87 B.2

The HUD TO/GA Reference Line is displayed during takeoff roll if the flight director TO/GA mode is active, and groundspeed is greater than ____ knots. 65. 80. 100.

With the LOC capture and G/S capture, how can the APP mode desengaged.?. The approach mode can be disarmed by disengaging the autopilot and turning both Flight Director switches OFF. The approach mode can be disarmed using HDG SEL or select HDG HLD. The approach mode can be disarmed selecting V/S or G/P.

With LAND 2or LAND 3 annunciated When is the ALIGN maneuver commenced?. 200 Ft above DH. 300 Ft. 100 Ft. 500 Ft.

Which answer below is correct pertaining to Anti –Ice operation on the 787 ?. Engine anti-ice must be in auto on the ground or in flight if icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is below -40 C OAT. During ground operations in icing conditions when the OAT is 3 degrees C or below, the engine must be run up momentarily to a minimum of 70% N1 at intervals not to exceed 60 minutes. Do not use anti-ice if the OAT or TAT exceeds 10 degrees Celsius. Wing anti-ice can be turned on and used after engine start during taxi.

The electric wing anti–ice system powers thermal anti-icing mats on four mid wing leading edge slats on each wing. There are three separate mats on each slat. Wing anti–ice is inhibited on the ground below 75 knots. To maintain aerodynamic stability, system logic controls symmetrical operation of left and right wing anti-ice. Which of the following statements : Is correct?. If one wing anti–ice thermal mat fails, the wing anti–ice system automatically depowers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing. Automatic wing anti–ice operation is available in flight and on the ground above 75 knots. In flight, when the WING ANTI–ICE selector is AUTO the wing anti-ice system on each wing is powered anytime the TAT is below 10 degrees C. Wing anti-ice may be momentarily shed (30 seconds maximum) during high electrical loads, such as during flap retraction. All above are correct.

The cabin interphone system provides voice communications between the flight deck and the flight attendant stations. In order to call a cabin station from the flight deck, a pilot must: Select a cabin interphone station or stations from the center CDU to alert the desired station to pick up the call or enter the appropriate call code in the CDU scratchpad and select SEND. Select a cabin interphone station or stations from the TCP CABIN INTERPHONE page to alert the desired station to pick up the call, manually enter a valid two digit code in the scratchpad and select MAKE CALL, or line select one of three predefined SPEED DIAL locations on the CABIN INTERPHONE page.

Placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position on an unpowered airplane on the ground: Allows the APU to be started and some switch annunciator lights are illuminated. Initiates L CCR start-up sequence and after the L CCR start-up is complete energizes the “On-Ground Battery Only”. None of the above.

The airplane is powered by two Rolls Royce Trent 1000D engines. The engines are rated at 69,800/74,511 pounds of takeoff thrust each. The engines are three-rotor axial flow turbofans of high compression and bypass ratio. Do the three rotors operate through a common shaft?. Yes, all three rotors operate on a common shaft. No, the rotors are mechanically independent from each other. No, the first two rotors are on the same shaft.

Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) only functions when there is a large thrust asymmetry during takeoff or go-around. Which of the following statements are correct concerning TAP?. TAP does not reduce thrust during normal all engine operations, or during engine out takeoffs where the correct operational thrust (i.e. thrust levers are not advanced during a derated takeoff) and speeds are maintained. As TAP reduces thrust, the maximum and commanded TPR tics move down to the reduced TAP thrust value, and the actual TPR indication follows. The reference/target TPR indication and the throttles do not move. The EICAS advisory message THRUST ASYM PROT is displayed if the TAP function is operative and directional control protection is available at all speeds. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for which of the following?. No N1 rotation (locked rotor). Insufficient starter power. Insufficient air pressure for starter rotation. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

An APU fire signal causes: the APU to shutdown immediately. the APU shutdown after 15 seconds. In ground the APU is shutdown after 30 seconds.

For how long is the ‘RUNNING' indication displayed after engine reaches idle?. 30s. 20s. 10s.

During flight, the ‘RADIO TRANSMIT' EICAS advisory message appears. What has happened?. any Mic-PTT switch is keyed for more than 30 seconds. one of t he Microphones have felid. The system has detected any fail in any of Audio Control Panel (ACP).

Which ACP is prohibited to be used for SATCOM communications?. Use of the captains or first officer ACP to establish a SATCOM/cabin conference is prohibited. captains ACP to establish a SATCOM/cabin conference is prohibited. central ACP to establish a SATCOM/cabin conference is prohibited.

In the unlikely event that all three FMCs fail, or if all of the large displays fail, how the left ILS can be tuned on?. There will be no way to select the ILS Frq. can be tuned from ALTN NAV RADIO page 2/2 on the TCP. Automatically select the ILS frequency.

There are two CCDs located on the control stand that control cursor position and operation. Each CCD cursor location switch controls its respective _______________ unit as selected. Side, Inboard, and Lower Center displays. Inboard display unit, Lower display unit, and EFB.

Due to the unique shape of the 787 composite wing, fuel quantity indications can fluctuate significantly during high pitch maneuvers, such as takeoff and go-around, especially at low fuel loads ?. True. False.

The DC–powered fuel pump. It has no controls or indicators, other than the fuel synoptic display. The DC pump operates automatically to provide fuel to the APU when AC power is not available and the APU selector is ON. This fuel pump is located in?. the left main tank. the center tank. the right main tank.

Which of the following statements are correct concerning the evacuation signal system when the flight deck EVAC COMMAND switch is in the ON position?. EVAC COMMAND EICAS warning is displayed on the flight deck. EVAC lights flash at the designated flight attendant switch panels. An audio horn sounds over the cabin PA system. All of the above are correct.

The data mode can be selected and deselected by pushing the frequency transfer switch when the word DATA is displayed on the active radio line. When a VHF radio is in the data mode, it is not available for voice communications. If the VHF radio is in the voice communications mode and the DATA mode is desired on that radio TCP, how is DATA selected?. Push the frequency transfer switch. Step through the list of standby frequencies until DATA appears select it to STBY, then push the frequency transfer switch. Request a DATA frequency through Data Link, type it into the scratch pad and select it to the Active frequency line.

In-Flight start envelope information is displayed in magenta on the EICAS display when the respective engine fire switch is in and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF, or The engine N2 RPM is below idle. Which of the following statements is true regarding the in-flight envelope depicted on the EICAS display?. The in-flight envelope indicates the airspeed range necessary to ensure an in-flight start at the current flight level. The in-flight envelope indicates the airspeed range for a windmilling in-flight start at the current flight level or maximum flight level (whichever is less).

In the event of a single FMC failure: The scratchpad message SINGLE FMC L or SINGLE FMC R displays after loss of a single FMC. The EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE displays. Crew action is not necessary to change to a single FMC operation. LNAV and VNAV, if active, remain active and all flight plan and performance data is retained. At powerup, the three FMCs are designated as master, spare and backup. All Flight Management computing tasks are accomplished by the master (active) FMC. The spare (standby) FMC automatically becomes active and assumes all FMC functionality in the event the master FMC fails. The backup FMC then assumes the role of the spare FMC. This transition occurs automatically and is not apparent to the crew. No crew action is necessary. LNAV and VNAV, if active, remain active and all flight plan and performance data is retained.

Which of the following is a true description of the Cross track Error (XTK ERROR) depiction on Progress Page 4?. Displays present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course. L or R indicates left or right of course. Blank if error is greater than 99 NM. Displays present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course. L or R indicates left or right of course. Errors in excess of 99.99 nm display as 99.99 nm.

When ALTN is manually selected on an EEC mode switch, that engine is switched to the hard alternate mode. The switch is ALTN and the EEC mode is ALTN. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct concerning hard alternate mode?. Reference and target N1 values are displayed on the N1 indicator. Commanded N1 values are not displayed on the N1 indicator. Red line limit is displayed on the N1 indicator. Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode is indicated by the EICAS advisory message ENG EEC MODE (L, R).

During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for which of the following?. No N1 rotation (locked rotor). Insufficient starter power. Insufficient air pressure for starter rotation. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

The alternate pitch trim is controlled by the dual pitch trim switches located on the control stand next to the parking brake lever. They are spring loaded to neutral. When both switches are pushed they: Directly move the stabilizer on the ground. Change the trim reference speed in the normal mode in the air. Directly move the stabilizer in the secondary and direct modes in the air. All of the above are correct.

Cruise flaps is an automated function that improves the airplane's cruise performance by symmetrically moving the flaps, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers. Cruise flaps optimizes performance in cruise by varying the camber of the wing and thus reducing drag. How does the pilot know if the system fails with flaps in an increased drag condition?. The MASTER CAUTION system is activated. An EICAS CAUTION advisory is displayed. An advisory message CRUISE FLAPS SYS is displayed.

Does the gust suppression system provide rudder pedal or control wheel, feedback to the pilot?. Only in Normal Mode. Only in Normal and secondary Mode. The gust suppression system don`t provide feedback for the flights controls. Only the to the pedals.

The Vertical Situation Display (VSD) presents a profile view of the airplane and its environment. Information shown within the cyan dashed lines (enroute corridor) on the Navigation Display (ND) is shown in profile on the VSD. Which of the following is true about the VSD?. The VSD is automatically selected on whenever the map is selected on the ND. Track mode is the default mode of operation and a route mode is also available. Range is displayed in nautical miles. The altitude reference scale displays altitude in reference to the vertical position of the airplane symbol, terrain, and other objects in the VSD background display. Both b and c are correct. All of the above are correct.

Cruise flaps is an automated function that improves the airplane's cruise performance by symmetrically moving the flaps, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers based on airplane parameters such as weight, airspeed and altitude. Cruise flaps optimizes performance in cruise by varying the camber of the wing and thus reducing drag. The cruise flaps are only available in the NORMAL flight control mode, above of______. 25,000 Ft, and between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach. 30,000 Ft and below of 0.85 Mach. from 10,000 Ft until 43,000 Ft at any speed. Above 20,000 Ft, and above 300/.80 M.

The instrument source switches allow the pilot to reconfigure display units in the event of a failure that is not detected by the automatic system monitors. Normally, the display system automatically reconfigures for failures without the pilot having to use these switches. The INBD DU and OUTBD DU positions of the PFD/MFD switches are: Normal switch positions. Non-normal switch positions.

The 787 HUD has two display modes, Full symbology, and De-cluttered symbology. In the de-cluttered mode, not all of the display items of the full symbology mode are available. Which of the following items is NOT true of the De-cluttered display mode of the 787 HUD?. The airspeed and altitude tapes and are not available. The Navigation Performance Scales (PFD &ANP) are not in view. The partial compass rose is not available.

The Flight Director Guidance Cue: Indicates flight director roll steering commands. Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands. Indicates flight director pitch commands.

Runway edge lines is a projection of an 8,000 foot long, 200 foot wide runway, displaying the calculated position of the actual runway. The symbol displays in the __________ mode only. The symbol is enabled at a radio altimeter altitude of 300 feet and removed at 60 feet. Full symbology mode. Decluttered symbology mode.

The airplane's angle-of-attack (AOA) limit is depicted on the HUD by the angle-of-attack limit symbol. The AOA limit symbol is displayed during: Flight with the flaps not up. When angle of attack is within five degrees of stick shaker, or the stick shaker is active. Windshear alerting with (solid) guidance cue displayed. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

The VSD depicts terrain and waypoint information that is within the enroute corridor on the ND. The VSD range is a function of the ND range and is depicted on the horizontal reference scale. The normal-display VSD has the same range as the ND except when the ND range is less than 5 NM. The full-display VSD has twice the range of the ND – from 10 NM to 2560 NM. True. False.

Incomplete Normal Checklist Alerting for EICAS message is provided to alert the crew when a critical checklist is notcompleted before the next phase of flight begins. Alert logic is provided for _____normal checklists. 4. 8. All.

The electronic flight bag is an operating system with a suite of applications designed to assist the flight crew with routine tasks, enhance security, and reduce the reliance on paper documents. The flight crew interact with the EFB using display units located in the left and right side panels. Which of the following is/are true of the operation of the EFB?. The display units operate independently of each other, but can display information from the off-side unit. The EFB can exchange data with the FMC. The EFB can send information directly to the flight deck printer or an EFB storage location. All of the above are correct.

The transponder, weather radar and alternate navigation functions may be accessed from any of the three Tuning and Control Panels (TCPs) located on the aft aisle stand. The transponder additionally uses the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP). Which of the following is NOT true about transponder function?. Power to the left and right transponders is controlled from the TCP SYS POWER screen. The left TCP can control both left and right side transponders. The Alerting and Transponder Control Panel serves as the primary means for setting transponder modes and for sending an IDENT to ATC.

Which of the following is true of the weather radar display when the WX+T (turbulence) prompt is selected on Weather Radar page ó on the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP)?. Displays weather radar returns and turbulence. The turbulence display is available with display ranges of 40 miles or less. Displays weather returns and turbulence within precipitation at calibrated gain level. Turbulence within 40 nm is displayed at all display ranges.

Which of the following conditions accurately describes the display of ADF bearings in the 787?. Left and right ADF bearings display on the ND when the related VOR/ADF switch is in the ADF position. ADF data is cyan. Left and right ADF bearings are automatically displayed on the PFD mini-map when manually tuned through the CDU. ADF data is cyan. Both a and b are correct.

In flight, the FMC position is continually updated from the: GPS, navigation radios and ADIRU. GPS, navigation radios and IRS. GPS and IRS.

Which of the following is true regarding fuel imbalance indications with the fuel imbalance pointer on the Boeing 787?. A solid white fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if main tank fuel differs more than 1,000 lbs. A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed. Both a and b are correct.

If only one brace on a main landing gear is locked (either drag or side brace not locked) after the normal transit time, which of the following EICAS messages are displayed?. MAIN GEAR BRACE L or R is displayed for the affected gear. MAIN GEAR DRAG BRACE L, R or MAIN GEAR SIDE BRACE L, R is displayed for the affected gear.

When fuel jettison is complete, the jettison system automatically________. close the main tank defuel/isolation valves and the center tank jettison isolation valves. turns off the main tank jettison pumps and closes the center tank jettison isolation valves.

Pushing the Ground Proximity Gear Override (GEAR OVRD): Inhibits CONFIG GEAR alert and displays the EICAS message GPWS GEAR OVRD. Inhibits TOO LOW GEAR alert, CONFIG GEAR warning message, EICAS GPWS GEAR OVRD displayed, EICAS advisory message GND PROX SYS is displayed (when airspeed is greater than 290 knots for more than 60 seconds), and it resets automatically after landing 10 minutes after the cabin door is opened. Inhibits TOO LOW GEAR alert and CONFIG GEAR warning message. Aurals, Master WARNING/CAUTION Switches and Lights.

The AURAL CANCEL switch located on the ATP can be used to inhibit: False all aural alerts. cancels the active aural alert while the condition causing the alert remains active. Nuisance aural alerts.

TAMS is displayed on the speed tape to provide pilots with situational awareness of the minimum control speed for operation with a large thrust asymmetry. This speed will always be at least 10 knots above minimum control speed during takeoff or go around. When airspeed decreases to TAMS: The AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED aural sounds & Master WARNING light illuminates. The Master CAUTION light illuminates and the AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED aural sounds. The AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED aural sounds & both the master WARNING and CAUTION lights illuminate.

Alerts Displayed on the PFD FCOM 15.10.7 Time critical alerts are displayed on the PFD. Which of the following PFD alerts is unique to the 787?. PULL UP. SPEEDBRAKE. WINDSHEAR.