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft,
the applicant is OPCION A: required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate OPCION B: required to have a current first-class medical certificate. OPCION C: not required to hold a medical certificate.
When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate,
for what maximum time is this document valid?
OPCION A: 30 days. OPCION B: 60 days. OPCION C: 90 days.
During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from an FAR rule
but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot
required to submit a written report? OPCION A: To the manager of the General Aviation District Office OPCION B: To the manager of the facility in control at the time of the deviation OPCION C: Upon request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager.
When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule
has not been violated? OPCION A: When priority has been given OPCION B: Anytime an emergency occurs. OPCION C: When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
Lewiston-Nez Perce Co. is a FAR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum
number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount
of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?
(Refer to Appendix 2, Legend 15, Appendix 3, Figure 177) OPCION A: Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemicals (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500
pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water OPCION B: One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450
pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water OPCION C: One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350
pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.
Newport News/Willimamsburg Intl is a FAR Part 139 airport. The A/FD
contains the following entry: ARFF Index A.What is the minimum number of
aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire
fighting agents that the airport should have?
(Refer to Appendix 2, Legend 15) OPCION A: Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500
pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. OPCION B: One vehicle and 500 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds
of DC plus 100 gallons of water.
OPCION C: One vehicle and 500 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds
of DC plus 1,000 gallons of water.
.
(8903)
Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. OPCION A: Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights
to the end. OPCION B: Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to
the end.
OPCION C: Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.
Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. OPCION A: Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway
to the centerline of the taxiway. OPCION B: Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway
to the edge of the exit.
OPCION C: Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centreline of the runway
to a point on the exit.
(8905)
How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? OPCION A: Green, yellow, and white beacon light.
OPCION B: White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white.
OPCION C: Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.
How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? OPCION A: Green, yellow, and white beacon light. OPCION B: White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white.
OPCION C: Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.
(8907)
Identify the runway distance remaining markers. OPCION A: Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. OPCION B: Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. OPCION C: Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side
denoting distance to end.
What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? OPCION A: High - white, on glidepath - red and white; low - red.
OPCION B: High - white, on glidepath - green; low - red. OPCION C: High - white and green, on glidepath - green; low - red.
.
What does the pulsating VASI consist of? OPCION A: Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady OPCION B: Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady OPCION C: One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more
than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red
for slightly below glide path.
What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? OPCION A: High - pulsing white, on glidepath - green, low - pulsing red. OPCION B: High - pulsing white, on glidepath - steady white, slightly below glide slope
steady red, low - pulsing red.
OPCION C: High - pulsing white, on course and on glidepath - steady white, off course
but on glidepath - pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red.
.
What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? OPCION A: Pilots have a choice of glide angles. OPCION B: A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. OPCION C: The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.
A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in OPCION A: a hard landing. OPCION B: increased landing rollout.
OPCION C: landing short of the runway threshold.
.
(8913)
The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by OPCION A: high performance aircraft. OPCION B: helicopters. OPCION C: high cockpit aircraft.
(8914)
What is the purpose of REIL? OPCION A: Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. OPCION B: Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.
OPCION C: Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.
(8915)
Identify REIL. OPCION A: Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
OPCION B: Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. OPCION C: Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
(8916)
What does the tri-color VASI consist of? OPCION A: Three light bars; red, green, and amber OPCION B: One light projector with three colors; red, green, and amber. OPCION C: Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.
(8917)
Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? OPCION A: Red. OPCION B: Amber. OPCION C: Green.
Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? OPCION A: Red. OPCION B: Amber. OPCION C: Green.
Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "low" indication? OPCION A: Red. OPCION B: Amber. OPCION C: Green.
What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night? OPCION A: 5 miles.
OPCION B: 10 miles. OPCION C: 15 miles.
.
What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? OPCION A: Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. OPCION B: Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. OPCION C: One light projector with two colors; red and white.
(8922)
Fig. 129
What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9?
OPCION A: 1,000 feet. OPCION B: 1,500 feet.
OPCION C: 2,000 feet.
Fig. 130
What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on
runway 9? OPCION A: 1,000 feet. OPCION B: 2,000 feet.
OPCION C: 2,500 feet.
Fig. 130
What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9?
OPCION A: 2,000 feet.
OPCION B: 2,500 feet. OPCION C: 3,000 feet.
.
(8925)
Fig. 130
What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9?
OPCION A: 2,500 feet.
OPCION B: 2,000 feet.
OPCION C: 1,500 feet.
(8926)
Fig. 130
What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9? OPCION A: 500 feet. OPCION B: 1,000 feet. OPCION C: 1,500 feet.
(8927)
Fig. 131
What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9? OPCION A: 1,500 feet. OPCION B: 2,000 feet OPCION C: 2,500 feet.
(8928)
Fig. 131
What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on
runway 9? OPCION A: 2,000 feet OPCION B: 3,000 feet. OPCION C: 3,500 feet.
.
(8929)
Fig. 131
What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9? OPCION A: 3,000 feet OPCION B: 2,500 feet.
OPCION C: 1,500 feet.
.
(8930)
Fig. 131
What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on
runway 9?
OPCION A: 1,000 feet OPCION B: 2,000 feet. OPCION C: 2,500 feet.
.
(8931)
Fig. 131
What is the runway distance remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on
runway 9? OPCION A: 2,000 feet. OPCION B: 1,500 feet. OPCION C: 1,000 feet.
.
(8932)
Fig. 131
What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on
runway 9?
OPCION A: 1,000 feet OPCION B: 1,500 feet. OPCION C: 1,800 feet.
.
(8945)
How may a pilot determine if a LORAN-C receiver is authorized for IFR
operations? OPCION A: Consult the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement.
OPCION B: A placard stating, "LORAN-C APPROVED FOR IFR EN ROUTE,
TERMINAL AND APPROACH SEGMENTS. OPCION C: An airframe logbook entry that the LORAN-C receiver has been checked
within the previous 30-calendar days.
(8946)
What documents the authorized operational level of LORAN-C? OPCION A: A placard stating "KIRAB-C APPROVED FOR IFR."
OPCION B: The Airplane Flight Manual Supplement or DGAC Form 337, Major Repair
and Alteration OPCION C: An entry in the aircraft maintenance logbook giving place, date, and signature
of authorizing official.
Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to
communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either
direction) of flight? OPCION A: ARINC.
OPCION B: Any FSS. OPCION C: Appropriate dispatch office.
(8140)
Information recorded during normal operations of a cockpit voice recorder in
a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines OPCION A: may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
OPCION B: may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to
landing.
OPCION C: may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with
reciprocating engines.
.
(8141)
Which rule applies to the use of cockpit voice recorder erasure fetaure? OPCION A: All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior
to landing. OPCION B: Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased OPCION C: All recorded information may be erased, unless the DGAC needs to be
notified of an occurrence.
.
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system OPCION A: a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a
valid test. OPCION B: a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing
may be erased.
OPCION C: a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
A cockpit voice recorder must be operated OPCION A: from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final
checklist upon termination of flight. OPCION B: from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of
checklist prior to engine shutdown OPCION C: when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after
termination of the flight.
.
(8145)
When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top which
navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
OPCION A: VOR.
OPCION B: ADF. OPCION C: VOR and DME.
(8146)
When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? OPCION A: In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. OPCION B: Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required OPCION C: For flights at or above FL 180.
(8147)
When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies? OPCION A: The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR
NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land.
OPCION B: The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation
radios OPCION C: The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR
NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use
of the remaining airplane radio system.
.
(8148)
What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category
airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR
flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
OPCION A: Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. OPCION B: Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures
specified in the operations manual for such an event. OPCION C: Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been
encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.
What functions are provided by ILS? OPCION A: Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. OPCION B: Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. OPCION C: Guidance, range, and visual information.
.
How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC? OPCION A: LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. OPCION B: LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. OPCION C: LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.
.
(8968)
When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale
deflection?
OPCION A: When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. OPCION B: When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right OPCION C: When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.
.
(8969)
Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent
required for a 3° glidepath? OPCION A: 5 times groundspeed in knots.
OPCION B: 8 times groundspeed in knots OPCION C: 10 times groundspeed in knots.
(8970)
What facilities may be subsituted for an inoperative middle marker during a
Category I ILS approach? OPCION A: ASR and PAR.
OPCION B: The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums OPCION C: Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
(8149)
If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver
and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to OPCION A: proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an
instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. OPCION B: continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. OPCION C: proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument
approach and land.
.
If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are
forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched
only OPCION A: when able to climb and descend VFR and manintain VFR/OT en route.
OPCION B: in VFR conditions OPCION C: in day VFR conditions.
(8151)
An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating
condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be OPCION A: conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms
reported en route.
OPCION B: carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo".
OPCION C: conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of
weather.
While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will
precipitate an immediate report to ATC? OPCION A: One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. OPCION B: Airborne radar.
OPCION C: DME.
.
(8154)
Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning
glide slope deviation alerting system? OPCION A: All turbine powered airplanes. OPCION B: Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. OPCION C: Large turbine-powered airplanes only.
Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use
a dual Inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? OPCION A: The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. OPCION B: A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. OPCION C: Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted
for the other INS.
(8195)
An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio
navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? OPCION A: VOR.
OPCION B: VOR and ILS OPCION C: VOR and DME.
(8196)
Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the OPCION A: Airplane Flight Manual OPCION B: International Flight Information Manual. OPCION C: Air carrier´s Operations Specifications.
(8197)
Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation
equipment? OPCION A: Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. OPCION B: International Flight Information Manual. OPCION C: Airplane Flight Manual.
An air carrier that elects to use an Inertial Navigational System (INS) must
meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? OPCION A: The INS system must consist of two operative INS units OPCION B: Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for
the other INS.
OPCION C: A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.
.
(8868)
Fig. 125
Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the
magnetic bearing of 235° FROM the station? (Wind 050° at 20 knots.)
OPCION A: 2.
OPCION B: 3. OPCION C: 4.
.
(8869)
Fig. 125
What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? OPCION A: 285°. OPCION B: 055° OPCION C: 235°.
Fig. 125
Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and
moving closer TO the station? OPCION A: 1. OPCION B: 2. OPCION C: 3.
.
(8871)
Fig. 125
Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of
the station and heading away from the station?
OPCION A: 1. OPCION B: 2 OPCION C: 3.
(8901)
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a
VFR runway?
OPCION A: Lights are closer together and easily distniguished from surrounding lights OPCION B: Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution
zone. OPCION C: Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of
runway for a caution zone.
(8902)
Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). OPCION A: Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway
centerline.
OPCION B: Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the
touchdown zone.
OPCION C: Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the
threshold through the touchdown zone.
.
LORAN-C is based upon measurements of the difference in time arrival of
pulses generated by what type radio stations?
OPCION A: A group of stations operating on the 108-115 MHz frequency band.
OPCION B: Two stations operating on the 90-110 MHz frequency band. OPCION C: A chain of stations operating on the 90-110 kHz frequency band.
(8949)
Which class of NOTAM gives the latest information on LORAN-C chain or
station outages? OPCION A: NOTAM (L)'s under the identifier "LORAN-C." OPCION B: NOTAM (D)'s under the identifier "LRN."
OPCION C: Class II NOTAM's published every 14 days.
.
(8956)
Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters
of the localizer group? OPCION A: Inner marker. OPCION B: Middle compass locator OPCION C: Outer compass locator.
Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters
of the localizer identification group? OPCION A: Inner marker. OPCION B: Middle compass locator.
OPCION C: Outer compass locator.
.
(8958)
What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner
marker? OPCION A: Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.
OPCION B: Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.
OPCION C: Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
(8959)
What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle
marker? OPCION A: Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. OPCION B: Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. OPCION C: Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
(8960)
What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer
marker?
OPCION A: Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. OPCION B: Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second OPCION C: Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.
.
(8961)
Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS
operate? OPCION A: 108.10 to 118.10 MHz OPCION B: 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. OPCION C: 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.
If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS
back course marker? OPCION A: A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light OPCION B: Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon
light. OPCION C: A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.
.
The lowest ILS Category II minimums are OPCION A: DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. OPCION B: DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. OPCION C: DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.
.
What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum? OPCION A: DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. OPCION B: RVR 1,000 feet.
OPCION C: RVR 700 feet.
How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC? OPCION A: SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6° OPCION B: SDF - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway.
OPCION C: SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.
.
Fig. 135 - 138
Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is
indicated? OPCION A: 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide
slope.
OPCION B: 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide
slope. OPCION C: 430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide
slope.
.
(8972)
Fig. 136 - 138
Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the
1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?
OPCION A: 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the
runway centerline. OPCION B: 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the
runway centerline OPCION C: 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the
runway centerline.
(8973)
Fig. 137 - 138
Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is
indicated? OPCION A: 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide
slope OPCION B: 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide
slope.
OPCION C: 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide
slope.
.
(8984)
Fig. 139
What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the
radial selected on the No.1 NAV?
OPCION A: 5.0 NM.
OPCION B: 7.5 NM. OPCION C: 10.0 NM.
Fig. 139
On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No.1 NAV? OPCION A: R-175.
OPCION B: R-165. OPCION C: R-345.
.
(8986)
Fig. 139
Which OBS selection on the No.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the
ambiguity indication to a TO? OPCION A: 175.
OPCION B: 165 OPCION C: 345.
(8987)
Fig. 139
What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the
No.2 NAV? OPCION A: 1°.
OPCION B: 2°. OPCION C: 4°.
.
(8988)
Fig. 139
Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI? OPCION A: 174.
OPCION B: 166 OPCION C: 335.
(8989)
Fig. 139
Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the
ambiguity indication to a TO? OPCION A: 166. OPCION B: 346.
OPCION C: 354.
(8990)
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond? OPCION A: 9 and 6.
OPCION B: 9 only OPCION C: 6 only.
(8991)
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond? OPCION A: 11. OPCION B: 5 and 13.
OPCION C: 7 and 11.
(8992)
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "C" correspond? OPCION A: 9. OPCION B: 4.
OPCION C: 12.
.
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond? OPCION A: 1 OPCION B: 10. OPCION C: 2.
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?
OPCION A: 8 only. OPCION B: 8 and 3. OPCION C: 3 only.
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond? OPCION A: 4.
OPCION B: 11. OPCION C: 5.
Fig. 140 - 141
To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond? OPCION A: 7 only. OPCION B: 7 and 11. OPCION C: 5 and 13.
.
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