知識の質問 6

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知識の質問 6


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Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses Do not even look, call maintenance In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar In the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant subsection).
If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should: Consult with a maintenance technician Consult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM. Look it up in the Maintenance section of the company’s Operations Specifications.
If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you: Top it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a 50% ratio Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels Not use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B .
Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using: Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine Auxiliary Power Units which are installed for this purpose primarily Pressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from the last stage turbine section of the engine.
At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach.
How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft? Immediatly after ground contact. Immediatly prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking.
What characterizes a transient compressor stall? Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine. Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when: The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45º C The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed limitations The ITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is obtained.
Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by. Bringing the engine from forward thrust into a momentary stop (stationary) then spooled up into reverse thrust. It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward Starting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust.
What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”: Propjet Fanjet TPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine).
Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine exhaust: 100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust 75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust 20% propeller - 80% turbine exhaust.
High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to A turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades A regular jet engine with afterburner A simple scramjet engine.
A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by: Ambient pressure and humidity Ambient temperature and pressure Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions.
If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in: Lbs of thrust ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power) Also SHP.
What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type: A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing. A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing.
Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do, this ratio on turbine type engines is: Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage.
Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines True False Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons.
Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most turboprop engines because they both Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight.
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes.
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? Past the point where the jet touched down. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the Amount of trim required to relieve control pressures. Heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline. Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL? Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport. 29.92 Inches Hg.
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs. 30.50 31.00 32.00.
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency. Is operating VFR on top. Requests an amended clearance.
When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing. Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible. Landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area. Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road. Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).
Light beacons producing red flashes indicate A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling. Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation. End of runway warning at departure end.
(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft? Top red. Middle yellow. Bottom yellow.
(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control. At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. Near the approach end of ILS runways.
(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure. Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol. Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude? It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. Not so fast. Think first. Follow the rules. They are usually right.
The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by A total disregard for any alternative course of action. Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a mishap. Imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.' Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. Early recognition of hazardous thoughts. Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process? Dealing with improper judgment. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.
What does good cockpit stress management begin with? Knowing what causes stress. Good life stress management. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction? Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction? It's too late to fix it now. He can handle a little problem like this. What is the worst that could happen.
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to Assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. Promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? He is not too concerned, everything will be alright. He flies a little closer, just to show him. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. Be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. Avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.
A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction? He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.
Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? Estimate Eliminate Evaluate.
Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? Identify Detect Evaluate.
The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are: Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate. Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate. Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a Mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. Decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. Developing the 'right stuff' attitude. Making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
The 'taxiway ending' marker Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. Indicates taxiway does not continue. Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located: At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ Depends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway 500 Ft from the beginning of the runway.
The area before a displaced threshold may be used: Only in emergencies For taxiing and landing rollout only For taxiing, take off and landing rollout.
A red background sign with white lettering denotes: Warning positions for Non commercial or VFR aircraft Instructions for military aircraft only An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft.
A runway incursion is: Not possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers A serious offence punishable to non licensed ground vehicle drivers Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway.
On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if: You see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the R side of the runway You stay within the standard 3º glide path You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway.
Runway center line lights are: White and green White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway.
Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace: True, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so.
If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at the VOR: You must slow down to 200 Kts You are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC.
On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should: Not obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds Obey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC.
Intersection take offs are: Not allowed for passenger flights Not allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft Allowed under dry pavement conditions only.
When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage. All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer.
If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the Centerline of the main wheels. Nose, or out in front of the airplane. Centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane.
The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods? Dividing total arms by total moments. Multiplying total arms by total weight Dividing total moments by total weight.
Automated flight decks or cockpits Enhance basic pilot flight skills. Decrease the work load in terminal areas. Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.
You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. All parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.
(Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots? 260° at 20 knots. 275° at 25 knots. 315° at 35 knots.
(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing? 7 knots. 15 knots. 17 knots.
(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing? a. 19 knots. b. 21 knots. c. 23 knots. 19 knots 21 knots 23 knots.
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? -5°C. -15°C. +5°C.
What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? a. -15°C. b. -20°C. c. -25°C. -15°C. -20°C. -25°C.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? 15°C and 29.92" Hg. 59°F and 1013.2" Hg. 15°C and 29.92 Mb.
The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on Pressure/density altitude. Cabin altitude. True altitude.
What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance? As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nose wheel-type airplanes. Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes. Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nose wheel-type airplanes.
When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason? Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid over stressing the airplane. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible.
A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is Maintaining a safe airspeed. Landing directly into the wind. Turning back to the takeoff field.
Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions? A power-on approach and power-on landing. A power-off approach and power-on landing. A power-on approach and power-off landing.
A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway. Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway. Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? Increases takeoff speed. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff distance.
At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged. Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease? Sudden decrease in the headwind component. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed? Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind and headwind. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? Decreasing headwind or tailwind. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered? When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"? Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min Any change of airspeed greater than 20 Knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.
Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind? Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT) Extend flaps to decrease wind loading. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.
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