Test A340

In the event of failure of one pack air cycle machine: a. The pack is inoperative and should be turned off with no flight restrictions with the other pack available. b. The air is still cooled by the heat exchanger and no flight operational restrictions with the other pack available. c. Aircraft can operate with one pack and no flight operational restrictions.

The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of: a. A HOT AIR valve. b. A ZONE control valve. c. A PACK FLOW VALVE. d. A TRIM AIR valve.

When does normal pressurization occur?. a. After second engine start. b. Pressurization occurs during taxi. c. Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll. d. After rotation.

When does normal depressurization occur?. a. 100 feet AGL above touchdown. b. It is complete three minutes after touchdown. c. After flap retraction. d. On landing touchdown.

Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to LO?. a. With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and improve fuel efficiency. b. With a low passenger load to increase cabin temperature. c. With a high passenger load to reduce cabin temperature. d. In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range.

The crew can control the amount of air flow to the packs by using: a. The PACK FLOW selector. b. The COCKPIT and CABIN selectors. c. The RAM AIR pushbutton.

Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?. a. Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves. b. Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position. c. Indicates that the extract fan has stopped. d. All of the above.

Air bleed from the engines is: a. Not cooled prior to being used by the systems. b. Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from Fan section. c. Cooled using ambient air. d. Only cooled in air conditioning part.

The bleed valve is fully close electrically through the BLEED pushbutton during starting sequence. a. True. b. False.

If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails: a. All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail. b. The engine bleed is lost. c. The adjacent BMC will automatically takes over most of the monitoring functions. d. The adjacent BMC will automatically takes over all of the monitoring functions.

Which one of the following is true?. a. Three engine bleeds are enough for normal operation. b. With three engine bleeds, there are operating limitations. c. With two engine bleeds, there are no limitations.

9. Each engine bleed system is designed to: a. Select the air source compressor stage. b. Regulate bleed air pressure. c. Regulate bleed air temperature. d. All of the above.

Before the APU starter is energized: a. The APU bleed switch must be deselected. b. Both APU fuel pumps must be selected on. c. The APU air intake flap must be fully open.

The ECB (Electronic Control Box) controls the fuel flow. True. False.

When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON: a. the APU computer automatically completes a self‐test, opens the air intake flap and supplies fuel pressure. b. The APU computer automatically starts the APU. c. Connects the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system. d. The APU door opens.

. The APU MASTER SW FAULT light will illuminate: a. When APU low oil pressure is detected. b. When an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs. c. For an APU overheat or APU fire. d. If the batteries are selected OFF while the APU is operating.

The APU may be started up to what altitude?. The APU can be started at any altitude using normal aircraft electrical power. The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries. The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries. The APU can be started up to 25,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.

How long does a normal IR alignment take?. a. Approximately 3 minutes. b. Approximately 6 minutes. c. Approximately 10 minutes. d. Approximately 13 minutes.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?. a. Alignment has been completed. b. Air data output has been disconnected. c. The respective IR is operating normally.

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that: a. Present position needs to be reentered. b. Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode. c. A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost: a. Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3. b. Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3. c. Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3. d. Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

A/THR in white means that A/THR is: a. Disconnected. b. Armed. c. Active.

The Doors and Slides Control System (DSCS) consists of: a. Proximity switches installed on each door and a pressure switch. b. The Proximity Switch Control Unit (PSCU). c. An autonomous standby power supply. d. All of the above.

Each passenger door has one CABIN PRESSURE warning light that: a. Warns of residual pressure in the cabin. b. Shows a possible unlocked door. c. Both are correct.

What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?. a. It operates normally on HOT BAT bus. b. It automatically unlocks. c. It automatically locks from outside but stays unlock from inside.

The cockpit windows can be opened both from inside and outside. true. false.

What does illumination of the white slide armed light represent on the main cabin door?. a. This indicates that the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use. b. This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft. c. This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed. d. This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed but the slide is properly armed.

The minimum number of generators required to supply all the network is: a. One engine generator. b. One engine generator and the EMER generator. c. Two generators.

Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG?. a. Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more then 30 seconds. b. There is no limitations. c. Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more then 5 seconds. d. Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG disconnect push button for more then 3 seconds.

. The APU is supplying the electrical system. What is the order of priority for the different generators?. a. Engines, external power, APU. b. APU, engines, external power. c. External power, engines, APU. d. APU, external power, engines.

The Emergency Generator is powered by: a. A Ram Air Turbine. b. The Green Hydraulic system which is pressurized by engine 1 or 4 driven hydraulic pump or by Ram Air Turbine. c. The Static Inverter.

When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?. a. TO 750 feet AGL, LND below 1500 feet AGL. b. TO 1000 feet AGL, LND below 1000 feet AGL. c. TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 750 feet AGL. d. TO 1500 feet AGL, LND below 1000 feet AGL.

How many thrust lever positions are there, and how are they labeled?. a. There are 6 thrust levers positions: TO/GA, MCT, FLEX, CL, IDLE and REV IDLE. b. There are 6 thrust levers positions: TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, REV IDLE and MREV. c. There are 4 thrust levers positions: TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE. d. There are 5 thrust levers positions: TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE and REV IDLE.

You are just about to take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still takeoff?. a. Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the CLIMB detent. b. Yes, by setting the thrust levers to the FLEX/MCT detent. c. Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent. d. Not until a FLEX temperature is inserted.

During an engine start sequence, the gray background on N2 disappears at about 57%. What does this indicate?. a. That the igniters are no longer being powered. b. That the start sequence has finished and all engine parameters have stabilized. c. That the start valve air pressure has dropped. d. That there is a start fault and a dry crank is in progress.

How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?. a. One. b. Two. c. One cylinder shared with the aft cargo compartment. d. Two cylinders shared with the aft cargo compartment.

. APU fire detection is accomplished by: a. A two channel SDCU located in the APU compartment. b. Two parallel fire detection loops. c. One fire detection loop. d. A three channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.

Engine heat sensing are located in pylon nacelle, engine core and fan section. true. false.

After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime continue to sound?. a. Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button. b. Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU FIRE push button. c. Both are correct.

STATUS page: INOP SYS indicates 'ENG1 LOOP B'. a. One fire detection loop has failed. Fire detection for both engines is not available. b. One detection loop for engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still available. c. One fire detection loop of engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative. d. Both fire detection loops of engine 1 have failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative.

One A/P can be engaged on the ground if the engines are not running. a) This A/P will disengage when both engines are started. b) This A/P will disengage when one engine is started. c) This A/P will disengage when speed is sensed at > 10 kts.

.When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates its position at takeof using: a) IRS/DME/DME positioning. b) IRS/ILS/DME positioning. c) The navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot. d) The VOR/DME currently tuned.

The takeoff bias is: a) Replaced when a bias is computed based on radio position. b) Retained for the remainder of the flight. c) Blended out over the next 30 minutes.

With the DATA entered in the MCDU, the time remaining until the completed IRS alignment is displayed on the control display. How long does it take normally?. a) Approximately 1 minute. b) Approximately 3 minutes. c) Approximately 7 minutes. d) Approximately 10 minutes.

How does the FMGS derive Vapp?. a) Vapp=Vls+5+1/3 surface headwind component. b) Vapp=Vls+10+1/3 surface headwind component. c) Vapp=Vls+5+1/2 surface headwind component. d) Vapp=Vls+10+1/2 surface headwind component.

‐When flying at cruise altitude, the aircraft navigates using radio navaids only. True. False.

‐In normal operation, engines are always fed: a) Center tank for takeoff. b) Inner tanks (collector boxes). c) Outer tanks in case of overfull condition.

Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE SEL push button ?. a) Fuel is being burned out of sequence. b) Crossfeed push button is ON. c) Center tank pumps do not stop after slat extension. d) Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached.

The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does this mean?. a) The center tank fuel mode selector is OFF. b) The center tank pumps are OFF. c) At least one center tank pump is energized. d) A reminder to switch the center tank pumps OFF.

The fuel system is fully automatic. The only actions required between flights are: a) Selection of the proper fuel load and insertion of Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW) and Zero Fuel Weight Center Of Gravity (ZFWCG) in the FMGS. b) Check of block fuel fuel automatically inserted in the FMGS. c) Selection of the proper fuel load and insertion of Gross Weight CG in the FMGS.

The A340 fuel system: a) Stores fuel in center tank, wing tanks and the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer tanks. b) Has surge vent tanks in the outer, inner, center and trim tanks. c) Has two Inner tanks divided into three parts which are normally interconnected.

The Hydraulic System Monitoring Unit (HSMU) controls: a) Fluid transfer between the three systems. b) Blue and Yellow hydraulic fire shut off valves closure. c) Automatic activation of electric pumps and Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extension. d) In addition, fluid transfer between system is impossible.

After takeoff, engine 4 fails prior to raising the landing gear. When the gear handle is selected UP: a) The green electric pump comes on automatically to assist gear retraction. b) The RAT extends automatically to assist gear retraction. c)The green engine driven pumps only are used to retract the gear. Retraction time is not a facto r. d)The green electric pump is automatically controlled ON by the HSMU in case of engine 1 or 4 failure when the gear handle is selected UP.

After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?. a) Check to see if the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated. b) Yes, select the ECAM ELEC page. c) Yes, select the ECAM HYD page. d) No. It is not possible.

9‐In case of green reservoir LOW LEVEL the HSMU will: a) Automatically close the ENG 1 and ENG 4 fire shut off valves. b) Automatically extend the RAT. c) Automatically start the green electric pump. d)Closing both ENG 1 & ENG 4 fire shut off valves will enable isolation of a possible leak in the pylon and restoration of green system using the RAT.

10‐The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize: a) Only the blue system. b) All systems. c) The blue and yellow system. d) The green system.

6‐Which one of the following statements is true?. a) There are 2 wing anti‐ice valves installed on each wing. b) When the engine anti‐ice is operating, continous ignition is automatically activated. c) When the wing anti‐ice is operating, continuous ignition is automatically activated. d) All of the above is correct.

7‐When both Engine anti‐ice pushbuttons are turned ON, each engine nacelle is anti‐iced by: a) The pneumatic system. b) Electric heat elements. c) Independent bleed air source from HP compressor.

8‐There is an inner and outer wing anti‐ ice valve on each wing. If the Left inner valve fails to open: a) All slats remain heated. b) One slat is not heated and you must avoid icing conditions. c) No slats are heated.

9‐With the loss of electrical power the engine anti‐ice valves: a) Fail in their current position. b) Fail to the open position. c) Fail to the closed position. d) Fail to the mid position.

10‐With the loss of electrical power the wing anti‐ice valve. a) Fail in their current position. b) Fail to the open position. c) Fail to the closed position.

6‐ If the ECAM control panel fails, the CLR, RCL, EMER CANC, and ALL pushbutton switches bec ome inoperative. True. False.

7‐When should the EMER CANC push button be used?. a) At the completion of an ECAM procedure for an abnormal procedure. b) Whenever a LEVEL 3 warning or LEVEL 2 caution occurs. c) Whenever a repetitive visual or aural warning, or caution is received that the crew has determined to be false.

8‐In normal operation: a) DMC1 and DMC2 supply information to PFDs, NDs and ECAM. b) DCM3 (ECAM part) supplies information to upper and lower ECAM. c) DMC1 and 2 supply information to PFDs only, DMC3 supplies information to NDs and upper + lower ECAM. d) DMC1 and 2 EFIS part supply information to respectively PFD1‐ND1 and PFD2‐ND2.

9‐The actual speed is indicated by the ______ reference line. a) yellow. b) ambe. c) red. d) white.

10‐If a PFD fails, does anything happen automatically?. a) The ATT HDG switch must be used on the switching panel in order to recover PFD information. b) The image automatically transfers to the display formerly occupied by the ND. c) The image automatically transfers to the UPPER ECAM. d) It has to be manually activated.

6‐The landing gear consists of. a) Two inboard retracting main gears. b) A forward retracting nose gear. c) Both are correct.

7‐On the E/WD, you notice the NW STRG DISC memo. What does it mean?. a) The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel. b) A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected. c) There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering hand wheel positions. d) The nose wheel steering computer has finished its self test.

During pushback, you start engine #2. You observe the NW STRG DISC memo has changed to amber.Why?. a) The NW STRG disconnect mechanism has failed. b) The yellow hydraulic system is now pressurized and the amber caption is a warning not to mo ve the hand wheel. c) The nose wheel steering is being reconnected by ground personnel. It is amber because the pi n is removed. d) The memo has become amber because one engine is running.

If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, landing gear position must be verified through: a) The landing gear viewers. b) The landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center panel LDG GE AR indicator panel lights. c) Both are correct.

10‐Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds: a) Below 100 knots. b) Above 260 +/‐ 5 knots. c) below 100 knots and above 260 knots. d) Above 250 knots.

6‐What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen system?. a) There is no difference: both are served by oxygen cylinders. b) Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder; passengers are supplied by chemical oxygen generators . c) Both the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical oxygen generators. d) The crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back‐up supply.

7‐What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?. a) When selected to ON, it supplies oxygen to the Captain & F/O only (jumpseats are not supplie. b) When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew's masks. c) In case of low cylinder pressure it allows the crew to tap into the passenger oxygen system. d).

8‐What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?. a) Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand. b) Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand. c) Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow. d) Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.

9‐At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?. a) 10,000 feet (+100, ‐ 500 ft). b) 12,500 feet (+ or ‐ 500 ft). c) 14,000 feet (+0, ‐ 500 ft). d) 15,000 feet.

10‐ Overpressure supply for the crew oxygen mask is started automatically when cabin altitude exceeds 25, 000 feet. a) True. b) False. c) 30, 000 feet.