87 B

The Maximum operating altitude of the 787 is?. 42,100 feet pressure altitude. 43,100 feet pressure altitude. 43,300 feet pressure altitude. 42,000 feet pressure altitude.

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below____ feet AGL. 50. 100. 200. Must be engaged until landing.

If the glidepath angle for approach is greater than 3.77° degrees, the autopilot must be disengaged no later than ___ feet below the DA(H)/MDA. 50. 100. 200. Do not use the Autopilot.

The maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the 787 is?. 8,000 feet pressure altitude. 8,800 feet pressure altitude. 8,400 feet pressure altitude. 14,000 feet pressure altitude.

Maximum wind component speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations: Headwind: 25 kts Tailwind: 15 Kts Crosswind: 25 Kts. Headwind: 20 kts Tailwind: 10 kts Crosswind: 15 Kts. Headwind: 15 kts Tailwind: 10 kts Crosswind: 25 kts. Headwind: 33 kts Tailwind: 15 kts Crosswind: 25 kts.

Takeoff Maximum wind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on takeoff operations: Headwind: 15 knots Tailwind: 10 knots Crosswind: 20 knots. Headwind: 25 knots Tailwind: 15 knots Crosswind: 20 knots. Headwind: 25 knots Tailwind: 10 knots Crosswind: 15 knots. Headwind: 33 knots Tailwind: 15 knots Crosswind: 25 knots.

The maximum demonstrated crosswind component reported wind at 32.8 feet (10 meter) height. Is for TO______ and for Land ______This component is not considered to be limiting on a dry runway with all engines operating. TO 40, LDG 37. TO 35, LDG 33.

The maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing is?. .08 psi. .11 psi. .25 psi. .50 psi.

The correct runway slope limits for the 787 are?. +/-2 percent. +2-1 percent. +3/-2 percent. -1+2 percent.

What is the minimum width of pavement needed for 180 degree turn?. 42.2 Mts. 43.8 Mts. 40.5 Mts.

To ensure obstacle clearance while taxiing in a turn. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required by the wingtip?. 11 feet (3.9 m). 14 feet (4.3m). 15 feet (4.6 m).

Tail Strike Pitch Attitude (degrees) for 787-8 is?. 12.0. 12.3. 11.2.

How long the IRS selector must be paced in OFF for alignment?. 45 seconds. 10 seconds. 30 seconds. 60 seconds.

The maximum Glide Slope angle for automatic landing: 3.77° degrees. 2.5° degrees. 3.25° degrees.

The altitude show on the CRZ page that accounts for forecast winds and temperatures aloft along the flight plan route is?. OPT ALT. MAX ALT. REC ALT.

Turbulent air penetration speed (severe turbulence) for the 787 is defined as: 280 knots below 25,000 feet 290 KIAS/.80 Mach above 25,000 feet. 310 knots below 25,000 feet 280 KIAS/.84 Mach above 25,000 feet. 290 knots below 25,000 feet 310 KIAS/.84 Mach above 25,000 feet.

The maximum differential pressure (relief valves) for the 787 is?. 7.9 psi. 9.9 psi. 9.6 psi. 8.1 psi.

Prior to takeoff the maximum allowable difference between Captain's or First Officer's altitude display and field elevation is ?. 200 ft. 75 ft. 100 ft. Check table.

For engine start the Oil temperature must be greater than ?. -25. -32. -15. -40.

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited within?. 25 NM. 40 NM. 15 NM. 22.5 NM.

The flight deck overhead door is used for emergency egress using the installed descent devices. The door can only be opened?. on the ground with the airplane depressurized and open inside the flight deck. if the flight with the airplane depressurized open inside the flight deck. only for evacuation and opens to outside of the flight deck. in ground or flight with the airplane depressurized and open inside the flight deck .

The humidification system operates automatically during cruise when the HUMID switch is on and is automatically switched off approximately in?. 1 ½ Hrs Prior to touch down. 20 min Prior to touch down. 30 min Prior to touch down.

Entry and cargo door open wind limit is: 55 knots. 65 knots. 40 knots. 30 knots.

Loss of all displays is an indication of the failure of what system?. CCR fault. Fault of L1, L2 Generator. Lost of L1 & R2 AC Bus. Complete electrical failure.

If only the battery power is selected ON for airplane start-up, which CCR powers up?. the left CCR always starts-up first. the Right CCR starts-up first. both CCR start-up at the same time.

The passenger cabin oxygen system is supplied by gaseous oxygen stored in small high pressure cylinders. The passenger oxygen masks automatically drop from the passenger service units (PSUs) prior to the cabin altitude reaching the greater of: 14.500 ft. The origin airfield altitude +1500 feet or destination airfield +1500 feet. 15,000 feet. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

The main battery provides power for: • airplane power-up • APU start (assists APU battery) • refueling operations • towing operations • electric braking (as a backup power source) • captain's flight instruments (after a power failure, energizes essential instruments until RAT deployment). True. False.

The cargo fire protection has 7 bottles. Which statement below describes the system operation?. In flight, a cargo fire causes all 7 bottles automatically discharge simultaneously. On the ground , a cargo fire causes three of the 7 bottles to automatically discharge. In flight a cargo fire causes two bottles to automatically discharge, the remaining 5 bottles discharge, at a reduced rate after 15 minute delay.

Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine and wing anti-ice operations. True. False.

Which answer below is correct pertaining to Anti –Ice operation on the 787 ?. Engine anti-ice must be in auto on the ground or in flight if icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is below -40 C OAT. During ground operations in icing conditions when the OAT is 3 degrees C or below, the engine must be run up momentarily to a minimum of 70% N1 at intervals not to exceed 60 minutes. Do not use anti-ice if the OAT or TAT exceeds 10° degrees Celsius. Wing anti-ice can be turned on and used after engine start during taxi.

The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) provides liquid cooling to the high voltage direct current (DC) equipment in the aft E&E equipment compartment and provides liquid cooling to the supplemental cooling units and associated motor controllers of the Integrated Cooling System . Which of the following statements below is/are NOT correct regarding the PECS?. There is a single loop with two fully redundant pumps on each loop. The system operation is completely automated and no crew action is required for either normal or non-normal modes of operation. Liquid quantities and status for each liquid cooling loop are displayed on the STATUS page.

For certain internal malfunctions, pack control automatically uses standby cooling mode as a backup to normal mode. the EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L, R). STBY COOLING is displayed in amber on the AIR synoptic. In standby cooling mode, pack cooling capacity may be less than in normal mode and may result in warm flight deck or cabin temperatures at lower altitudes. All Above are correct.

The Integrated Cooling System (ICS) is a centralized refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling recirculated cabin air. There is no flight deck control for the ICS. True. False.

What is the maximum steering angle when using the tillers?. 90. 80. 70. 75.

What is the maximum steering angle when using the rudders?. 5. 7. 8. 10.

The Pitch Trim Switches, in the Control Wheel and Column are spring-loaded to neutral. When push both switches on ground. What's happen with the system.?. Directly moves the stabilizer. Changes the trim for reference airspeed. Do not operate in ground.

In the secondary mode, how are the slats and flaps controlled and extended?. Controlled separately and positioned electrically. Controlled separately and positioned either by Hydraulic or Electric motors.

Which statement is NOT correct with respect to the flight controls?. Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below Design Maneuvering Speed (VA). Takeoff is permitted only in the normal or secondary mode. Do not extend flaps above 20,000 feet.

Airplane roll control is different in the secondary and direct flight control modes. The flight control system continues to receive and process pilot control inputs, however, it now uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands . True. False.

What is the maximum localizer intercept angle?. 80. 110. 120. 140.

If the auto throttle is engaged, the thrust lever begins to reduce toward idle at _______ ft during flare. 10. 25. 30.

What is the range of the V/S selector?. V/S -8000 to +6000 FT FPA-9.9 to +9.9. V/S -6000 to +6000 FT FPA-8.0 to +8.0. V/S -9000 to +4000 FT FPA-9.9 to +9.9.

The Autodrag function operates by extending the ailerons and the two most outboard spoilers, while maintaining airspeed, to help facilitate glidepath capture when the airplan is above the vertical path. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the operation of the Autodrag function?. Autodrag is only available in the Normal and Secondary modes and is active during automatic and manual approaches. Autodrag functions only in approach configuration: flaps 25 or 30 and the thrust levers are in idle. Autodrag surface deflection is removed below 1,000 feet above ground level so flare and touchdown are not affected. Both a and b are correct. All of the above are correct.

On the PFD the lateral deviation scale appears on the bottom of the display and the vertical deviation scale appears on the right side of the display. On the lateral and vertical scales, the outer white lines represent RNP and the center white lines represent aircraft position. Which of the following statements accurately describe information displayed on the PFD deviation scales?. The bars represent ANP and the bars on the vertical scale display only during FMC descent phase of flight. The area between the bars indicates the margin available to remain within RNP criteria. If ANP is equal to or exceeds RNP the bars and scale turn amber after 10 seconds and the NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message is displayed. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

The top of descent (T/D) is the point where the cruise phase changes to the descent phase. It displays on the ND as a green circle with the label T/D. The descent path starts at the T/D and includes waypoint altitude constraints. The path to the first constraint is based on: Idle thrust, speedbrakes retracted, FMC cruise wind, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed. Idle thrust, speedbrakes extended, FMC cruise wind, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed. Off-idle thrust, speedbrakes retracted, FMC cruise wind, applicable target speed, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, and the predicted use of anti-ice.

The EFIS control panels control display options, mode, and range for the respective PFDs and NDs. If an EFIS control panel fails: The displays can be controlled through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page. The backup EFIS capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel. The displays can be controlled through the related CDU. This CDU capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel.

What is the difference between THR and THR REF references?. THR – Autothrottle applies thrust to maintain the climb/descent rate required by the pitch mode THR REF – Thrust set to the reference thrust limit displayed on EICAS. THR – Autothrottle applies thrust to maintain the normal thrust THR REF – Thrust set to the reference thrust limit displayed on EICAS. THR – Autothrottle applies Maximun thrust to maintain present speed. THR REF – Thrust set to the reference thrust limit displayed on EICAS to GA.

The upper line displays speed selected by the IAS/MACH selector and lower line displays uplinked ATC clearance. During climb the selected speed automatically changes from IAS to MACH at ____ Mach and during descent it automatically changes from MACH to IAS at ______ KIAS. 82/280. 83/300. 84/310.

With BULK CARGO TEMP Switch in AUTO – bulk cargo heat system targeting ___° C. ?. 21. 16. 24. From 18 to 30.