A330 COMPLETO

1. How can the avionics ventilation system be manually overridden?. From the VENTILATION panel. From the CONTROL panel. From the OVERRIDE switch. From the MONITOR panel.

2. Which component controls and monitors the avionics ventilation system?. Cooling Pack Controller. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC). RAM Air Inlet System. Air Conditioning Pack.

3. When does the avionics equipment ventilation system operate?. Continuously with electrical power. Only during flight. Only on the ground. Only when overheat occurs.

4. How is cabin pressurization controlled automatically?. By Residual Pressure Control Unit. By Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs). By Avionics Equipment Ventilation. By RAM Air Inlet System.

5. What is the function of the Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) when the aircraft is on the ground?. Forces outflow valves to fully close. Controls the cabin temperature. Forces outflow valves to fully open. Monitors the ventilation system.

6. What prevents excessive positive or negative differential pressure in the aircraft?. Three safety valves at rear pressure bulkhead. Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPCs). 02 Residual Pressure Control Valve. Two safety valves at rear pressure bulkhead.

7. How should switches be set to the "ON" position to avoid injury?-. Using a screwdriver. Using a stick. Using fingers. Using a wrench.

8. Which areas are connected to the cabin air supply riser ducts for the crew rest compartments?. Areas 1 and 2. Areas 3 and 4. Areas 5 and 6. Areas 7 and 8.

9. How are the Flow Control Valves (FCVs) operated under normal conditions?. Electrically and hydraulically operated. Manually controlled and pneumatically operated. Automatically controlled. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.

10. What indicates a valve position disagreement on the AIR panel?. ALERT light on the overhead panel switch. FAULT light on the PACK P/BSW. CAUTION light on the cabin control panel. WARNING light on the FCV.

11. How does the Temperature Control Valve (TCV) modulate the pack discharge temperature?. By adjusting the ram air system. By adding hot air to the ACM outlet. By adding cold air to the ACM outlet. By controlling the pack flow rate.

12. How is cooling achieved in the event of an Air Cycle Machine (ACM) failure?. By using the Crew Rest Compartment ventilation system. By using backup air conditioning packs. By using the Flow Control Valves (FCV) and Trim Air System. By using the heat exchangers and ram air modulation.

13. What determines the pack temperature demand calculatiON?. The lowest temperature demand. The highest temperature demand. The average temperature demand. he median temperature demand.

14. Which controller manages the air recirculation system?. Pack Controller (PC). Ventilation Controller (VC). Zone Controller (ZC). Temperature Control Valve (TCV).

15. How can the air recirculation system be manually shut off?. From the OVHD COND P/BSW. From the AIR panel. From the CAB FANS P/BSW. From the MAINT panel.

16. What happens to the recirculation valves when both packs are off?. They remain open. They close. They partially close. They are manually controlled.

17. Where is the fan status displayed?. On the ECAM CAB PRESS page. On t.he ECAM COND page. On the ECAM AIR page. On the ECAM BLEED page.

18. Where is a fan overheat condition displayed?. On the ECAM COND page. On the ECAM BLEED page. On the OVerHeaT COND FANS RESET P/BSW. On the MAINT panel.

19. What ensures permanent monitoring of the cooling capacity of the blowing airflow?. Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs). Cooling Effect Detector (CED). Zone Controller (ZC). Temperature Control Valve (TCV).

20. How are the batteries ventilated?. By an open circuit. By the recirculation fans. By an independent sealed circuit. By the main blowing system.

21. Where is the emergency ram air inlet flap located on the aircraft?. On the upper fuselage. On the lower left-hand belly fairing of the fuselage. On the lower right-hand belly fairing of the fuselage. Near the landing gear.

22. What happens to the outflow valves when the emergency ram air inlet flap is closed?. They remain fully open. They remain half open. They close as necessary to maintain cabin pressurization. They open fully.

23. In what situation does the VC shut down the extraction fan?. During fan overheat condition. In case of an emergency configuration. During fan failure. During normal flight operations.

24. When can either AP be engaged after lift-off?. Immediately. 2 seconds after lift-off. 5 seconds after lift-off. 10 seconds after lift-off.

25. How many autopilots can be engaged at a time?. One. Four. Three. Two.

26. What does the Flight Envelope function mainly consist of?. Speed envelope computation and detection of abnormal flight conditions. Acquisition of aircraft parameters and monitoring. Speed envelope computation and detection of normal flight conditions. Determination of aircraft configuration.

27. How does the Flight Envelope function acquire the alphafloor detection signal?. From the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) computers. From the Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs). From the Flight Control Primary Computers (FCPCs). From the Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs).

How many functions does the Flight Guidance (FG) portion perform?. Two. Five. Four. Three.

29. What are the functions performed by the Flight Guidance (FG) portion?. Autopilot (AP), Flight Director (FD), Automatic Landing (AL). Autopilot (AP), Flight Director (FD), Autothrust (A/THR). Autopilot (AP), Flight Director (FD), Autothrottle (A/THR). Autopilot (AP), Flight Director (FD), Autopilot (A/P).

What do the control laws associated with the Flight Guidance (FG) functions provide?. AP guidance orders, FD orders, and a thrust command. AP engagement logics, FD operational mode logics, and A/THR control laws. Autopilot actuator commands, Flight Director engagement logics, and Autothrust control laws. AP control loops, FD operational mode logics, and thrust commands.

31. What does the Flight Director (FD) function do when the autopilot is not engaged?. Controls the aircraft's flight path autonomously. Displays the aircraft's current speed and altitude. Monitors the aircraft's systems and alerts the pilot of any anomalies. Displays guidance orders for the pilot to follow the optimum flight path.

32. What is the function of the autothrust (A/THR) function?. Manages the aircraft's altitude and heading. Sends computed thrust commands to the FADEC for automatic engine control. Controls the aircraft's power during flight. Adjusts the aircraft's fuel mixture for optimal performance.

33. When is the Flight Director (FD) automatically engaged?. At FMGEC power-up and when the 3 dedicated FCU P/Bs are lit. When the autopilot is engaged. At FMGEC power-up and when the 2 dedicated FCU P/Bs are lit. Only during approach.

34. How is autopilot engagement typically initiated?. Manually through 2 dedicated FCU P/Bs. Automatically when the aircraft reaches cruising altitude. Manually through 3 dedicated FCU P/Bs. Manually through side stick P/B.

35.Under what conditions does the autopilot disengage automatically?. When the aircraft is below 10,000 feet altitude. In case of failure detection or protection activation. When the throttle control levers are positioned above the MCT position. When the aircraft reaches the maximum cruising altitude.

36. How can the autopilot be disengaged manually?. Only through the side sticks and the associated FCU P/B. Only through the rudder pedals. Through the associated FCU P/B, side sticks, or rudder pedals. Only through the associated FCU P/B.

How is autothrust engagement done?. Manually through a dedicated FCU P/B. Automatically during take-off or landing phases, or when alpha floor protection is activated. Automatically during descent or approach phases, or when alpha floor protection is activated. Automatically during take-off or go around phases, or when alpha floor protection is activated.

What happens when the autothrust is engaged but not active?. The thrust control is automatic, and the thrust is commanded according to the aircraft's altitude. The thrust control is manual, and the thrust is commanded according to the position of the thrust levers. The thrust control is manual, and the thrust is commanded according to the aircraft speed. The thrust control is automatic, and the thrust is commanded according to the autothrust computed thrust target.

What happens to the landing capability if both autopilot and flight director are engaged for both FMGECs?. The landing capability corresponds to the lowest category sent by the FMGECs. The landing capability corresponds to the highest category sent by the FMGECs. The landing capability corresponds to the average category sent by the FMGECs. The landing capability corresponds to the sum of the categories sent by the FMGECs.

How is the speed reference computed when the FCU knob is pushed in?. The speed reference is computed as "selected speed" by the Flight Guidance (FG) functional part. The speed reference is computed as "managed speed" by the Flight Guidance (FG) functional part. The speed reference is computed as "managed speed" by the Flight Management (FM) functional part. The speed reference is computed as "selected speed" by the Flight Management (FM) functional part.

How is the speed reference computed when the FCU knob is pushed in?. The speed reference is computed as "managed speed" by the Flight Management (FM) functional part. The speed reference is computed as "selected speed" by the Flight Management (FM) functional part. The speed reference is computed as "managed speed" by the Flight Guidance (FG) functional part. The speed reference is computed as "selected speed" by the Flight Guidance (FG) functional part.

If one FMGEC fails, how are the Flight Director (FD) symbols displayed on the Primary Flight Displays (PFDs)?. The FD symbols are not displayed on either PFD. The remaining FMGEC drives the FD symbols on both PFDs. The FD symbols are displayed on both PFDs, but with different indications. The FD symbols are displayed only on the Captain (CAPT) side PFD.

If one FMGEC fails, how are the Flight Director (FD) symbols displayed on the Primary Flight Displays (PFDs)?. The FD symbols are not displayed on either PFD. The FD symbols are displayed on both PFDs, but with different indications. The FD symbols are displayed only on the Captain (CAPT) side PFD. The remaining FMGEC drives the FD symbols on both PFDs.

How does the autopilot (AP) operation function in single operation?. There is no priority logic; the last engaged AP is the active one. The master AP imposes all changes of AP/FD modes and/or A/THR engagement to the slave AP. The AP operation follows a predefined priority logic based on the flight phase. Both APs engage simultaneously regardless of the flight phase.

How often is the navigation database updated, and by whom?. Every 30 days by the manufacturer. Every 28 days by the airline. Every 28 days by the manufacturer. Every 30 days by the airline.

Which component enables the Flight Management (FM) part to construct the vertical flight plan?. The navigation database. The Inertial Reference System (IRS). The performance database. The Flight Control Primary Computers (FCPCs).

What is the purpose of the FM power-up test?. To initiate automatic tests on the FCU channels concerned (B/power supply 1, C/power supply 2) to confirm system availability. To ensure the FD function is available after a power cut-off longer than 5 seconds. To return the FCU to a neutral configuration and engage the FD when the Inertial Reference (IR) system providing the position has been correctly initialized. To confirm system availability and verifies minimum FM hardware integrity and proper initialization. The total execution time of this test is less than 2 seconds.

How is the success of the FCU internal tests indicated?. The flashing of AP1, AP2, and A/THR P/Bs. The lighting up of the FD P/B lights. The flashing of the FD P/B lights. The flashing of the FD P/B lights and the AP1, AP2, and A/THR P/Bs.

Which component serves as the digital tuning head for communications transceivers?. Audio Control Panel (ACP). Radio Management Panel (RMP). Audio Management Unit (AMU).

How is flight interphone transmission enabled?. Pressing the MECHanic P/B. Selecting the INT/RAD switch. Pushing the INTerphone transmission key. Turning the RAD position.

What does selecting the INT position on the INT/RAD switch do?. Connects the pre-selected channel to transmit. Turns ON the green bars. Turns off the green bars. Allows permanent use of the flight interphone.

What happens when the RAD position is selected on the INT/RAD switch?. Connects the pre-selected channel to transmit. Allows permanent use of the flight interphone. Springs back to the center position. Turns off the green bars.

How can the service interphone be restored if lost during maintenance tasks on the ground?. By disconnecting the external power contactor. By switching the SerViCE INTerphone OVeRriDe P/BSW to 'ON'. By selecting the CAB INT transmission key on the ACP. By pressing the MECHanic P/B.

How can the service interphone be restored if lost during maintenance tasks on the ground?. By switching the SerViCE INTerphone OVeRriDe P/BSW to 'ON'. By pressing the MECHanic P/B. By selecting the CAB INT transmission key on the ACP. By disconnecting the external power contactor.

Why is it recommended to use the VHF 1 system on the ground for line of sight transmission?. Because it has the best signal quality. Because it has the longest range. Because it is the newest system. Because the VHF 1 antenna is installed above the cockpit.

Which RMPs are directly connected to all the HF and VHF radio transceivers?. RMP 1 and RMP 2. RMP 2 and RMP 3. RMP 1 and RMP 3. RMP 1, RMP 2, and RMP 3.

What is the purpose of RMP 3 in the communication architecture?. Dedicated to VDR 2. Dedicated to controlling radio navigation systems in back-up mode. Dedicated to VDR 3 and the two HF Data Radio transceivers, HFDR 1 and HFDR 2.

How many High Frequency Data Radio (HFDR) transceivers are part of the HF system?. Four. Two. One. Three.

What component provides impedance matching between the HF shunt-type antenna and the transceiver?. HF shunt-type antenna. Radio Management Panels (RMPs). HFDR coupler. Audio Management Unit (AMU).

What is the purpose of the HF system?. Short-distance voice communications. Long-distance voice communications. Data transmission. Ground surveillance.

What type of antennae is used in the VHF system?. Blade antennae. Dipole antennae. Parabolic antennae. Yagi antennae.

What is the function of the VHF system?. Long-distance voice communications. Short-distance voice communications. Data transmission. Ground surveillance.

How many VHF Data Radio (VDR) transceivers are included in the basic version of the VHF system?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What type of BITE system is the VDR transceiver?. Type 1. Type 2. Type 3. Type 4.

How do the Directors communicate their operational status to each other?. Through Ethernet. Through ARINC 429 buses. Through discrete signals. Through FAP.

In normal operation, what is the status of Director 2?. Active. Hot Standby. Disabled. Standby.

What is the purpose of the PED POWER switch on the hard key panel?. To control lavatory lights. To switch off the main cabin lights. To reset the evacuation lights. To control Portable Electronic Device power.

What does the ARMED/ON switch on the remote control panel do?. Controls cabin lighting. Arms the ELT for operation. Initiates a distress signal. Resets the ELT system.

How many frequencies does the ELT system transmit on?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What type of memories does the SSCVR use for recording?. Magnetic memories. Optical memories. Solid state memories. Mechanical memories.

What is the purpose of the logic relays A/C wiring system?. Record crew conversations. Filter and pre-amplify audio signals. Control and monitor the SSCVR. Provide power supply for the SSCVR.

What is the main source of supply for the AC ESS BUS in normal configuration?. APU generator. External power. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2.

Which component automatically supplies the AC ESSential BUS if no other AC sources or EMER GEN are available?. STAT INV. GLC. APU generator. External power.

How is the DC BAT BUS normally supplied?. From DC BUS 1. From DC BUS 2. From AC BUS 1. From AC BUS 2.

What supplies power to the DC ESS BUS in normal conditions?. ESS TR. TR 1. TR 2. AC BUS 2.

What supplies power to the DC ESS BUS with the loss of AC BUS 1?. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. ESS TR. DC BUS 1.

Which batteries supply power to the aircraft BAT HOT BUSES?. BAT 1 and 2. APU BAT. DC BUS 1. DC BUS 2.

What does the APU GEN supply when it is available and the APU is started?. Left side. Right side. Both sides. Neither side.

When does the No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) function operate?. On ground only. In flight only. Both on ground and in flight. During engine shutdown only.

What does the NBPT function prevent on the aircraft electrical network?. Power transients. Voltage spikes. Overload. Short circuits.

How long does the start sequence of the EMER GEN (or CSM/G) take?. Approximately 7 to 10 seconds. Approximately 5 to 7 seconds. Approximately 10 to 15 seconds. Approximately 15 to 20 seconds.

What supplies the AC ESS BUS and the DC ESS BUS during the start sequence of the EMER GEN?. Aircraft batteries. APU. Engine generators. External power.

How long does the EMER GEN supply the AC and DC ESS buses?. Until the end of the flight. For 30 minutes. For 1 hour. Until it is manually turned off.

How are the DC ESS BUS and the AC ESS BUS supplied when batteries are the only power source in flight?. Via STAT INV. Via AC BUS 1. Via DC BUS 1. Via DC BAT BUS.

Which buses are shed to reduce the load on the aircraft batteries when they are the sole power source in flight?. AC ESS SHED and DC ESS SHED. AC MAIN BUS and DC MAIN BUS. DC BAT BUS and AC ESS BUS. DC ESS BUS and DC BUS 2.

What buses are supplied by the aircraft batteries when they are the only source of power on the ground?. DC BAT BUS and AC ESS BUS. DC MAIN BUS and AC ESS BUS. DC ESS BUS and DC BUS 2. DC BAT BUS and DC ESS BUS.

What units control, monitor, and protect the engine IDGs?. Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU). Generator Control Units (GCUs). Electrical Contactor Management Units (ECMUs). Constant Speed Motor/Generator GCU (CSM/G GCU).

Which unit serves as an interface for the GCUs BITE and the Central Maintenance System (CMS)?. Electrical Contactor Management Units (ECMUs). Constant Speed Motor/Generator GCU (CSM/G GCU). Battery Charge Limiter (BCL). Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU).

What is responsible for managing the power source priorities and enabling the reconfiguration of the main power supply sources?. Constant Speed Motor/Generator GCU (CSM/G GCU). Battery Charge Limiter (BCL). Electrical Contactor Management Units (ECMUs). Generator Control Units (GCUs).

Which unit is responsible for monitoring the status of the circuit breakers (C/Bs)?. Circuit Breaker Monitoring Unit (CBMU). Circuit Breaker Monitoring Display Unit (CBMDU). Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU). Flight Warning Computer (FWC).

What can be controlled and monitored via the IDG P/B on the Electrical panel?. IDG disconnection. Generator disconnection. CSD monitoring. GEN frequency regulation.

What is the function of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD) within the IDG?. Converts variable input speed. Monitors GEN voltage. Generates constant output speed. Controls GEN frequency.

Which unit controls, monitors, and protects each IDG, including its GEN and CSD?. Generator Control Unit (GCU). Generator Line Contactor (GLC). Feeder Line. Generator Line Contactor (GLC).

What is the purpose of the 6-hole Current Transformer (CT) in the feeder line?. Grounding the neutral line. Monitoring and protection. Splitting phases into feeder cables. Connecting generator to AC BUSbar.

What are the sources that can provide AC auxiliary generation?. APU generator. APU generator, External Power Receptacles (EXT PWR A and B). GPU, APU generator. AGLC.

What does the AC emergency generation system do in case of loss of AC main buses?. Restores power supply to AC and DC ESSential network. Activates Ess TR,s. Initiates automatic engine shutdown. Starts the APU generator.

What is the function of the Electrical Contactor Management System (ECMS), and which units control its operations?. Control and manage electrical network contactors. Monitors Circuit Breakers. Manage engine performance. Control electrical network buses.

How many Transformer Rectifiers (TRs) are involved in the DC main and ESSential generation, and what is their function?. Four TRs; convert AC to DC. Two TRs; supply power to AC buses. Six TRs; regulate engine performance. Eight TRs; monitor flight control systems.

Which AC buses supply power to TR1 and TR2, and which DC buses do they respectively supply?. AC BUS 1 supplies TR2; supplies DC BUS 1. AC BUS 2 supplies TR1; supplies DC BUS 2. AC BUS 2 supplies TR2; supplies DC BUS 2. AC BUS 1 supplies TR1; supplies DC BUS 1.

How many batteries are installed on board, and what is the primary purpose of each battery?. One battery; backup supply and Apu starting. Four batteries; backup supply and avionics cooling. Three batteries; 2 backup supply and APU starting. Two batteries; backup supply and engine starting.

What is the primary purpose of the cabin linings in the aircraft?. To increase the aircraft's structural integrity. To enhance cabin aesthetics. To cover up the fuselage structure and insulation. To provide extra storage space.

What components make up the rapid decompression safety system?. Rapid decompression panels and dado panels. Rapid decompression panels and air grills. Rapid decompression panels, dado panels, and air grills. Dado panels and air grills.

What type of panels make up the ceiling in the cabin along the full length of the cabin and utility areas?. Decor panels and base panels. Ceiling panels and cover plates. Moulded plastic window frames. Flat panels and curved panels.

What unique feature do dado panels, except those above the cargo compartment doors, have?. Enhanced thermal insulation. Rapid decompression safety system. Integrated soundproofing. Fire-resistant coating.

What specific role do the rapid decompression panels and dado panels play in the decompression safety system?. They control cabin temperature. They let the air flow between compartments. They provide structural support. They improve sound insulation.

What happens to the passenger compartment floor if rapid decompression occurs without a safety system?. It becomes more stable. It enhances decompression speed. It may collapse. It remains unaffected.

What is the maximum load of each galley feeder?. 10KVA. 20KVA. 15KVA. 25KVA.

What is the purpose of the thermal and acoustical insulation in the aircraft?. To control cabin humidity. To provide structural support. To insulate the pressurized area against temperature and noise. To enhance passenger comfort.

The FCRC is located in the cabin, behind the cockpit, and ahead of the _______ passenger/crew door. left FWD. right AFT. right FWD. left AFT.

The FCRC can accommodate ____ crew members, providing them with bunks for sitting or lying down. one. four. three. two.

The Lower Deck Mobile Crew Rest (LD-MCR) is installed in the front part of the _____ cargo compartment. forward. aft. mid. lower.

In the FCRC, the upper bunk can be folded to the _______ position to allow the crew to sit on the lower bunk. horizontal. vertical. diagonal. backrest.

The FCRC is equipped with a belt restraint and a _______ at each bunk for privacy and safety. curtain. shield. partition. divider.

Emergency lighting in the FCRC is controlled through the _______ lighting system. cockpit emergency. cabin emergency. main cabin. crew emergency.

Each bunk in the FCRC has a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) that includes an individual air outlet, reading light, and a _______. reading light ON/OFF switch. intercom. seat adjustment switch. call button.

The passenger service channels are located at the bottom of the OHSCs above each _______. aisle. lavatory. exit row. seat row.

If the center OHSCs are not installed, the PSIUs are installed in the _______. seat backs. overhead bins. cabin ceiling. sidewalls.

Each PSIU has two primary units: the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) and the _______. Passenger Information Unit (PIU). Passenger Instruction Unit. Passenger Safety Unit. Passenger Information System.

The PSIU interfaces with the air conditioning system, communication system, lighting system, and _______. intercom system. oxygen system. entertainment system. power supply.

The Passenger Service/Information Units (PSIUs) are installed above the seats in the passenger cabin. False. True.

If the center overhead stowage compartments (OHSCs) are not installed, the PSIUs are located in the cabin sidewalls. False. True.

The "NO SMOKING" lighted sign is a component of the Passenger Information Unit (PIU) within the PSIU. False. True.

The reading light panel is a part of the PSIU, providing passengers with individual control over their reading light. True. False.

Each PSIU contains a storage compartment for passengers to store their personal belongings during the flight. True. False.

The engine Fire Detection Unit (FDU) monitors only one detector loop for engine fire detection. False. True.

The APU fire protection system does not provide any indications for FAULT conditions. True. False.

There are two fire bottles located in the aft fuselage for extinguishing APU fires. True. False.

How does the engine Fire Detection Unit (FDU) monitor engine fire?. Infrared. Ultraviolet. Two loops. Microwave.

Where are the fire bottles located for extinguishing engine fires?. Engine pylon. Aft fuselage. Wingtip. Cockpit.

What does the APU Fire Detection Unit (FDU) monitor for detecting APU fires?. Infrared. Wingtip. Two loops. Microwave.

What indications are provided by the APU fire protection system?. Aural, visual. Audio. Tactile.

How many cavities are present in the AFT cargo compartment?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Which warning signals are triggered in the cockpit when smoke is detected in the cargo compartments?. Continuous Repetitive Chime. Continuous Repetitive Chime, MASTER WARNing, EWD fault message. FWC. FWC.

How many fire extinguisher bottles are located in the forward cargo compartment?. 1. 3. 2. 4.

Where are the fire extinguisher bottles located for extinguishing fires in the Lower Deck Cargo Compartments (LDCCs)?. Forward cargo compartment. Aft fuselage. Wingtip. Engine pylon.

How are the fire extinguisher bottles discharged from the cockpit?. APU. GPU. AGENT pushbuttons. ECU.

What triggers the warnings in the cockpit when smoke is detected in the cargo compartments?. FWC. SDCU. FCC. FMC.

How are the smoke detectors in the cargo compartments connected to the monitoring system?. Loop A and B. Loop C and D. Loop X and Y. Loop M and N.

How many fire detectors are installed on each engine?. 3. 2. 4. 1.

How is the discharge signal generated for the fire extinguisher bottles?. By the frangible disc. By the filling fitting. By the cartridge. By the pressure switch.

How is the firing mechanism of the cartridge powered?. 12 VDC. 24 VDC. 28 VDC. 36 VDC.

How many functional modules does the FDU (Fire Detection Unit) have?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What happens if both LOOP A and LOOP B are FAULTy, with the first one being FAULTy for more than 5 seconds before the other one?. MASTER WARNing light. MASTER CAUTion light. Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC). Single Chime (SC).

Where are the FIRE warning signals transmitted to in the cockpit?. MASTER WARNing light, Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC). MASTER CAUTion light, Single Chime (SC). ENGine/FIRE control panel, MASTER WARNing light. MASTER WARNing light, Single Chime (SC).

How long does the LOOP A(B) have to be faulty for a FAULT warning signal to be generated in the cockpit?. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds. 20 seconds.

What caution is given regarding the APU after an APU fire extinguishing procedure?. Attempt to restart the APU. Do not attempt to restart the APU. Initiate a manual APU shutdown. Switch off the external power panel.

What is the power supply for each channel of the SDCU?. 115 V AC. 230 V AC. 14 V DC. 28 V DC.

What function does the SDCU perform when it receives a smoke signal from the smoke detectors?. Generates warnings and indications in the cockpit and cabin. Initiates the fire extinguishing sequence. Resets the smoke detectors. Activates the fire suppression system.

What is the purpose of the discrete inputs for channel reset from panels 261 VU and 262 VU?. To generate fire warnings. To reset the smoke detectors. To monitor data from the other channel. To supply power to the SDCU components.

What components does the fly-by-wire flight control system control?. Ailerons and elevators. Rudder and flaps. Primary flight controls, secondary flight controls, and high lift function. Thrust reversers and spoilers.

What are the three different sets of control laws in the fly-by-wire system?. Normal law, mechanical law, direct law. Normal law, alternate law, manual law. Normal law, alternate law, direct law. Primary law, secondary law, tertiary law.

Which flight control computers are responsible for implementing the normal law?. FCPCs. FCSCs. FCPCs and FCSCs. FCCs and FCSCs.

What happens to the control laws in the event of a failure in the fly-by-wire system?. They remain in the normal law. They switch from normal to manual law. They automatically switch from normal to alternate or direct law. They engage the mechanical law.

How many axes does the flight control system control?. 4. 3. 2. 1.

Which control law offers the highest level of protections?. Normal law. Alternate law. Manual law. Emergency law.

When do control laws switch from normal to alternate or direct?. When there is a failure in the FCPCs. When there is a failure in the FCSCs. When there is a failure in the primary flight controls. When there is a failure in the avionics compartment.

What happens to the control laws after the loss of normal laws?. They remain unchanged. They switch to manual law. They engage the mechanical law. They automatically switch from normal to alternate or direct.

How many Flight Control Primary Computers (FCPCs) are there in total?. 2. 3. 1. 4.

What is the function of the Backup Control Module (BCM)?. Provides artificial feel to the rudder pedals and trim function. Transmits deflection orders to other computers. Controls the yaw in case of flight control computer failures. Supplies electrical power to the rudder from hydraulically driven motors.

Which component has priority in controlling the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) if both electrical and mechanical controls are available?. FCSCs. THS servo-motors. Trim wheel. BCM.

How many servo controls are there for each aileron and elevator surface in normal configuration?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What is the function of the Backup Control Module (BCM) in the flight control system?. Provides artificial feel to the rudder pedals and trim function. Transmits deflection orders to other computers. Controls the yaw in case of flight control computer failures. Supplies electrical power to the rudder from hydraulically driven motors.

How many servo controls are there for each aileron and elevator surface in normal configuration?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

What is the purpose of the solenoid valve in the elevator servo control when it is in damping mode?. To pressurize the servo control. To mechanically control the servo control in its neutral position. To energize the adjacent servocontrol. To keep the servocontrol hydraulically powered.

What are the two primary functions of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) in the Airbus A320 Family Aircraft?. Short-term pitch control and long-term pitch control. Roll control and yaw control. Longitudinal stability and lateral stability. Altitude hold and airspeed control.

Both PCU valve blocks are controlled by SFCC1 for flaps operation. False. True.

The speed mode of the motor is controlled by the brake solenoid valve. True. False.

During flaps operation, the 24 CV valve block is actuated by the green hydraulic system. True. False.

The direction of movement of the control valve spool is commanded by the two directional valves for extension and retraction during slats operation. True. False.

The comparison of signals generated by each lane ensures that the control lever position demand and the actual position data provided by the FPPU are identical. FALSE. TRUE.

The flight controls architecture consists of ____ FCPCs. 3. 2. 4.

The FCPCs, FCSCs, and BCM send failure information to ____. FCDCs. CMS. SFCCs.

The SFCCs send failure data directly to ____ for the high lift part. SFCCs. FCDCs. CMCs.

The flap load relief system retracts the flaps to the deflection corresponding to the lever position ____ the present one. above. below. equal to.

The fuel system functions include storage, venting and scavenge, engine feed, and APU feed, among others. FALSE. TRUE.

The A330-200 has six fuel tanks, including outer tanks, inner tanks divided into forward and aft sections, a center tank, and a trim tank. TRUE. FALSE.

To operate the drain valves for purging water from the fuel tanks, the THS should be moved to 0° trim and the tanks should have at least 10% tank content for the center and wing tanks and 1,000 kg for the trim tank. FALSE. TRUE.

If a drain valve leaks during the water draining process, it should be corrected by pushing down on the valve to ensure a proper seal. FALSE. TRUE.

What functions are included in the responsibilities of the fuel system?. Engine start. Cabin pressurization. Refuel/defuel. Cargo loading.

What is the purpose of the vent surge tanks installed in the fuel system?. To collect fuel split from the tanks. To pressurize the fuel lines. To store excess fuel. To maintain fuel temperature.

How is fuel imbalance between tanks corrected in the A330-200?. By adjusting engine thrust. By using booster pumps. Through the crossfeed system. By increasing fuel pressure.

What role does the LP valve play in the engine feed system?. Controls engine temperature. Regulates fuel flow. Monitors engine RPM. Manages air intake.

Why is draining the water content from fuel tanks recommended regularly?. To reduce fuel costs. To prevent fuel system problems. To increase aircraft speed. To improve cabin air quality.

When should operators ideally perform the water draining procedure?. After refueling. During flight. Every month. Prior to refueling.

How is the draining process carried out in the fuel tanks?. By using a suction device. By turning a valve. By pressing a button. By using the PURGER tool.

What is the purpose of overpressure protectors installed in the fuel tanks?. To increase pressure in the tanks. To prevent excessive pressure in the tanks. To regulate fuel flow. To control fuel temperature.

How many temperature sensors are installed in the fuel system?. 4. 6. 8. 10.

What is the purpose of temperature sensors in the fuel system?. To measure fuel quantity. To determine fuel density. To monitor fuel temperature. To adjust compensator probes.

What types of sensors are used for fuel level sensing?. Temperature sensors. Pressure sensors. Level sensors. Flow sensors.

What is the fail state of high level sensors and overflow sensors?. "DRY". "WET". "FAULT". "NORMAL".

How does the FCMC respond when both high level sensors of a fuel tank become wet?. Opens the related tank inlet valve. Closes the related tank inlet valve. Initiates jettison operation. Triggers low level warning.

Where are the low level sensors installed?. Only in the outer tanks. In each tank except the outer tanks. Only in the center tank. Only in the trim tank.

How are the fuel pumps driven?. By hydraulic pressure. By a 115 VAC motor. By pneumatic pressure. By a 28 VDC motor.

What condition do the jet pumps prevent during negative 'G' load conditions?. Fuel pump overheating. Fuel pump cavitations. Fuel pipe damage. Fuel leakage.

What is the function of the LP switches?. To monitor fuel flow. To control fuel pressure. To measure fuel temperature. To monitor output pressure.

Where are the LP valves installed?. On the wing front spar. Near the collector cell. In the engine feed line. In the trim tank.

How is the aft APU fuel feed pump powered?. Hydraulic power. 115V AC single-phase motor. 28V DC motor. Pneumatic power.

How is the valve position monitored?. By the LP valve. By the fuel pressure switch. By the FCMCs. By the APU LP shut-off valve.

Where is the APU LP shut-off valve installed?. In the fuel/air separator. In the APU compartment. In the wing center section rear spar. In the APU fuel line.

How many independent hydraulic systems are there in the aircraft?. Two. Three. Four. Five.