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AERODYNAMICS - ATP 2020

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del Test:
AERODYNAMICS - ATP 2020

Descripción:
AERODYNAMICS (CHAPTER 3) - ATP 2020

Fecha de Creación: 2023/09/09

Categoría: Otros

Número Preguntas: 83

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8378. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?. The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.

8348. What affects indicated stall speed?. Weight, load factor, and power. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

9808. The stall speed of an airplane. is constant regardless of weight or airfoil configuration. is affected by weight, and bank angle. is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift coefficient.

8346. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?. Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

9942. How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?. It varies directly with a change in altitude. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb. It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.

8397. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.

9767. How does VS (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?. Remains the same at all altitudes. Varies directly with altitude. Varies inversely with altitude.

8368. What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

8375. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability.

8382. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s. lift, gross weight, and drag. lift, airspeed, and drag. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

8399. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?. Low speed. High speed. Any speed.

8379. How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?. The same angle of attack. A lower angle of attack. A higher angle of attack.

8357. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?. While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed or less to avoid overbanking. When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60°.

8358. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to. best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. VMC, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. an airspeed slightly above VMC, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

8360. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?. Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

8364. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?. Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

8359. What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

8361. Which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine airplane?. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

8362. What effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?. None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude.

8363. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?. With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended.

8349. If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?. Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.

8350. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.

8347. What is load factor?. Lift multiplied by the total weight. Lift subtracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight.

9823. During a turn with constant power. the aircraft nose will pitch down. the aircraft will decelerate. the rate of descent will increase.

9740. During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift and centrifugal force?. Centrifugal force is less than the horizontal lift component and the load factor is increased. Centrifugal force is greater than the horizontal lift component. Centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component are equal, and the load factor is decreased.

8354. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be. 2 Gs. 3 Gs. 9 Gs.

8353. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?. Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed.

8396. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn. increases with an increase in airspeed. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes. decreases with an increase in airspeed.

8351. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

8352. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?. Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease. Rate and radius will increase.

8345. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.

8345-1. Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by. structural and power limits at high altitude. aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. control and structural limits at high altitude.

8345-2. A bank angle of 15° will increase induced drag by about. 3%. 7%. 15%.

8365. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

8372. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative static stability. Positive static stability. Negative dynamic stability.

8373. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability. Neutral dynamic stability.

8366. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.

8367. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. Motion about the longitudinal axis. Motion about the lateral axis. Motion about the vertical axis.

8376. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?. Sluggish in aileron control. Sluggish in rudder control. Unstable about the lateral axis.

8380. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit?. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.

9921. An airplane loaded with the CG aft of the rear-CG limit could. make it easier to recover from stalls and spins. make it more difficult to flare for landing. increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.

8387. Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?. .50 to .75 Mach. .75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

8390. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

8388. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?. Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic index.

8389. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?. Supersonic Mach number. Transonic Mach number. Critical Mach number.

8392. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?. A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. A severe moment or “Mach tuck.”. Severe porpoising.

8395. What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?. Inward and aft. Inward and forward. Outward and forward.

8391. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

8391-1. Swept wings. improve specific fuel consumption. increase the critical Mach number. increase the speed of sound quotient.

8391-2. For significant benefit, wing sweep must be at least. 30 to 35°. 45 to 50°. 55°or more to substantially delay compressibility effects.

8393. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.

9803. Swept wings causes a significant. increase in effectiveness of flaps. reduction in effectiveness of flaps. flap actuation reliability issue.

8394-2. A turbojet airplane has an increase in specific range with altitude, which can be attributed to three factors. One of those factors is. an increase in altitude in the troposphere results in higher energy air flow. an increase in proportion of velocity versus thrust required. decreased engine turbine speeds.

8326. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?. Slats. Elevator. Dorsal fin.

8327. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?. Ruddervator. Upper rudder. Leading-edge flaps.

8343. Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport category airplane. can be effective when turbulence is encountered. is difficult and therefore not recommended. should be considered to assist the yaw damper.

8324. When are inboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

8325. When are outboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

8342. Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?. Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.

8332. What is a purpose of flight spoilers?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without decreasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

8333. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?. Reduce the wings’ lift upon landing. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.

8336. Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?. Reduce the wings’ lift upon landing. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

9793. Upon landing, spoilers. decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. function by increasing tire to ground friction. should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.

9793-1. Aerodynamic braking is only effective up to approximately. 30% of touchdown speed. 40 to 50% of touchdown speed. 60 to 70% of touchdown speed.

9793-2. Ground spoilers used after landing are. more effective at low speed. equally effective at any speed. more effective at high speed.

8341. Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at low speeds. Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

8356. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

9759. If the boundary layer separates. drag is decreased. the wing is about to stall and stop producing lift. ice will sublimate and not freeze.

8330. What is the purpose of a servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

8338. Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

8339. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

8340. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

8329. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

8337. Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

8328. What is the purpose of a control tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

8384. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. L/DMAX. lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.

8331. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

8385. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?. Prevent flow separation. Decrease rate of sink. Increase profile drag.

8334. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?. Increase lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the low-pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.

8386. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?. Decreases profile drag. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

9765. What is a difference between the fowler flap system and split flap system?. Fowler flaps produce the greatest change in pitching moment. Fowler flaps produce more drag. Split flaps cause the greatest change in twisting loads.

9766. On which type of wing are flaps most effective?. Thin wing. Thick wing. Sweptback wing.

9771. When compared to plain flaps, split flaps. produce more lift with less drag. produce only slightly more lift, but much more drag. enhance takeoff performance in high density conditions.

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