87 A

The correct runway slope limits for the 787 are?. +3-2 percent. +2-1 percent. +/-2 percen. -1+2 percent.

The Maximum operating altitude of the 787 is?. 42,100 feet pressure altitude. 43,100 feet pressure altitude. 43,300 feet pressure altitude. 42,000 feet pressure altitude.

The maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component of the 787 is?. 10 knots. 15 knots. 25 knots. 18 knots.

The maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the 787 is?. 8,000 feet pressure altitude. 8,800 feet pressure altitude. 8,400 feet pressure altitude. 14,000 feet pressure altitude.

Turbulent air penetration speed for the 787 at and above 25,000' is defined as: 300KIAS/.80Mach. 280KIAS/.78Mach. 290KIAS/.82Mach. 310KIAS/.84Mach.

Turbulent air penetration speed (severe turbulence) for the 787 below 25,000' is defined as: 290 knots. 310 knots. 280 knots. 300 knots.

The maximum differential pressure (relief valves) for the 787 is?. 7.9 psi. 8.8 psi. 9.6 psi. 9.9 psi.

The maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing is?. .08 psi. .11 psi. .25 psi. .50 psi.

Which answer below is correct pertaining to Anti –Ice operation on the 787 ?. Engine anti-ice must be in auto on the ground or in flight if icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is below -40 C OAT. During ground operations in icing conditions when the OAT is 3 degrees C or below, the engine must be run up momentarily to a minimum of 70% N1 at intervals not to exceed 60 minutes. Do not use anti-ice if the OAT or TAT exceeds 10 degrees Celsius. Do not use anti-ice if the OAT or TAT exceeds 10 degrees Celsius.

What is the minimum width of pavement needed for 180 degree turn?. 42.2 Mts. 43.8 Mts. 40.5 Mts.

To ensure obstacle clearance while taxiing in a turn. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required by the wingtip?. 15 feet (4.6 m). 14 feet (4.3m). 16 feet (4.9m).

Which statement concerning the use of the Autopilot system is correct?. The autopilot must not be engaged below a minimum altitude of 100 feet AGL after takeoff. The autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends below the MDA it is coupled to an ILS glideslope and localizer or in the go–around mode. Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below 100 feet AGL. Do not use the autopilot below 100 feet RA at airport pressure altitudes above 8,000 feet.

How long the IRS selector must be paced in OFF for alignment?. 45 seconds. 10 seconds. 30 seconds. 60 seconds.

On which CDU page is RNP /ACTUAL for departure verified?. POS REF page 2. PROG page 1. DEP/ARR INDEX page. NAV/RADIO page.

The maximum Glide Slope angle for automatic landing: 3.77 degrees. 2.5 degrees. 3.25 degrees.

For all flaps-down operations (any time the flaps are not full-up) the minimum maneuver speed is the slowest speed that provides full maneuver capability, 1.3g or 40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot) to stick shaker. The top of the amber band does not vary with g load. True. False.

Tail Strike Pitch Attitude(degrees) for 787-8 is?. 12.0. 12.3. 11.2.

The maximum rate of climb may be obtained by using this speed schedule: VREF 30 + 140 knots until intercepting 0.82M. VREF 30 + 80 knots until intercepting 0.80M. VREF 30 + 60 knots until intercepting 0.78M.

The altitude shown on the CRZ page that accounts for forecast winds and temperatures aloft along the flight plan route, is: recommended (RECMD) altitude. optimum (OPT) altitude. Maximum (MAX) altitude.

If the autothrottle is engaged, the thusr leven begins to reduce toward idee at ____ feet during flare. 10. 25. 30.

When the landing weather minima are predicated on the autoland operations the following limits apply for Headwind, Tailwind and Crosswind. 25, 10, 25. 25, 15, 25. 25, 10, 20.

Flight Deck Communications Systems (Datalink) Pre-Departure Clearance, Digital Automatic Terminal Information Service, Oceanic Clearances, Weight & Balance, and Takeoff Data messages can be transmitted and received via COMPANY format if they are verified per approved operational procedures. True. False.

Engine bleed air is used less on the B787 than for other similar aeroplane types. What services does it supply on the B787?. Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine core and inlet cowl anti- ice operations. Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine start and inlet cowl anti– ice operations. Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is also used for cabin pressurization and engine core and inlet cowl anti-ice operations. All of the above are correct.

Which are the correct indications of a properly entered access code?. Produces a warning level alert to the flight crew and an amber light on the key pad. Produces a green light on the key pad. Produces an EICAS message.

When the EEC automatically switches an engine to the alternate mode and the EEC mode switch remains in NORM, the EEC is in: The soft alternate mode. The hard alternate mode.

The maximum tank fuel temperature for Jet A fuel is: 49 degrees Celsius. 60 degrees Celsius. 57 degrees Celsius.

Select the correct answer or answers pertaining to the following Reverse Thrust statements: Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited. Position reverse thrust levers full down (forward thrust) decelerating through 80 knots. Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is prohibited. Both a & c are correct. All of the above are correct.

Select the correct answer or answers regarding the engine oil system requirements for Rolls Royce Model Trent-1000 series engines on the 787: The engine oil temperature must be -40 degrees C or greater for engine start and have an indicated increase before advancing thrust levers to takeoff power. After landing operate the engine for at least 5 minutes. Both a and b are correct.

Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if center tank fuel is loaded. However the center tank may contain up to _________ of fuel with less than full main tanks provided center tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and center of gravity limits are observed. 1000 kilograms. 10,000 kilograms.

Which statement is NOT correct with respect to the flight controls?. Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below Design Maneuvering Speed (VA). Takeoff is permitted only in the normal or secondary mode. Do not extend flaps above 20,000 feet.

Entry and cargo door open wind limit is: 65 knot. 50 knots. 40 knots. 30 knots.

Pilots are not authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to comply with a TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA). True. False.

The EFIS control panels control display options, mode, and range for the respective PFDs and NDs. If an EFIS control panel fails: The displays can be controlled through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page. The backup EFIS capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel. The displays can be controlled through the related CDU. This CDU capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel.

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within _____ of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain data base. 25 NM. 50 NM. 05 NM. 15 NM.

Which of the following is/are true regarding the flight deck overhead door?. The door can be opened only on the ground with the airplane depressurized. The door opens outward. Pull and rotate the door lock lever to the open position to open the door. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

The CABIN TEMP selector sets a master reference temperature between. 18 C and 29 C. 20 C and 28 C. 16C and 30 C.

The humidification system operates automatically during cruise when the HUMID switch is on and is automatically switched off approximately in?. 20 min Prior to touch down. 30 min Prior to touch down. 1 ½ Hrs Prior to touch down.

Which of the following statements are correct concerning the evacuation signal system when the flight deck EVAC COMMAND switch is in the ON position?. EVAC COMMAND EICAS warning is displayed on the flight deck. EVAC lights flash at the designated flight attendant switch panels. An audio horn sounds over the cabin PA system. All of the above are correct.

The passenger cabin oxygen system is supplied by gaseous oxygen stored in small high pressure cylinders. The passenger oxygen masks automatically drop from the passenger service units (PSUs) prior to the cabin altitude reaching the greater of: 13,500 feet. The origin airfield altitude +1500 feet or destination airfield +1500 feet. 14500 feet. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

The main battery provides power for: • airplane power-up • APU start (assists APU battery) • refueling operations • towing operations • electric braking (as a backup power source) • captain's flight instruments (after a power failure, energizes essential instruments until RAT deployment). True. False.

The Alternate Ventilation System (AVS) provides an alternate means of ventilating the cabin and flight deck in the event that both packs are inoperative. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?. The system consists of a flight deck switch and a dedicated flush inlet valve and duct that delivers outside air flow downstream of the left pack outlet. The switch is guarded to prevent selection which could open the vent valve and depressurize the airplane.

Which of the following statements about the cargo heat systems is/are correct?. The fwd and bulk cargo compartments have independent heating systems. Selecting the AUTO setting on the FWD BULK CARGO TEMP switch turns on the bulk ventilation fan to allow for live animal transport. The forward cargo compartment air conditioning system provides temperature control and conditioned air for the transport of perishable, live or other temperature sensitive cargo. Automatic ventilation ensures that odors do not go from the cargo compartment to the flight deck or passenger cabin. All of the above are correct.

The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) provides liquid cooling to the high voltage direct current (DC) equipment in the aft E&E equipment compartment and provides liquid cooling to the supplemental cooling units and associated motor controllers of the Integrated Cooling System . Which of the following statements below is/are NOT correct regarding the PECS?. There is a single loop with two fully redundant pumps on each loop. The system operation is completely automated and no crew action is required for either normal or non-normal modes of operation. Liquid quantities and status for each liquid cooling loop are displayed on the STATUS page.

Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine and wing anti-ice operations. True. False.

The Integrated Cooling System (ICS) is a centralized refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling recirculated cabin air. There is no flight deck control for the ICS. True. False.

In flight, the Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) operates in a climb mode, a cruise mode, or a descent mode. The pressurization system uses ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule. The schedule provides a comfortable cabin climb to cruise altitude. Which of the following statements about the operation of this system is NOT correct?. If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the default cruise altitude is 43,000 feet. In the cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is no more than 6,000 feet. At touchdown, both outflow valves open to depressurize the cabin. In operation with loss of cabin pressurization, it is important that the flight crew close the outflow valves during the descent.

The Captains and First Officers windshields are equipped with a windshield washer system. Windshield washer switches command a continuous application of washer fluid while held in the ON position. True. False.

The electric wing anti–ice system powers thermal anti-icing mats on four mid wing leading edge slats on each wing. There are three separate mats on each slat. Wing anti–ice is inhibited on the ground below 75 knots. To maintain aerodynamic stability, system logic controls symmetrical operation of left and right wing anti-ice. Which of the following statements : Is correct?. If one wing anti–ice thermal mat fails, the wing anti–ice system automatically depowers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing. Automatic wing anti–ice operation is available in flight and on the ground above 75 knots. In flight, when the WING ANTI–ICE selector is AUTO the wing anti-ice system on each wing is powered anytime the TAT is below 10 degrees C. Wing anti-ice may be momentarily shed (30 seconds maximum) during high electrical loads, such as during flap retraction. All above are correct.