87 A.2

Push – Transfers the IAS or Mach value from the lower line to the upper line. If the upper line was blank/closed, it now opens to the uplinked ATC value. Lower line blanks after the transfer. Select the following statement(s) that are correct on the functions of the Uplink Transfer Switch: Uplinked clearances are preceded by the letters “UL”. For conditional clearances, pushing the ACCEPT switch automatically displays clearance IAS or Mach value in the lower line. The ATC uplink function is always enabled. For immediate clearances, pushing the datalink ACCEPT switch displays the clearance IAS or Mach value in the lower line of the window. If the upper line was blank/closed, it remains unchanged. Pushing the datalink CNCL switch removes the clearance from the lower line. All of the above are correct.

The upper line displays speed selected by the IAS/MACH selector and lower line displays uplinked ATC clearance. During climb the selected speed automatically changes from IAS to MACH at ____ Mach and during descent it automatically changes from MACH to IAS at ______ KIAS. .82/280. .83/300. .84/310.

Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls VNAV will disengage when the GP pitch mode is engaged on an Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) approach. True. False.

The cabin interphone system provides voice communications between the flight deck and the flight attendant stations. In order to call a cabin station from the flight deck, a pilot must: Select a cabin interphone station or stations from the center CDU to alert the desired station to pick up the call or enter the appropriate call code in the CDU scratchpad and select SEND. Select a cabin interphone station or stations from the TCP CABIN INTERPHONE page to alert the desired station to pick up the call, manually enter a valid two digit code in the scratchpad and select MAKE CALL, or line select one of three predefined SPEED DIAL locations on the CABIN INTERPHONE page.

Placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position on an unpowered airplane on the ground: Allows the APU to be started and some switch annunciator lights are illuminated. Initiates L CCR start-up sequence and after the L CCR start-up is complete energizes the “On-Ground Battery Only”. None of the above.

The TOWING BATTERY TEST SWITCH illuminates the applicable towing battery charge light (HIGH, MEDIUM, or LOW) depending on current voltage to provide battery charge quality in time available. What are the minimum time limits in minutes (assuming no braking) to a depleted battery for each charge light?. 60, 40, 20. 60, 30, 15. 45, 30, 15.

In the “Towing Power” mode, the radio communication systems are energized by the main battery. True. False.

The engine has two starter/generators function as electrically powered starter motors for engine start, and as engine driven generators once the engines are running. Each engine has two 235Vac variable frequency starter generators. L1 and L2 are connected to the left engine. R1 and R2 are connected to the right engine. Both function as starters to electrically start the engine. What power sources are available to the engine starters for ground start?. APU generated power. External power. Opposite engine's generated power. All of the above.

The APU has two 235 Vac starter/generators, designated left (L) and (R). Although both are able to function as electrical starters, only one is necessary to start the APU. For APU starts with the APU battery as the power source (no engine running and forward external power no ON) the _______ starter/generator is always used. Left. Right.

The 115 Vac external power system consists of both a forward and aft system. There are two forward and one aft power connections, with associated control panel switches. Both forward connections are normally used for ground operations. The airplane is capable of powering ground handling and ground service loads with only a single forward connection, but power for additional airplane loads is limited. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding external power?. The aft external power system provides additional power for large loads. If only two connections are available to support main engine start (APU not operating), the two forward connections should be used. Aft external power can be used as a single source to start the left engine only. Connecting one or both power sources to the receptacles illuminates the AVAIL light(s) in the power switch(es), and energizes “Ground Handling” mode.

The APU battery functions automatically and has no power switch. Which of the following is true of the functions of the APU battery?. The APU battery provides power on the ground for APU start, airplane powerup, refueling operations and towing operations. The APU battery is connected directly to the APU battery bus and provides dedicated power to the APU electric starter.

The airplane is powered by two Rolls Royce Trent 1000D engines. The engines are rated at 69,800/74,511 pounds of takeoff thrust each. The engines are three-rotor axial flow turbofans of high compression and bypass ratio. Do the three rotors operate through a commo shaft?. Yes, all three rotors operate on a common shaft. No, the first two rotors are on the same shaft. No, the rotors are mechanically independent from each other.

The primary engine indications for 787 Rolls Royce engines displayed on the EICAS are: TPR, N1, EGT. N1, N2, EGT. EPR, N1, EGT.

If the thrust is more than the commanded thrust or, the thrust is less than the commanded thrust ; The EICAS alert message ENG THRUST (L or R) is displayed. True. False.

In-Flight start envelope information is displayed in magenta on the EICAS display when the respective engine fire switch is in and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF, or The engine N2 RPM is below idle. Which of the following statements is true regarding the in-flight envelope depicted on the EICAS display?. The in-flight envelope indicates the airspeed range necessary to ensure an in-flight start at the current flight level. The in-flight envelope indicates the airspeed range for a windmilling in-flight start at the current flight level or maximum flight level (whichever is less).

Maximum TPR represents the maximum rated thrust available from the engine. The EEC continuously computes maximum TPR. If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, the EEC automatically uses the alternate mode. In the alternate mode, TPR remains displayed in the soft alternate mode, but blanks in the hard alternate mode. True. False.

Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) only functions when there is a large thrust asymmetry during takeoff or go-around. Which of the following statements are correct concerning TAP?. TAP does not reduce thrust during normal all engine operations, or during engine out takeoffs where the correct operational thrust (i.e. thrust levers are not advanced during a derated takeoff) and speeds are maintained. As TAP reduces thrust, the maximum and commanded TPR tics move down to the reduced TAP thrust value, and the actual TPR indication follows. The reference/target TPR indication and the throttles do not move. The EICAS advisory message THRUST ASYM PROT is displayed if the TAP function is operative and directional control protection is available at all speeds. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

The electrical system powers two starter motors mechanically connected to the N2 shaft via the accessory gearbox. During engine starts, power to run the starters is drawn from the airplane's electrical system. There are two power sources that can provide starter power; the APU and the forward external power. Normally, APU power is used to drive the engine starters. During engine start, load shed occurs: Always. Never. Sometimes, depending upon the electrical load before the engine start is initiated. Shed systems appear on their respective synoptics with the majority appearing on the electrical synoptic.

During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for which of the following?. No N1 rotation (locked rotor). Insufficient starter power. Insufficient air pressure for starter rotation. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

How many attempts does the autostart system make during an in-flight start?. Two. Three. Continuous.

The APU is started by either the left or right APU starter. How are the APU starters powered?. The right starter is powered by the APU battery, if required. Either starter can be powered by forward external power or an engine generator. Both a and b are correct.

During flight, after a fire warning from the cargo fire detection system, the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch light on the 787 illuminates and the EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCH CARGO is displayed after the first two extinguisher bottles have completely discharged. True. False.

Airplane roll control is different in the secondary and direct flight control modes. The flight control system continues to receive and process pilot control inputs, however, it now uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands . True. False.

In the secondary mode, how are the slats and flaps controlled and extended?. Controlled separately and positioned electrically. Controlled separately and positioned either by Hydraulic or Electric motors.

The Autodrag function operates by extending the ailerons and the two most outboard spoilers, while maintaining airspeed, to help facilitate glidepath capture when the airplane is above the vertical path. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the operation of the Autodrag function?. Autodrag is only available in the Normal and Secondary modes and is active during automatic and manual approaches. Autodrag functions only in approach configuration: flaps 25 or 30 and the thrust levers are in idle. Autodrag surface deflection is removed below 1,000 feet above ground level so flare and touchdown are not affected.

On the PFD the lateral deviation scale appears on the bottom of the display and the vertical deviation scale appears on the right side of the display. On the lateral and vertical scales, the outer white lines represent RNP and the center white lines represent aircraft position. Which of the following statements accurately describe information displayed on the PFD deviation scales?. The bars represent ANP and the bars on the vertical scale display only during FMC descent phase of flight. The area between the bars indicates the margin available to remain within RNP criteria. If ANP is equal to or exceeds RNP the bars and scale turn amber after 10 seconds and the NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message is displayed. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

Which of the following statements accurately describe elements of the PFD altitude indications?. The altitude indications incorporate a trend vector that indicates expected altitude ten seconds ahead in time based on the current vertical speed. The selected altitude displays the altitude set in the MCP altitude window. The selected altitude box is highlighted in white between 750 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude. The selected altitude displays the altitude set in the MCP altitude window. The selected altitude box is highlighted in white between 900 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude.

The Vertical Situation Display (VSD) presents a profile view of the airplane and its environment. Information shown within the cyan dashed lines (enroute corridor) on the Navigation Display (ND) is shown in profile on the VSD. Which of the following is true about the VSD?. The VSD is automatically selected on whenever the map is selected on the ND. Track mode is the default mode of operation and a route mode is also available. Range is displayed in nautical miles. The altitude reference scale displays altitude in reference to the vertical position of the airplane symbol, terrain, and other objects in the VSD background display. Both b and c are correct. All of the above are correct.

Map Centering Keys are only available in the MAP mode. True. False.

There are two CCDs located on the control stand that control cursor position and operation. Each CCD cursor location switch controls its respective _______________ unit as selected. Side, Inboard, and Lower Center displays. Inboard display unit, Lower display unit, and EFB.

The Auxiliary (AUX) Display is located on the Outboard Display Units and contains the following information: Uplinked air traffic control (ATC) messages. Flt number, MIC, XPDR, Tail number. Date and Time functions. All of the above.

The HUD TO/GA Reference Line is displayed during takeoff roll if the flight director TO/GA mode is active, and groundspeed is greater than ____ knots. 65. 80.

Which of the following is NOT true about IAN indications on the PFD?. FMC glidepath and FAC deviation, approach identifier, distance, and course are provided. The approach reference information appears above and to the left of the attitude display. The IAN deviation source annunciation is below the approach data. IAN glide path and FAC deviation indications and alerts are displayed like ILS. IAN approach deviations are available with QFE selected in the FMC.

If the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel fails, the EICAS advisory message TRANSPONDER PANEL is displayed and the transponder and TCAS modes must be set using the Tuning and Control Panel. Pushing the ALERT/Transponder Control (XPDR CTL) prompt: Places the transponder in the standby mode. Disables transponder altitude reporting. Toggles transponder control between ATP and the TCP.

Which of the following is true of the weather radar display when the WX+T (turbulence) prompt is selected on Weather Radar page ó on the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP)?. Displays weather radar returns and turbulence. The turbulence display is available with display ranges of 40 miles or less. Displays weather returns and turbulence within precipitation at calibrated gain level. Turbulence within 40 nm is displayed at all display ranges.

____ ILS receiver(s) can be manually tuned from the NAV RADIO page at anytime unless ILS approach tuning inhibit is active. 2. 3. 1.

The top of descent (T/D) is the point where the cruise phase changes to the descent phase. It displays on the ND as a green circle with the label T/D. The descent path starts at the T/D and includes waypoint altitude constraints. The path to the first constraint is based on: Idle thrust, speedbrakes retracted, FMC cruise wind, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed. Idle thrust, speedbrakes extended, FMC cruise wind, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed. Off-idle thrust, speedbrakes retracted, FMC cruise wind, applicable target speed, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, and the predicted use of anti-ice.

A missed approach is accomplished by selection of either TOGA switch. Among the features available: The highest altitude in the missed approach procedure becomes the new cruise altitude. The new cruise altitude becomes the greater of the MCP altitude or the highest altitude in the missed approach procedure. None of the above.

In the event of a single FMC failure: The scratchpad message SINGLE FMC L or SINGLE FMC R displays after loss of a single FMC. The EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE displays. Crew action is not necessary to change to a single FMC operation. LNAV and VNAV, if active, remain active and all flight plan and performance data is retained. At powerup, the three FMCs are designated as master, spare and backup. All Flight Management computing tasks are accomplished by the master (active) FMC. The spare (standby) FMC automatically becomes active and assumes all FMC functionality in the event the master FMC fails. The backup FMC then assumes the role of the spare FMC. This transition occurs automatically and is not apparent to the crew. No crew action is necessary. LNAV and VNAV, if active, remain active and all flight plan and performance data is retained.

Most Air Traffic Control datalink functions are accomplished on the MFD. Which of the following is true about ATC route modification clearances received via datalink?. Uplink messages which contain route modifications are loaded into the FMC using the LOAD FMC function on the MFD ATC page. When a clearance is of a type that can be loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window. The crew may accomplish the FMC loading or accept/reject actions in either order. None of the above.

The step size window displays the climb altitude increment used for planning the optimum climb profile. The default value is: 1,000 feet. RVSM. ICAO.

Select route offsets on the RTE page 1, then enter the necessary offset. When executed: The CDU OFST light illuminates. Valid entries are L (left) or R (right) XX (XX Is any number from 0 to 100 nm). The entered offset is displayed on the ND as a dashed magenta line. The ND also displays a 30° entry path to and exit path from the offset. Valid entries are L (left) or R (right) XX (XX is any number from 0 to 99 nm).

Which of the following is a true description of the Cross track Error (XTK ERROR) depiction on Progress Page 4?. Displays present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course. L or R indicates left or right of course. Blank if error is greater than 99 NM. Displays present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course. L or R indicates left or right of course. Errors in excess of 99.99 nm display as 99.99 nm.

On the Arrivals Page, the glideslope prompt displays whenever a localizer based approach (ILS, IGS, LOC, BAC, LDA, SDF) is in the currently displayed, selected or active flight plan. Which of the following is true about the purpose and operation of this prompt?. It provides a means of using FMC glidepath guidance when ILS glideslope guidance is not available. Selected ON for ILS or IGS approaches and off for LOC, BAC, LDA or SDF approaches. Both a & b are correct.

In the event of an unrecoverable loss of all FMC displays, a backup navigation capability is available through: The Control Display Units. The Tuning and Control Panels. The SAARU.

Which of the following is true regarding fuel imbalance indications with the fuel imbalance pointer on the Boeing 787?. A solid white fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if main tank fuel differs more than 1000 lbs. A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed. Both a and b are correct.

The left and right hydraulic systems each have a demand pump. The demand pumps provide supplementary hydraulic power for periods of high system demand. In the AUTO position, both the L and R demand pumps operate under which of the following conditions?. System low pressure. On the ground for the first five minutes after the second engine is started. From takeoff thrust set to flaps retracted. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

What happens to the engine idle setting when engine anti-ice is turned on?. Icing idle is selected due EEC. Approach Idle is adjust due EEC. the Engine increase thrust in 5%.

The ram air turbine, when deployed, provides 5000 PSI hydraulic power to the primary flight controls connected to the center hydraulic system. The RAT deploys automatically under which of the following conditions?. Both engines are failed or all three hydraulic system pressures are low. Loss of all electrical power to Captains and F/Os flight instruments. Loss of all four EMPs and faults in flight control system occur on approach or loss of all four EMPs occurs and an engine fails on takeoff or landing. All of the above are correct.

Selection of the “ABOVE” TCAS prompt: Displays TCAS traffic vertically from 2,700 feet below to 7,000 feet above current flight altitude. Displays TCAS traffic vertically from 2,700 feet below to 2,700 feet above current flight altitude. Displays TCAS traffic vertically from 2,700 feet below to 9,900 feet above current flight altitude.