AIRCRAFT GENERAL

Question 1/687 Where are the air conditioning packs located within the Single Aisle family aircraft?. Aft cabin. Cockpit. Wing root area. Landing gear bay.

Question 2/687 What is the purpose of the pack Flow Control Valve (FCV)?. Manage cabin pressure. Control avionics equipment. Adjust flow rate through the pack. Shut-off cabin fans.

Question 3/687 How does the ACSC regulate the pack outlet temperature?. Adjusts avionics valves. Modulates BYPASS VALVE and RAM-AIR INLET. Controls cockpit pressurization. Manages cargo compartment ventilation.

Question 4/687 What is the role of cabin recirculation fans?. Control avionics temperature. Facilitate cargo heating. Supply cold air to the cabin. Reduce bleed air demand and save fuel.

Question 5/687 How is the temperature regulation system for cabin zones controlled and monitored?. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer. Cargo Heating Controller. ACSC. RPCU.

Question 6/687 The primary function of the air conditioning system is to maintain the correct ________ and temperature within the pressurized compartments of the fuselage. sound. pressure. color. speed.

Question 7/687 Within the Single Aisle family, the air conditioning packs are located in the ________ area, forward of the landing gear bay. cockpit. wing root. cargo compartment. avionics.

Question 8/687 The main component of each pack assembly in the air conditioning system is the ________ machine. temperature. pressure. avionics. air cycle.

Question 9/687 Hot air is supplied to the pack through the pack Flow Control Valve (FCV) from the ________ system. electrical. pneumatic. hydraulic. fuel.

Question 10/687 The ACSC controls the pack outlet temperature by modulating the BYPASS VALVE and the ________ doors. cockpit. cargo compartment. avionics. RAM-AIR Inlet.

Question 11/687 What does FCU stand for in the context of the text?. Flight Control Unit. Flow Control Unit. Fuel Control Unit. Function Control Unit.

Question 12/687 Which component of the FCU is responsible for managing the ON/OFF function of the FCV?. Torque Motor. Solenoid 1. Position Sensor. Pressure Sensor.

Question 13/687 In which scenarios is the trim air PRV solenoid de-energized?. When duct temperature exceeds 88°C. When system pressure exceeds 6.5 psi. When HOT AIR P/B is set to OFF. During take-off and landing.

Question 14/687 How is ventilation air supplied to lavatories and galleys?. From external sources only. From cabin distribution ducts. Through the cockpit. From avionics equipment.

Question 15/687 In the open circuit configuration, under what conditions is avionics equipment cooled with ambient air?. While in-flight. When the skin temperature is decreasing. On the ground with increasing skin temperature. On the ground with skin temperature below 12°C.

Question 16/687 What does the Cargo Heating Controller regulate?. Ventilation air distribution. Cabin ambient temperature. Cargo compartment temperature. Extraction fan operation.

Question 17/687 What does the AFT ISOL VALVE P/B control?. Cargo ventilation controller. Extraction fan in the cockpit. Isolation valves and extraction fan. Cargo heating controller.

Question 18/687 What action does the HOT AIR P/B switch take when set to OFF?. It opens the isolation valves. It regulates the trim air valves. It starts the extraction fan. It closes the pressure regulating valve.

Question 19/687 What controls the operation of the avionics equipment ventilation system?. Crew intervention. Skin temperature. Aircraft configuration. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEV.

Question 20/687 Which configuration allows cooling of avionics equipment using ambient air?. Open Circuit Configuration. Closed Circuit Configuration. Partially Open Circuit Configuration. No configuration allows cooling using ambient air.

What does the skin exchanger outlet bypass valve help reduce?. Avionics bay noise. Skin temperature. Ambient air. Duct temperature.

Question 22/687 What determines the FCV position in the main operating mode?. Flow setting on panel 30VU. Differential pressure. Torque motor position. Main operation switch.

Question 23/687 In which aircraft conditions is the HIGH FLOW configuration used?. Take-off and landing. Single pack operation. APU bleed air supply for pack operation. Cruise altitude.

Question 24/687 What happens if an FCU component malfunctions?. ACSC energizes Solenoid 2, pack enters BACK-UP mode. FCV opens fully. FCU switches to MAIN mode. ACSC energizes Solenoid 1.

Question 25/687 What does the Mixer Unit do?. Mixes cabin air with conditioned air from packs. Distributes bleed air to the cabin. Filters recirculated air. Controls differential pressure.

Question 26/687 Which ACSC manages the forward and aft cabin zones?. ACSC 1. ACSC 2. Both ACSCs equally. FCU.

Question 27/687 What is the main purpose of the Automatic Flight System (AFS)?. Increase aircraft speed. Reduce pilot workload and enhance safety. Minimize fuel consumption. Control in-flight entertainment.

Question 28/687 Which of the following is a fundamental component of the AFS?. Autopilot. SFCC. Ailerons. Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU).

Question 29/687 What is the primary function of the MCDUs?. Short-term aircraft control. Engine control. Ground navigation control. Long-term interface between the crew and FMGCs.

Question 30/687 What does the FCU stand for?. Flight Crew Unit. Fuel Control Unit. Flight Control Unit. Fast Communication Unit.

Question 31/687 How many Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) are there in the AFS?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Question 32/687 What is the purpose of the FAC engagement P/BSWs?. Engine control. Rudder control. Landing gear control. Airspeed control.

Question 33/687 What part of the AFS is used for the short-term control of the aircraft?. FCU. MCDUs. FMGCs. FACs.

Question 34/687 How many parts does each FMGC consist of?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Question 35/687 What functions are primarily managed by the Flight Management (FM) part of the FMGC?. Rudder control. Engine maintenance. Flight plan definition and monitoring. In-flight entertainment.

Question 36/687 What is the primary role of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS)?. Long-term flight planning. Short-term aircraft control. Maintenance failure information centralization. Passenger entertainment.

Question 37/687 Which display primarily shows guidance commands and flight mode status?. ND. FCU. PFDs. MCDUs.

Question 38/687 What is the purpose of the ECAM/EWD page?. Display flight plan information. Show passenger announcements. Present warning messages and computer failures. Control engine thrust.

Question 39/687 What function is responsible for calculating optimized speed for guidance purposes?. FCU. FIDS. FAC. FMGC.

Question 40/687 What components is the AFS designed around?. FMGC and FCU. MCDUs and FACs. Wings and engines. Radar and altimeter.

Question 41/687 What role do the MCDUs play in aircraft control?. Short-term control of the aircraft. Long-term interface between crew and FMGCs. Engine management. Landing gear control.

Question 42/687 Which part of the AFS serves as the interface for transmitting engine data to FADEC?. FCU. MCDUs. FMGCs. FACs.

Question 43/687 What are the primary functions of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)?. Rudder control and flight envelope protection. Engine maintenance. Passenger comfort control. Airspeed management.

Question 44/687 Which system centralizes failure information for maintenance purposes?. FMGC. FIDS. FCU. FMGS.

Question 45/687 What is the main function of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS) in the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) 1?. To engage the Auto Flight System (AFS). To control rudder during landing. To detect lateral mode failures. To concentrate maintenance information.

Question 46/687 What is the type of communication the Auto Flight System (AFS) maintains with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU)?. One-way communication. Two-way communication. One-way communication with sensors. Two-way communication with FACs.

Question 47/687 The Auto Flight System (AFS) maintains a ____________ communication with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). one-way. two-way. direct. complex.

Question 48/687 The Autothrust (A/THR) function is engaged automatically when the aircraft's ____________ is detected, inhibiting it below 100 feet RA, except during the 15 seconds after lift-off. speed decreases. altitude increases. alpha-floor is detected. AP is engaged.

Question 49/687 In cruise, which controls execute the orders of lateral modes, while the elevators and THS execute the orders of vertical modes? The ____________. ailerons and rudder. rudder and nose wheel. ailerons and spoilers. elevators and THS.

Question 50/687 The engagement status of the Flight Director (FD) is displayed on the ____________ on the Flight Control Unit (FCU). FCU P/BSW. AP P/BSW. FAC P/BSW. A/THR P/BSW.

Question 51/687 The Auto Flight System (AFS) can engage the AP in flight if the aircraft has been airborne for at least ____________ seconds. 2. 5. 10. 15.

When the AP is engaged, the load thresholds on the rudder pedals and the ____________ are increased, and if overridden, the AP disengages. side sticks. throttles. spoilers. ailerons.

Question 53/687 The Flight Director (FD) automatically engages when the system is electrically supplied and logic conditions are met, and the engagement is indicated by the FD P/BSW ____________. blinking. red bars. green bars. white bars.

Question 54/687 The Autothrust (A/THR) function sends computed thrust commands to the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) for ____________ engine control. manual. automatic. remote. partial.

Question 55/687 During take-off, the AP can be engaged in flight after the aircraft has been airborne for at least ____________ seconds. 2. 5. 10. 15.

Question 56/687 The primary goal of the Automatic Flight System (AFS) is to enhance flight safety by reducing pilot workload and providing functions that improve ________. flight entertainment. fuel efficiency. flight consistency. passenger comfort.

Question 57/687 The AFS is designed around various components, including 2 Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs), 2 Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs), 2 Multipurpose Control and Display Units (MCDUs), and ________. 1 Radar Control Unit (RCU). 1 Navigation Control Unit (NCU). 1 Flight Control Unit (FCU). 1 Avionics Control Unit (ACU).

Question 58/687 The FCU and MCDUs play a crucial role in allowing pilots to control the functions of the ________. Aircraft Fuel Management System (AFMS). Flight Data Monitoring System (FDMS). Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs). Flight Analysis and Reporting System (FARS).

Question 59/687 One of the primary functions of the Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) is to control ________. cabin lighting. engine thrust. wing flaps. rudder and flight envelope protection.

Question 60/687 The Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS) is active only in ________. FAC 1. FAC 2. FMGC 1. FMGC 2.

Question 61/687 The yaw damper, operated by yaw damper actuators, performs several functions, including dutch roll damping, turn coordination in cruise, and compensation for ________. cabin pressure fluctuations. loss of radio communication. engine failure during auto flight. turbulence.

Question 62/687 Rudder trim orders can originate from the Rudder Trim selector or the ________ to control the rudder. Air Data/Inertial Reference System (ADIRS). Navigation Control Unit (NCU). Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC). Aircraft Fuel Management System (AFMS).

Question 63/687 What are the two sub-systems of the communications system?. Radio communication and on-board communication. Ground communication and air communication. Internal communication and external communication. Cockpit communication and cabin communication.

Question 64/687 What is the purpose of communication during taxiing and towing on the Single Aisle aircraft?. To interact with the service personnel. To establish contact with the tower. To ensure proper passenger announcements. To communicate with maintenance personnel.

Question 65/687 What must be done to enable transmission mode for the acoustic devices (microphone)?. Press the reception key. Push the ON/OFF switch. Select the related transmission key. Activate the standby frequency.

Question 66/687 What is the purpose of the Service Interphone system in terms of maintenance coordination?. To facilitate communication between flight crewmembers. To connect to the tower for takeoff clearance. To enable communication between flight crew and mechanic. To communicate with passengers during boarding.

Question 67/687 How are audio lines from various jacks routed to the Audio Management Unit (AMU)?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication System. Through the Audio Control Panel. Through the Radio Management Panel. Through the amplifiers in the CIDS Directors.

Question 68/687 When is the automatic mode of the Service Interphone system active?. During flight operations. On the ground with the landing gear up. During engine start. On the ground with gear down and compressed.

Question 69/687 How is the Service Interphone system re-enabled after jacking the aircraft?. Switching the ACP ON/OFF switch. Pushing the INT pushbutton. Adjusting the interphone audio level. Switching the Service Interphone Override switch to ON.

Question 70/687 The use of the radio system on the Single Aisle aircraft is extremely important for the safe operation of the _______________. flight crew. aircraft. tower communication. ground handling.

Question 71/687 To re-enable the service interphone, the SerViCE INTerphone OVeRriDe P/BSW must be switched to _______________. OFF. ACTIVE. ON. ENABLE.

Question 72/687 The primary function of the Aircraft Identification Module (AIM) is to program the __________ message in the ELT. Military. Aircraft identification. Weather. Maintenance.

Question 73/687 The ON-ARMED-TEST/RESET switch on the RCP can be set to the TEST/RESET position to initiate an ELT __________. Transmission. BITE test. Emergency announcement. Battery recharge.

Question 74/687 The ELT operates automatically or manually, and its battery pack supplies power for approximately __________ hours. Twenty. Fifty. Ten. One hundred.

Question 75/687 The Flight Interphone system is mainly used for __________ communication within the cockpit and with ground mechanics. Satellite. External. Passenger. Internal.

Question 76/687 The ELT BITE test is performed to verify the proper operation of the ELT system and involves transmitting a(n) __________ signal. Emergency. Distress. Engine. Entertainment.

Question 77/687 What is the purpose of the Cabin Assignment Module (CAM)?. Control passenger seating assignments. Manage interphone communications. Store cabin zone information. Operate oxygen mask systems.

Question 78/687 How does the conference mode work for interphone communication?. It connects all cabin stations to the cockpit. It allows communication between two interphone sources. It activates priority messages in the cabin. It broadcasts chime sounds.

Question 79/687 What is the priority of an emergency call in the communication system?. Priority 1. Priority 2. Priority 3. Priority 4.

Question 80/687 What happens when an emergency call is initiated from the cockpit?. All cabin stations connect to the cockpit. The cockpit connects to all cabin stations. The cabin stations connect to each other. All PA loudspeakers are activated.

Question 81/687 How does the cabin initiate interphone communication?. By using the Audio Control Panel (ACP). By selecting pushbuttons on the CALLS panel. By lifting the cockpit handset. By activating the oxygen masks.

Question 82/687 What is the purpose of the RESET key in the cabin ATTND stations?. Resets the interphone function. Initiates an emergency call. Initiates a PA announcement. Resets the system power.

Question 83/687 How are calls from the cockpit initiated using the CALLS panel?. By using the CABin key and knob. By using the ACP pushbuttons. By using the ATT key on the AIP. By using the PA ALL key.

Question 84/687 The upper row of the AIP display is used for the indication of information concerning the cabin and flight crew interphone system. The outer left section is used to show the __________ information. handset. interphone. system. status.

Question 85/687 To select an announcement using the handmic, the Passenger Address (PA) transmission key located on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) must be pressed and held. It comes on green and __________ the microphone audio to the PA system. connects. disconnects. transmits. blocks.

Question 86/687 To make an announcement using the boomset or the oxygen mask, the PA transmission key must be pressed and held on the ACP. It comes on green. The handmic has also the __________ priority. same. higher. lower. equal.

Question 87/687 A handset is mounted on the cockpit center pedestal and contains a PTT SW. Pressing on the PTT SW keys the PA system, __________ lower priority PA sources and broadcasting the speech over all PA loudspeakers and PAX headsets. overriding. avoiding. enhancing. silencing.

Question 88/687 The conference mode is used for the communication between __________ interphone sources. two. more than two. all. specific.

Question 89/687 How is speech communication established from the cockpit using the SVCE INT jacks?. Pressing the CABin key. Using the Audio Control Panel (ACP). Pressing the SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton. Using the Audio Management Unit (AMU).

Question 90/687 What indication is displayed on Attendant Indication Panels (AIPs) when cabin stations initiate communication using the SVCE INT jacks?. "SERV INT". "CABIN CALL". "CABIN COMM". "SERV COMM".

Question 91/687 Which component digitizes audio signals from cabin stations and transmits them to the directors?. DEUs. AMU. LGCIUs. ACP.

Question 92/687 How is the BTC power supply provided when APU GEN or EXT PWR are available?. Through the Battery Bus. Through the GAPCU. Through the APU GEN. Through the IDG.

Question 93/687 Why is the BTC ground path provided by the related Generator Control Unit (GCU)?. To enable automatic transfer to network faults. To inhibit the BTC close logic. To protect against Over Current. To control battery power.

Question 94/687 In which situation are both BTCs closed?. APU GEN only. GEN 2 only. EXT PWR only. APU GEN and EXT PWR.

Question 95/687 The BTC power supply is provided by the Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) when _____ are available. APU GEN. battery power. external power. IDG 1.

Question 96/687 With only EXT PWR on, both BTCs should be closed to supply _____. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1+2. IDG 1.

Question 97/687 With IDG 2 only operation, both BTCs should be closed. IDG 2 supplies its own busbar and via the closed BTCs also _____. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1+2. battery power.

Question 98/687 APU GEN is one of the power sources with the lowest priority to supply the AC BUSES. True. False.

Question 99/687 When APU GEN is the only power source, BTC 1 and 2 close to supply the AC power network. True. False.

Question 100/687 With only EXT PWR on, both BTCs should be open to avoid parallel operation with the generators. True. False.

Question 101/687 The Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) interfaces only with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). True. False.

Question 102/687 The GAPCU can transmit GCU fault data to the CFDIU via ARINC 429 data bus. True. False.

Question 103/687 Maintenance tests on the GAPCU and GCUs can be initiated in-flight for diagnostic purposes. True. False.

Question 104/687 The Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) operates at 50 Hz frequency. True. False.

Question 105/687 The Emergency Generator is activated via the blue hydraulic system only if the ________________. landing gear is compressed. landing gear is extended. aircraft is on the ground. landing gear is NOT compressed.

Question 106/687 If AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost above a given airspeed, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will automatically ________________. retract. extend. turn off. decrease speed.

Question 107/687 In the case of Generator 1 LINE OFF, which component opens?. Generator Line Contactor (GLC) 1. Battery Contactors. External Power Contactor (EPC). Generator Control Unit (GCU).

Question 108/687 The emergency generator is powered by the ________________. blue hydraulic system. green hydraulic system. yellow hydraulic system. red hydraulic system.

Question 109/687 What is the priority sequence for supplying the two normal AC BUSes (AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2)?. Onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN, offside generator. External Power, APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG). APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power. Offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN.

Question 110/687 What is the purpose of the 115/26V AUTO TRANSFORMER in the AC distribution system?. Convert AC power to DC power. Supply power to the APU GEN. Connect AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 1. Convert 115V AC to 26V AC.

Question 111/687 How is DC generation achieved in the aircraft's electrical system?. By Transformer Rectifiers (TRs). Through a generator driven by the APU. By converting AC power to DC power. Through an external power unit.

Question 112/687 Which power source replaces a faulty main TR to supply the DC ESS BUS?. APU GEN. Battery 1. Battery 2. External Power.

Question 113/687 What is the role of the Emergency Generator in the aircraft's electrical system?. Replace the main engine generators. Supply power during normal flight operations. Connect AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 in parallel. Provide power in case of failure of all main generators.

Question 114/687 Which component is responsible for converting 115 volts to 26 volts for the sub-busbar?. Transformer Rectifiers (TRs). AC ESS SHED BUS. 115/26VAC Auto Transformer. Static Inverter.

Question 115/687 What is the purpose of the Static Inverter in the electrical system?. Supply AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2. Replace faulty main TR units. Convert DC to AC power. Supply power to the galley circuits.

Question 116/687 The STATIC INVerter connected to battery 1 supplies the AC __________ BUS. AC BUS 1. DC ESS BUS. AC ESS BUS. AC STAT INV BUS.

Question 117/687 The AC transfer circuit allows generators to be connected in parallel on the same bus. True. False.

Question 118/687 The AC ESSential BUS can be supplied by AC BUS 2 if AC BUS 1 fails. True. False.

Question 119/687 What is the purpose of the red manual inflation handle for the escape slide?. To open the door. To attach the survival kit. To initiate automatic inflation. To manually inflate the slide.

Question 120/687 The inflation and deployment of the escape slide start automatically when the cabin door opens in the _____ mode. armed. open. locked. closed.

Question 121/687 On the A319, A320, and A321, the forward and aft cargo compartments can have an optional _____ cargo loading system. automated. semi-automatic. manual. automated and manual.

Question 122/687 The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the _____ cargo compartment. central. bulk. rear. side.

Question 123/687 To open a cockpit sliding window from the inside, push down the black push button on top of the _____ handle. locking. opening. closing. emergency.

Question 124/687 The inflation and deployment sequence of the slide raft for the FWD and rear cabin doors is automatically initiated when the door is opened in the _____ configuration. closed. locked. armed. open.

Question 125/687 The red manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the _____ side of the girt bar. left hand. right hand. top. bottom.

Question 126/687 In case of a ditching, the survival kit must be connected to the slide raft before opening the _____. cockpit window. cabin door. overhead bin. emergency exit.

Question 127/687 One or more Escape Slide/Slide Raft Cabin Passenger Door may be inoperative provided the associated door is considered _____. operational. closed. locked. inoperative.

Question 128/687 The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the bulk _____ compartment. storage. cargo. overhead. passenger.

Question 129/687 The inflation and deployment of the escape slide for the forward and aft cabin doors are manually initiated. True. False.

Question 130/687 The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the left-hand side of the girt bar. True. False.

Question 131/687 The emergency exit escape slides on the A319, A320, and A321 are stowed in containers in the aft cargo compartment. True. False.

Question 132/687 The slide raft is pneumatically pushed open as soon as the cabin door handle is lifted. True. False.

Question 133/687 The automatic inflation of the escape slide can be manually initiated by pulling the manual inflation handle. True. False.

Question 134/687 On the A318, the lower deck is divided into two cargo compartments. True. False.

Question 135/687 The emergency exit escape slides are installed above each door in the overhead stowage compartment. True. False.

Question 136/687 The escape slide is of dual-lane type for the A318, A319, and A320. True. False.

Question 137/687 The containers of the emergency exit escape slides are in the wing root fairing. True. False.

Question 138/687 The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is used to open the cockpit sliding windows. True. False.

Question 139/687 What is the function of the Fire Detection Unit (FDU) in the engine and APU fire detection system?. Monitors flight crew actions. Monitors engine thrust. Monitors fire extinguishing agents. Monitors detection loops.

Question 140/687 How are the FIRE and FAULT signals from the fire detection system displayed to the flight crew?. On the engine control panel. On the flight deck alerts sounds. On the ECAM. On the overhead panel.

Question 141/687 How many fire bottles are installed in each engine's pylon for fire extinguishing?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Question 142/687 What is the purpose of the AGENT P/BSW switches for the engine fire extinguishing system?. Arm the extinguishing system. Control the aircraft's thrust. Monitor the engine's temperature. Test the fire detection system.

Question 143/687 Each system in the FIRE detection has __________ detection loops. one. two. three. four.

Question 144/687 The guarded FIRE P/B switches are used to give FIRE indication and __________ the related systems. arm. disarm. monitor. activate.

Question 145/687 The discharge of each fire extinguisher bottle for the engine is controlled by a related __________ switch. FIRE P/B. FIRE warning. AGENT P/BSW. discharge.

Question 146/687 On the A320, how many fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the AFT cargo compartment as part of the optional system?. one. two. three. four.

Question 147/687 Lavatory smoke detection is monitored by the SDF integrated in the __________. AEVC. FWC. CIDS. fire extinguisher.

Question 148/687 The lavatory smoke detector sends __________ warnings to the FWC. FIRE. SMOKE. FAULT. ALERT.

Question 149/687 Each fire detection loop for the CEO engine contains __________ detector elements. one. two. three. four.

Question 150/687 The cargo compartment fire-extinguishing agent is discharged into the FWD compartment through __________ nozzles. one. two. three. four.

Question 151/687 What causes the engine or APU to shut down when the FIRE pushbutton is released?. Loss of fuel supply. Electrical failure. Fire extinguishing. Thrust reduction.

Question 152/687 What are the roles of the AGENT P/BSW switches in the fire extinguishing system?. Control extinguisher discharge. Control engine thrust. Monitor cabin temperature. Monitor avionics equipment.

Question 153/687 What action is taken on the ground when an APU FIRE warning occurs?. APU is automatically shut down. APU continues normal operation. APU fire bottles are discharged. APU is restarted immediately.

Question 154/687 What does the avionics SMOKE detector specifically detect?. Fire in the cabin. Smoke from the engines. Overheating of avionics equipment. Smoke from the lavatories.

Question 155/687 How is the cargo compartment smoke detection system monitored?. By the AEVC. By the FWC. By the AGENT P/BSW switches. By SDF (Smoke Detection Functions) on CIDS.

Question 156/687 How many smoke detectors are installed in each cavity of the cargo compartments?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Question 157/687 What triggers the automatic discharge of the fire extinguisher in the lavatory waste bin?. Fire in the adjacent lavatory. High cabin temperature. Presence of smoke. Fire.

Question 158/687 How does the FDU generate a fire warning signal in case of a flame or hot gas detected?. Closes the INTEGRITY switch. Opens the ALARM switch. Closes the ALARM switch. Generates a fault signal.

Question 159/687 How many detection loops does the engine Fire Detection Unit (FDU) have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Question 160/687 What does the FDU do if both loops are broken due to a torching flame?. Generates fire warning signal. Generates fault warning signal. Shuts down the engine. Sends inert gas.

Question 161/687 In which situations is the detection fault logic based on a dual loop failure activated?. Fire on loop A, fault on loop B. Fire on loop B, fault on loop A. Total loss of detection system. Both loops working properly.

Question 162/687 What components are responsible for fire detection in the engines and APU?. FIRE switches and P/B switches. FWC and ECAM. ALARM and INTEGRITY switches. Detectors and loops.

Question 163/687 What must be done if an engine or APU LOOP A or LOOP B fault is detected?. Disregard the fault and continue operations. Perform a fire test. Isolate the fault loop. Shut down the engines.

Question 164/687 How does the FDU generate an inoperative signal for loop A or loop B fault logic?. By releasing helium gas. By opening the ALARM switch. By detecting electrical failure. By detecting core gas.

Question 165/687 The _____________ fire detection system includes two identical detection loops (A and B) installed in parallel. engine. cargo. avionics. APU.

Question 166/687 The ____________ generates fire and fault signals to the Flight Warning Computer (FWC) for display on ECAM. APU MASTER SWITCH. FDU. CFDIU. FWC.

Question 167/687 The extinguishing system for the engine fire bottles is controlled by ___________ switches on the FIRE panel. FIRE. ENGINE. AGENT. EXTINGUISHER.

Question 168/687 What is the primary function of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?. Short-term pitch control. Long-term pitch control. Roll control. Yaw control.

Question 169/687 Which components achieve roll control on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Ailerons and spoilers. Elevators and THS. Rudder and yaw damper. Speed brakes and ground spoilers.

Question 170/687 What is the purpose of the speed brake function?. To decrease aircraft drag. To increase aircraft drag. To control engine thrust. To improve fuel efficiency.

Question 171/687 How many slats are there on each wing of the Airbus A321?. 2. 5. 4. 7.

Question 172/687 What is the function of the Slats and Flaps Control Computers (SFCCs)?. To control and monitor slats and flaps. To control the THS. To control ailerons. To control the rudder.

Question 173/687 How are the slat and flap systems powered?. Electrically and hydraulically. Manually. Pneumatically. Mechanically.

Question 174/687 What locks the transmission when the slat and flap surfaces reach the selected position?. Power Control Unit (PCU). Torque shafts. Pressure Off Brake (POB). Wing Tip Brakes (WTBs).

Question 175/687 What is the purpose of the Alpha/speed lock function in relation to slats?. To prevent slats from extending at high angles of attack or low speeds. To prevent slats from retracting during low speeds. To increase slat extension speed. To improve overall aircraft performance.

Question 176/687 How many positions does the FLAPS lever have?. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Question 177/687 Which computers are responsible for pitch and roll control on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Elevator Aileron Computers (ELAC). Spoiler Elevator Computers (SEC). Flight Augmentation Computers (FAC). Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC).

Question 178/687 In case of a double ELAC failure, what happens to aileron actuators?. They switch to damping mode. They become inoperative. They disconnect from the aircraft. They lock in their current position.

Question 179/687 What is the role of the sidestick in the aircraft's control system?. It controls the rudder. It sends electrical orders to ELACs and SECs. It operates the ailerons. It controls the THS.

Question 180/687 The Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC) sends roll commands directly to the SECs. True. False.

Spoilers 1 are used for roll control. True. False.

Question 182/687 In case of a hydraulic power loss, spoiler surfaces remain extended. True. False.

Question 183/687 What is the purpose of the ground spoiler function?. To increase lift during landing. To decrease lift during landing. To increase lift during take-off. To decrease drag during flight.

Question 184/687 Which components control the slat and flap systems on the A320 family aircraft?. Slats. Flaps. Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs). Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs).

Question 185/687 How many positions are there for the FLAPS lever on the aircraft?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 186/687 A computer failure can engage a lateral ___________ configuration. Abnormal. Normal. Direct. Alternate.

Question 187/687 In case of loss of both ELevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) only ___________ are available. Elevators. Ailerons. Spoilers. Rudder.

Question 188/687 If the normal law of both ELACs fails, the ___________ law takes over. Normal. Direct. Alternate. Mechanical.

Question 189/687 In this example Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) 2 flap channel is inoperative and SFCC 1 operates normally. Each flap channel lane of SFCC 1 generates ___________ signals. Pitch. Command. Drive. Hydraulic.

Question 190/687 Two flap disconnect sensors are fitted on the interconnecting strut between inner and outer flaps on each wing. The flap disconnect sensors are ___________ sensors. Pressure. Proximity. Hydraulic. Temperature.

Question 191/687 In case of total electrical loss, induced roll is obtained by using the ___________, which have a mechanical control. Throttle levers. Rudder pedals. Joysticks. Elevator levers.

Question 192/687 In case of loss of both servo controls of the same aileron, the other aileron is still operated. True. False.

Question 193/687 If the alternate law is lost, the direct law computed in ELAC 1 or 2 becomes active. The pitch direct law is active in case of ___________. Dual IR failure. Triple IR failure. Failure of the RA. Dual FAC failure.

Question 194/687 How are the wing tanks in the A318/A319/A320 divided?. Into inner cells and outer cells. They are not divided. Into left and right tanks. Into upper and lower cells.

Question 195/687 In the A321, are the wing tanks divided like in the A318/A319/A320?. No, they are not divided. Yes, into inner and outer cells. Yes, into upper and lower cells. Yes, into left and right tanks.

Question 196/687 What is the first source of fuel supplied to the engines in the A318/A319/A320?. Center tank. Wing inner cells. Wing outer cells. Direct feed from outer cells.

Question 197/687 How is fuel transferred from the outer cells to the inner cells in the A318/A319/A320?. Via inter cell transfer valves. Automatically when outer cells are empty. Through a cross feed valve. By gravity flow.

Question 198/687 What happens to the LP valve when an engine stops in the A318/A319/A320?. It closes. It remains open. It switches to manual control. It triggers the APU.

Question 199/687 What is the purpose of the cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320?. To connect or isolate the left and right sides. To regulate fuel temperature. To transfer fuel to the APU. To prevent fuel leaks.

Question 200/687 Where is the Refuel/Defuel coupling located on the RH wing of the aircraft?. On the lower surface, near the leading edge. On the upper surface, near the trailing edge. Inside the cockpit. On the APU.

Question 201/687 How does the crossfeed valve operate in the aircraft's fuel system?. It electrically connects the left and right tanks. It isolates the engine fuel feed supply. It controls fuel temperature. It supplies fuel to the APU.

Question 202/687 What happens when the center tank pumps run in the aircraft's fuel system?. The center tank supplies fuel to the engines. The LP valve closes. The cross feed valve opens. The APU LP valve opens.

Question 203/687 Where is the air release valve installed in the fuel system?. At the highest point between the pump and the LP fuel valve. In the center tank. In the wing tank. Inside the fuel pump.

Question 204/687 When does the LP fuel valve isolate the engine fuel feed supply?. At engine shutdown and in case of an emergency. During refueling. When the LP valve is manually closed. During crossfeed operations.

Question 205/687 In the A318/A319/A320, when is fuel supplied to the engines from the wing inner cells? When the center tank is __________. full. empty. overfilled. pressurized.

Question 206/687 Two engine Low Pressure (LP) valves in the A318/A319/A320 close when their related engine __________. is running. is refueled. stops. overheats.

Question 207/687 The cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320 divides the main fuel pump system into two parts, one for each __________. fuel tank. wing. engine. pump.

Question 208/687 The wing fuel feed pumps in the A318/A319/A320 are replaced from the __________. cockpit. belly fairing. wing upper surface. wing lower surface.

Question 209/687 The manual Magnetic Level Indicators are used to calculate tank fuel quantities if a failure affects the Fuel Quantity Indicating System, such as an __________. electrical failure. engine malfunction. APU failure. overheating issue.

Question 210/687 The LP fuel valve in the A318/A319/A320 isolates the engine fuel feed supply during engine shutdown or in case of an __________. APU malfunction. LP valve failure. engine fire emergency. overheating situation.

Question 211/687 The scavenge jet pump in the fuel system has a jet pump body, a jet adaptor assembly, and a non-return valve (NRV) that prevents fuel from entering a fuel pump that is __________. running. inoperative. oversized. overheated.

Question 212/687 In what situation will the FAULT light on the MODE SEL P/BSW and the MASTER CAUT come on in flight?. Failure of the center tank transfer valves. Failure of wing tank transfer valves. When more than 5000 kg of fuel is left in either wing tank. When there is no fuel in the center tank.

Question 213/687 What triggers the display of the FUEL page on the ECAM?. Failure of the main fuel pumps. Wing tank overflow. Failure of the center tank transfer valves. Low fuel level in the center tank.

Question 214/687 In MANUAL MODE, what should be done when the FAULT light appears in the CTR TK P/BSW?. Leave the P/B switch in the OFF position. Set the MODE SEL P/BSW to AUTO mode. Push the FAULT light to reset it. Set the related CTR TK L XFR or R XFR P/B switch to OFF.

Question 215/687 How can you test the operation of the high-level protection system during refueling?. By setting the Pre-selector to maximum fuel load. By draining at least one liter of fuel. By performing the Lights (LTS) and High Level (HI. LVL) test. By turning on the external ground power.

Question 216/687 Before entering a fuel tank for maintenance, it is essential to complete the Pre-Entry Checklist. True. False.

Question 217/687 When refueling is complete, the END light will not illuminate, indicating that the refuel valve is still open. True. False.

Question 218/687 What is the normal source of pressure for the green hydraulic system?. Engine Driven Pump (EDP). Power Transfer Unit (PTU). Electrical pump (E-Pump). Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

Question 219/687 Which hydraulic system can the blue electric pump be used as an auxiliary power source for on the ground?. Green. Blue. Yellow. None.

Question 220/687 What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?. It transfers fluid between the green and yellow hydraulic systems. It provides auxiliary pressure supply to the blue system. It is used for cargo door operation on the yellow system. It is auxiliary pressure supply for either the green or yellow systems.

Question 221/687 How is the RAT deployed for auxiliary pressure supply?. Automatically. Manually. Both automatically and manually. It is always extended.

Question 222/687 What prevents the RAT from stowing when extended?. Interlock mechanism. Hydraulic pressure. Spring force. Solenoid operation.

Question 223/687 Which system uses the Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) to provide emergency electrical power?. Green. Yellow. Blue. All systems.

Question 224/687 What is the role of priority valves in the hydraulic system?. They cut off hydraulic power to essential systems. They transfer fluid between hydraulic systems. They cut off hydraulic power to Heavy Load Users. They supply hydraulic power to heavy load users.

Question 225/687 The PTU is an auxiliary pressure supply for either the green or yellow systems without the transfer of fluid between the two systems. It operates automatically if there is a delta pressure of __________ between the green/yellow or yellow/green hydraulic systems. 100psi. 250psi. 500psi. 750psi.

Question 226/687 The RAT is an auxiliary pressure supply for the blue system and for the emergency electrical power Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM / G). It can be deployed __________ or manually depending on the failure conditions. automatically. manually. both automatically and manually. neither automatically nor manually.

Question 227/687 The interlock mechanism on the RAT will only permit RAT stowage if the blades are properly aligned. It also prevents rotation when stowed. The interlock will release at approximately __________ degrees from the full extension position. 10 degrees. 45 degrees. 90 degrees. 5 degrees.

Question 228/687 In the event of low hydraulic pressure, the priority valves maintain the operation of essential systems by cutting off hydraulic power to __________. heavy load users. all systems. the PTU. the RAT.

Question 229/687 What is the auxiliary source of pressure for the blue hydraulic system?. EDP. PTU. E-Pump. RAT.

Question 230/687 Where are hydraulic pipes located within the aircraft?. Passenger cabin and flight compartment. Only in the flight compartment. Only in the passenger cabin. In the aircraft except in Passenger cabin and flight compartment.

Question 231/687 What is the nitrogen pressure set to during the pressurization of the reservoir?. 30 PSI. 40 PSI. 50 PSI. 60 PSI.

Question 232/687 Before starting the filling procedure, what must be the position of the flight control surfaces and cargo doors?. Neutral retracted position. Fully extended position. Open position. Any position.

Question 233/687 What should the triple indicator show when the yellow electric pump is selected to OFF?. Hydraulic system pressure. Brake accumulator pressure. Nitrogen pressure. Green hydraulic pressure.

Question 234/687 Why should a warning notice be placed before operating the hydraulic system?. To indicate the system is depressurized. To prevent others from operating the system. To remind the operator to wear gloves. To indicate the cargo doors are closed.

Question 235/687 What is done with the hand pump lever from the yellow panel during the filling operation?. It is removed and assembled for use on the green panel. It is left in place. It is disconnected and stored in a toolbox. It is used to depressurize the system.

Question 236/687 What precautions should be taken before removing the flexible hose from its housing?. Wear proper protection gloves and goggles. Disconnect the hydraulic system. Depressurize the nitrogen pressure. Ensure the cargo doors are open.

Question 237/687 How is the selection of the hydraulic system to be filled confirmed?. A colored LED on the indication panel. A sound alert. A pressure gauge reading. An audible beep.

Question 238/687 Where should the system reservoir be filled to during the filling operation?. To the end of the scale. To the last white line in the related colored band. To the top of the reservoir. To the halfway mark.

Question 239/687 The triple indicator should show the brake accumulator as being fully pressurized to 5000 PSI when the electric pump is turned OFF. True. False.

Question 240/687 Warning notices are placed to remind the operator to wear gloves and goggles during the hydraulic filling operation. True. False.

Question 241/687 The hand pump lever is disconnected and stored in a toolbox during the filling operation. True. False.

Question 242/687 The flexible hose is inserted into a new canister of hydraulic fluid after connecting it to the hand pump. True. False.

Question 243/687 The filling operation is initiated by selecting the hydraulic system that needs to be filled. True. False.

Question 244/687 The system reservoir should be filled to the end of the scale during the filling operation. True. False.

Question 245/687 Which subsystems are part of the ice and rain protection system on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Wing ice protection. Engine air intake ice protection, rain mast ice protection. Probe ice protection, Windshield ice and rain protection. All.

Question 246/687 How is wing anti-ice supply controlled for both wings?. By a single pushbutton switch on the overhead ANTI ICE panel. By separate switches for each wing. By the engine's bleed air automatically. By manual control in the cockpit.

Question 247/687 When is engine air intake anti-ice protection available?. Only in flight. Only on the ground. In flight or on the ground with the engine running. Automatically when the aircraft is powered.

Question 248/687 What is used to protect the Angle Of Attack (AOA) sensors, pitot probes, static ports, and Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes from ice?. Electrical heating. Hot air from the pneumatic system. Manual insulation covers. Engine bleed air.

Question 249/687 How is windshield anti-icing provided on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. By manual control in the cockpit. By hot air from the pneumatic system. Automatically when at least one engine is running. By electrical heating.

Question 250/687 Under what conditions is the drain mast heating switched ON?. When the electrical system is powered. When the aircraft is in heavy rain. When the temperature is above a specific value. It is always in operation.

Question 251/687 The front windshields and side windows are heated ____________ when at least one engine is running. automatically. manually. with wipers. during takeoff.

Question 252/687 The Drain Mast Heating is switched ON when the temperature is ____________ a specific value. above. below. exactly at. not related to.

Question 253/687 What subsystem protects the engine air intake from ice?. Probe ice protection. Windshield ice and rain protection. Engine air intake ice protection. Drain mast ice protection.

Question 254/687 Which part of the aircraft's electrical system heats the water and waste system for ice protection?. Visual lighted ice detection. Electronic ice detection system. Engine bleed air. Hot air from the pneumatic system.

Question 255/687 How is the operation of the rain repellent system controlled on the CAPT and F/O sides?. Independently. Simultaneously. Manually. Automatically.

Question 256/687 What is used to initiate a new cycle of rain repellent fluid spray?. Press the P/B once. Press and hold the P/B. Release and press the P/B again. It starts automatically.

Question 257/687 The wing anti-ice supply to both wings is controlled by a single pushbutton switch on the overhead ANTI ICE panel. True. False.

Question 258/687 Engine anti-ice is only available in flight and not on the ground with the engine running. True. False.

Question 259/687 The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton switch is used to select windshield anti-icing when the engines are shut down. True. False.

Question 260/687 Each Control Unit (CU) regulates the heating temperature of the associated drain mast tube between ____________. 0°C (32°F) to 6°C (43°F). 6°C (43°F) to 10°C (50°F). 10°C (50°F) to 15°C (59°F). 15°C (59°F) to 20°C (68°F).

Question 261/687 The system status is sent to the Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) for indication on the ____________. pilot's display. maintenance logbook. Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU).

Question 262/687 If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a ____________ light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). green. red. caution. maintenance.

Question 263/687 The drain mast data is stored in the ____________. aircraft's central server. maintenance logbook. Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).

Question 264/687 To perform a complete test of the drain mast system, two tests must be carried out, one from the MCDU, and the second one on each ____________. flight attendant. maintenance technician. control unit. aircraft.

Question 265/687 The thermal switch in the AC power supply line within the drain mast opens at 120°C (250°F). True. False.

Question 266/687 The system status is sent to the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU) for indication. True. False.

Question 267/687 If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a green light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). True. False.

Question 268/687 What is the purpose of the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system?. Monitoring engine parameters. Displaying weather information. Controlling navigation systems. Managing cabin lighting.

Question 269/687 Which Display Management Computer (DMC) drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD) in normal operation?. DMC 1. DMC 2. DMC 3. DMC 4.

Question 270/687 When does the ADV symbol pulsate on the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. When there's an advisory on another SD page. During takeoff and landing. When a failure is detected by the FWC. When the CAPT PFD and ND fail.

Question 271/687 What does the overflow arrow on the EWD indicate?. Engine failures. Excessive warning messages. Cabin temperature issues. Navigation system problems.

Question 272/687 What is the role of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) in the aircraft system?. Generate warning messages. Compute engine parameters. Receive signals from aircraft systems. Provide navigation guidance.

Question 273/687 In which situations does the Engine/Warning Display (EWD) display the title of a failure and the associated actions to take?. During takeoff and landing only. When there's an advisory on another SD page. When an aural warning is triggered. In case of aircraft system failure.

Question 274/687 How are the CLeaR P/Bs used in response to a system failure?. They turn off the power to the Display Units (DUs). They release the Fault lights on the hydraulic panel. They indicate the phase of the flight. They clear the warnings and cautions.

Question 275/687 What are the primary parameters displayed in the upper area of the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). Slat/flap position. Fuel On Board (FOB). All.

Question 276/687 The Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system displays weather information. True. False.

Question 277/687 In normal operation, DMC 1 drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD), while DMC 2 drives the First Officer's PFD. True. False.

Question 278/687 The CLeaR P/Bs are used to activate the warnings and cautions. True. False.

Question 279/687 The STATUS REMINDER and RECALL FUNCTION reminds the crew of cleared warnings. True. False.

Question 280/687 The System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) send data to the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays. True. False.

Question 281/687 Level 3 alerts correspond to an emergency configuration where corrective or palliative action must be taken by the crew __________. immediately. without any action. after a crew meeting. during routine maintenance.

Question 282/687 A primary failure is a failure of an equipment or system causing the loss of __________ equipment. secondary. other. independent. advisory.

Question 283/687 In ECAM Normal Dual Display mode, the flashing ADV symbol indicates multiple advisories on different pages or a failure __________. on the currently displayed page. detected by the FWC. requiring immediate action. in the ECP.

Question 284/687 In ECAM MONO Display mode, when a value drifts from its normal range, a white ADV message flashes in the center of the EWD to attract crew __________. monitoring. attention. routine maintenance. emergency response.

Question 285/687 Level 3 warnings are associated with a Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC), warning messages on Liquid Crystal Display (LCD), and a flashing __________. caution light. advisory light. caution message. master warining lighh.

Question 286/687 Level 2 alerts require immediate crew awareness but not immediate __________ action. emergency. corrective. advisory. monitoring.

Question 287/687 What happens when the PFD unit is switched off by its potentiometer?. ND is automatically displayed on the PFD unit. The PFD image remains on the PFD unit. The ND image is automatically displayed on the ND unit. The ECAM single display mode is activated.

Question 288/687 How is the PFD/ND transfer (XFR) performed?. Physically swapping the PFD and ND units. Manually switching the PFD/ND outputs inside the DMC. Automatically by the ECAM Control Panel. Through the use of SDAC.

Question 289/687 What happens when the upper EWD display fails?. Upper display is automatically transferred to the lower display. ECAM single display mode is activated. The ECAM/ND transfer selector is activated. Both PFD and ND units fail.

Question 290/687 What reconfiguration options are available in case of lower DU failure?. No automatic reconfiguration is possible. The ECAM works in dual display mode. PFD automatically takes over the lower DU. ND image is displayed on the PFD.

Question 291/687 In case of lower DU failure or if the lower display is turned to off, no automatic reconfiguration is possible, and the ECAM works in __________ display mode. single display mode. dual. triple. full.

Question 292/687 In case of EWD unit and SD unit failure, each crew member can permanently present the EWD on the ND unit by rotating the ECAM/ND transfer selector switch on the switching panel. True. False.

Question 293/687 It is still possible to recover a system page by pushing and holding a system key on the ECP. True. False.

Question 294/687 How should the annunciator light switch be set to test the clock?. On. Off. Test. Reset.

Question 295/687 What is the operational consequence of Class 1 failures?. Affects flight. No operational consequence. Only affects the cockpit. Requires maintenance.

Question 296/687 What does the crew report in the logbook after a malfunction?. Cockpit effect. Flight time. Weather conditions. Maintenance procedures.

Question 297/687 What are the two primary functions of the Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU)?. Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and Data Management Unit (DMU). Data Loading Selector (DLS) and Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU). Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) and Quick Access Recorder (QAR). Linear Accelerometer (LA) and System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC).

Question 298/687 What does the FDIU-part of the FDIMU do with the input parameters?. Transmits them to the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). Converts, compares, and checks them. Records them in data frames. Routes them to the Data Loading Routing Box (DLRB).

Question 299/687 When does the FDIU-part check the integrity of the mandatory parameters during a flight?. Continuously throughout the flight. After the engines are shut down. Before engine start. Only during maintenance checks.

Question 300/687 What is the purpose of the underwater locator beacon on the DFDR?. To activate the DFDR. To provide the location of the recorder in water after an accident. To transmit data to the CFDIU. To control the power interlock circuit.

Question 301/687 How long does the DFDR store data?. 24 hours. 48 hours. 25 hours. 72 hours.

Question 302/687 What type of data frames are stored in the Quick Access Recorder (QAR)?. Identical to the DFDR data frames. Data frames with additional information. Video data frames. Audio data frames.

Question 303/687 What is the purpose of the Data Loading Selector (DLS)?. To select the computer on which data will be loaded. To upload or download data. To stow data disks. To route data between the disk unit and target computer.

Question 304/687 The Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU) combines two functions: the Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and the ____________. Data Management Unit (DMU). Quick Access Recorder (QAR). System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC). Linear Accelerometer (LA).

Question 305/687 The FDIU-part of the FDIMU converts, compares, and checks the input parameters for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), optional Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). This conversion process is crucial for data ____________. recording. transmission. storage. analysis.

Question 306/687 The DFDR stores data for the last ____________ hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. 24. 48. 25. 72.

Question 307/687 The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) records the same data parameters as the DFDR but is primarily used for on-ground performance, maintenance, and condition monitoring tasks. It also includes Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) functions to ensure data ____________. accuracy. integrity. encryption. compression.

Question 308/687 The LA generates an analog signal, which is then digitalized and sent to the FDIU-part through an ____________ bus. Ethernet. USB. ARINC 429. HDMI.

Question 309/687 The Data Loading Selector (DLS) is responsible for selecting the ____________ on which data will be loaded during maintenance processes. computer. technician. disk drive. software.

Question 310/687 The Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU) is used to upload or download data, and it has a stowage box with a maximum capacity of ____________ data disks. 12. 24. 36. 42.

Question 311/687 The FDIU-part of the FDIMU records data frames for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). True. False.

Question 312/687 The DFDR stores data for up to 48 hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. True. False.

Question 313/687 The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) primarily records data for in-flight analysis and crash recording purposes. True. False.

Question 314/687 The Linear Accelerometer (LA) measures acceleration in all three axes, with a range of measurement from -3 to +6 g in the vertical (Z) axis. True. False.

Question 315/687 What controls the gear and door sequencing in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU). Landing Gear. Gravity extension crank handle. ABCU.

Question 316/687 When does the active LGCIU change in the extension/retraction system?. After each gear cycle. During a DOWN selection. When a failure occurs in the active LGCIU. When the LGCIUs are electrically segregated.

Question 317/687 In what conditions is normal braking obtained?. With the parking brake OFF. When gear control lever is set to UP. Without green hydraulic pressure. With A/SKID switch OFF.

Question 318/687 When is electrical control for normal braking obtained?. In flight when the gear control lever is set to UP. On the ground by the auto brake system. When the green hydraulic pressure is available. Through the pedals.

Question 319/687 What system energizes the alternate brake system in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Green hydraulic system. Brake accumulator. Normal brake system. Parking Brake control switch.

Question 320/687 When does the ABCU become active in the alternate brake system?. When normal brake system is defective. When the A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is OFF. When the green system has low hydraulic pressure. When the BSCU is working properly.

Question 321/687 What happens if there is a BSCU failure or low pressure in the hydraulic systems in relation to the anti-skid function?. The pilot must use the triple pressure indicator to control brake pressure. The ABCU sets a minimum limit of 1000 PSI for brake pressure. The anti-skid function is lost, and braking is unavailable. The A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is disabled.

Question 322/687 How many full brake pedal applications can be done with the accumulator pressure alone?. 3. 7. Unlimited. 5.

Question 323/687 What are the limits for the N/WS angle controlled by the BSCU?. Rudder pedals: max 6 degrees; Hand wheels: max 74 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 10 degrees; Hand wheels: max 50 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 5 degrees; Hand wheels: max 80 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 8 degrees; Hand wheels: max 60 degrees.

Question 324/687 What does the Brake Temperature Monitoring Unit (BTMU) transmit to the BSCU?. Brake temperature data. Hydraulic pressure. Brake pedal inputs. Brake accumulator pressure.

Question 325/687 If a failure occurs in the active LGCIU, the __________ LGCIU becomes active. secondary. standby. duplicate. alternate.

Question 326/687 Normal braking is obtained when: - The green hydraulic pressure is available, - The Anti/SKID and Nose/Wheel Steering control switch is in the __________ position, - The Parking Brake control switch is in the OFF position. ON. OFF. standby. alternate.

Question 327/687 Electrical control is obtained: - Through the pedals, - Automatically on the ground by the auto brake system, - In flight when the gear control lever is set to __________ (in-flight braking). UP. DOWN. OFF. ON.

Question 328/687 The alternate brake system is energized by the __________ hydraulic system. green. yellow. red. blue.

Question 329/687 Under what conditions does the ABCU get automatically activated?. When the anti-skid is faulty. When the A/SKID switch is selected to OFF (BSCU OFF). When the BSCU is serviceable. When the pressure downstream the selector valve drops below a given threshold.

Question 330/687 What functions can be controlled by the landing gear panel in the Airbus A320?. Brake accumulator pressure. Anti-skid and nose wheel steering. Parking brake electrical control. Tachometer readings.

Question 331/687 How do the BSCU and ABCU receive inputs from the landing gear panel?. Wirelessly. Through hydraulic connections. Electrically. Pneumatically.

Question 332/687 What information does the triple indicator provide in the Airbus A320?. Landing gear panel status. Brake accumulator supply pressure. Brake assembly version. Brake temperature readings.

Question 333/687 When does the parking brake control valve override all other braking modes?. When the parking brake handle is closed. When normal braking is unavailable. When the pedals are depressed. When the pressure commanded by the pedal deflection exceeds the pressure delivered by the park brake system.

Question 334/687 Which hydraulic system supplies the brake accumulator?. Normal hydraulic system. Yellow hydraulic system. Alternate hydraulic system. Green hydraulic system.

Question 335/687 What is the primary function of the brake accumulator in the Airbus A320 braking system?. Control landing gear deployment. Supply pressure to the alternate brake system. Regulate brake temperature. Operate the parking brake.

Question 336/687 The landing gear panel includes a toggle switch for anti-skid and nose wheel steering function inhibition. True. False.

Question 337/687 The triple indicator provides pressure indication for the left and right brake units when PARKING BRAKE is set to ON. True. False.

Question 338/687 Each main wheel of the Airbus A320 has pneumatic brakes. True. False.

Question 339/687 The parking brake electrical control valve is manually operated by the pilot. True. False.

Question 340/687 The brake accumulator is primarily supplied from the green hydraulic system. True. False.

Question 341/687 What is the purpose of an ANNunciator LighT test?. To control the cockpit lighting. To control the cabin lighting. To test the aircraft engines. To operate the landing lights.

Question 342/687 How are ANN LTs supplied with power in an emergency?. From AC1 supply. From AC2 supply. From 115 VAC STATic INVerter bus. From ESSential supply.

Question 343/687 Where are ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS located?. In the cockpit. In the avionics compartment. In the passenger cabin. In the engine room.

Question 344/687 How many relays supply the ANN LTs when the switch 33LP is in the TEST position?. 1 relay. 2 relays. 4 relays. 10 relays.

Question 345/687 Where is the COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH located?. In the avionics compartment. On the overhead control panel. In the cabin. 2000 VU Panel.

Question 346/687 How are cabin lights controlled in the aircraft?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication Data System. Through the landing gear. Through the cockpit controls. Through the engine system.

Question 347/687 What is the purpose of DEUs in controlling cabin lights?. To control the engine. To control the cockpit lights. To control the fluorescent lamps. To control the landing gear.

Question 348/687 How many strobe lights are installed at each wingtip and tail cone?. One strobe light. Two strobe lights. Three strobe lights. Four strobe lights.

Question 349/687 What does the "STROBE LT OFF" ECAM memo message indicate?. The strobe lights are malfunctioning. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are dimming.

Question 350/687 What triggers the NEOL indication on the strobe light assemblies?. A landing gear malfunction. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are near the end of their useful life.

Question 351/687 What is the purpose of wing and engine scan lights?. To signal to air traffic control. To illuminate the wings and engine air intake. To control the landing gear. To provide light for passengers.

Question 352/687 The ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS are located in the passenger cabin. True. False.

Question 353/687 The COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH has only two positions: DIM and BRT. True. False.

Question 354/687 DEUs control the cabin fluorescent lamps based on signals from the FAP. True. False.

Question 355/687 The entry fluorescent lamps can be controlled with buttons on the Passengers Service Unit (PSU). True. False.

Question 356/687 7. The passenger reading lights are adjustable to different brightness levels. True. False.

Question 357/687 The NEOL indication on the wingtip light assemblies indicates that the lights are at the end of their useful life. True. False.

Question 358/687 1. What is the composition of the ADIRS?. Three Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs). Two Air Data Reference (ADR) units. Four Inertial Reference (IR) units. One Air Data Module (ADM).

Question 359/687 2. How are ADIRUs interfaced with the Mode Selector Unit MSU?. Via AOA, TAT, and ADM inputs. Via PFDs, NDs, and ECAM SD. Via FACs, WXR system, and DDRMI. Via Air Traffic Control (ATC) system and ISA.

Question 360/687 3. What are the inputs for the ADM?. One pressure input and several discrete inputs. Two pressure inputs and one discrete input. Multiple pressure inputs only. Single pressure input only.

Question 361/687 4. What does the ADM output to the ADIRU?. ARINC bus with digital pressure information. Analog signal with temperature data. GPS coordinates and altitude information. Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) data.

Question 362/687 5. How are gyros and accelerometers attached in a strapdown IRS?. Solidly attached to the aircraft structure. Attached to the wings of the aircraft. Suspended freely within the aircraft. Mounted on the cockpit dashboard.

Question 363/687 6. What does the ring laser gyro measure?. Inertial rotation data. Magnetic field strength. Air temperature variations. GPS signal strength.

Question 364/687 7. How do ring laser gyros measure rotation?. By detecting differences in laser beam frequencies. By analyzing magnetic field variations. By measuring changes in air pressure. By tracking GPS satellite positions.

Question 365/687 8. What is the primary output of the ring laser gyros?. Analog rotation information. Digital altitude data. Magnetic heading information. Inertial velocity measurements.

Question 366/687 9. What do the accelerometers in the ADIRUs provide?. Linear accelerations. Barometric altitude data. Air temperature variations. Aircraft ground speed.

Question 367/687 10. How is the acceleration signal processed in the ADIRUs?. Sent to an analog/digital converter. Transmitted directly to the MMR units. Converted into GPS coordinates. Sent to the Weather Radar system.

Question 368/687 11. . How is the ILS descent axis determined?. By the intersection of a Localizer and Glide Slope beam. By GPS coordinates. By analyzing air pressure variations. By the aircraft's altitude.

Question 369/687 12. What is the primary function of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)?. Supply signals transmitted by ground stations. Provide GPS coordinates. Measure atmospheric corrections. Control air traffic in the vicinity of the airport.

Question 370/687 13. How is a descent axis determined in the ILS?. By the intersection of a Localizer beam and Glide Slope beam. By analyzing the aircraft's altitude. By measuring magnetic field variations. By tracking GPS satellite positions.

Question 371/687 14. What is the primary purpose of the GPS (Global Positioning System)?. Provide accurate navigation information. Control air traffic. Measure atmospheric pressure variations. Transmit signals to ILS ground stations.

Question 372/687 15. How is the GPS spatial segment composed in terms of satellite arrangement?. 24 satellites in six separate orbital planes. 12 satellites in one orbital plane. 48 satellites in 12 orbital planes. 6 satellites in a single orbital plane.

Question 373/687 16. Where are the Multi-mode Receivers (MMR) typically located on the aircraft?. In the forward avionics bay 90VU. In the cockpit dashboard. On the wings of the aircraft. In the upper fuselage near the GPS antennas.

Question 374/687 17. What are the external sensors that provide inputs to the ADIRUs in the ADIRS system?. Angle Of Attack (AOA), Total Air Temperature (TAT), and Air Data Module (ADM). Static Air Temperature (SAT), International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), and Total Air Temperature (TAT). Static ports, Pitot probes, and AOA sensors. GPS coordinates, ground speed, and altitude.

Question 375/687 18. What are the primary components of the WXR and PWS system?. Weather radar transceiver and weather antenna drive. Aircraft engines and landing gear. Avionics bay and ILS. Weather radar transmitter/receiver and dual weather radar control unit.

Question 376/687 19. How is the weather radar image displayed on the navigation displays (NDs)?. Independently on the CAPT ND only. Independently on the F/O ND only. Independently on both CAPT and F/O NDs. Not displayed on NDs.

Question 377/687 20. What precautions must be taken before using the Weather Radar (WXR) system on the ground in specific modes?. Ensure the aircraft is refueled within 100 m. Maintain a 1.5 m clearance from the antenna. Avoid metallic obstacles within 5 m arc of ± 90º. Operate the system in any weather conditions.

Question 378/687 21. Why should the WINDSHEAR AUTO/OFF selector switch be selected OFF when not in use?. To conserve power. To avoid nuisance aural alerts. To improve ground surveillance. To enhance weather radar performance.

Question 379/687 22. The PWS function detects the windshear event if measurable ____ occurs during the event. precipitation. turbulence. wind speed. disturbances.

Question 380/687 23. The primary components of the WXR/PWS system include a weather radar transceiver, a dual weather radar control unit, a single weather antenna drive, a weather radar antenna, and a weather radar _____. transmitter/receiver. receiver. display unit. transmitter.

Question 381/687 24. Special precautions must be taken before using the Weather Radar (WXR) system on the ground in MAP, WX, or WINDSHEAR mode. The dangerous zone forward of the aircraft must be free of metallic obstacles such as hangars or aircraft, within 5 m in an arc of + or - 90º on either side of the aircraft _____. direction. radar. nose. centerline.

Question 382/687 Why is the crew oxygen system used?. To supply oxygen during normal flight. To supply oxygen during cabin pressurization loss. To supply oxygen during passenger emergencies. To supply oxygen to the cabin attendants.

Question 383/687 How is the pressure of the oxygen cylinder indicated to the crew?. By a pressure regulator. By a direct-reading pressure gauge. By a pressure switch. By a low-pressure warning light.

Question 384/687 Under what conditions do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?. When the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet. When a passenger pushes the MASK MANual ON button. When a crew member pushes the MASK MANual ON button.

Question 385/687 What happens when the TiMeR RESET pushbutton is pushed in the passenger oxygen system?. The masks retract automatically. The electrical system is rearmed. The passenger address system is activated. The oxygen supply is shut off.

Question 386/687 What initiates the chemical generation in the oxygen masks?. Pulling the mask towards the user's face. Pressing the oxygen supply button. Opening the container door. Pushing the ON white light.

Question 387/687 How many Crew oxygen bottles the A320 Neo has?. 1. 3. 2. None.

Question 388/687 What is the purpose of the tamper seal in the portable oxygen container?. To indicate the oxygen level. To indicate if the PBE is operational. To show if the container is properly sealed. To signal low oxygen pressure.

Question 389/687 The oxygen system includes: the crew system, the passenger system & the portable system. the crew system, the passenger system & the ground system. the portable system. None all above.

Question 390/687 The flight crew oxygen system is used if there is a loss of cabin pressurization or ____________ in the cockpit. Fire. Water. Smoke. smoke or dangerous gases.

Question 391/687 The high-pressure portable cylinder includes continuous-flow type masks and supplies first aid oxygen to ____________. the passengers. the cargo hold,. the overhead bins,. the cabin attendants.

Question 392/687 There are two types of chemical generators supplying oxygen for 15 minutes or 22 minutes. True. False.

Question 393/687 The Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) is designed to help crew members and cabin attendants extinguish fires by supplying oxygen. True. False.

Question 394/687 The high-pressure portable cylinder supplies oxygen to passengers in case of an emergency. True. False.

Question 395/687 The flight crew oxygen is supplied from a high-pressure oxygen cylinder at a pressure of 127.5 bar (1.850 psig). True. False.

Question 396/687 The oxygen cylinder in the flight crew oxygen system is installed in a cradle with two quick-release clamps in the R/H avionics compartment. True. False.

Question 397/687 Low-pressure safety outlets are part of the safety devices that protect the crew oxygen system. True. False.

Question 398/687 What are the primary purposes of the pneumatic system on the Airbus A320?. Air conditioning and engine start. Fuel Tank Inerting System and pressurization. Anti-icing and ground power unit supply. All of the above.

Question 399/687 When can high-pressure air be supplied to the pneumatic system from external ground sources?. Only during engine start. Only during anti-icing procedures. Both on the ground and in flight. Never.

Question 400/687 Which engine compressor stages supply bleed air to the pneumatic system?. Only HP stage. Only IP stage. Both IP and HP stages. Neither IP nor HP stage.

Question 401/687 What is the purpose of the High-Pressure Bleed Valve (HPV)?. To maintain high pressure in the pneumatic system. To supply air when engines are at low power. To regulate the temperature of the bleed air. To monitor system pressure.

Question 402/687 Where is the Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV) installed in the pneumatic system?. Upstream of the IP bleed valve. Downstream of the HP bleed valve. Downstream of the IP and HP bleed valves. Upstream of the High Pressure Bleed Valve (HPV).

Question 403/687 Which components of the pneumatic system are primarily installed on the engines and in the pylons?. Pressure regulation components. Temperature regulation components. Leak detection components. Crossbleed valve components.

Question 404/687 What happens if one Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails?. The associated FAULT light is lost. The associated bleed valve closes automatically. The overpressure warning is activated. Both BMCs exchange data via ARINC bus.

Question 405/687 The temperature of the engine bleed air is regulated by passing it through an air-to-air heat exchanger called the ________________. precooler. fan discharge. crossbleed. APU supply.

Question 406/687 Both Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) receive signals from the leak detection loops. They exchange data via an ARINC bus for wing double loop detection. The wing loops A are connected to BMC 1, and wing loops B are connected to BMC 2. The crosstalk bus allows wing leak warnings to be activated through an ________________. OR logic. XOR logic. AND logic. NOT logic.

Question 407/687 How is the engine air bleed pressure pneumatically regulated in the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

Question 408/687 When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

Question 409/687 What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high altitude.

Question 410/687 Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF. Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire. Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft. Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature.

Question 411/687 The engine air bleed pressure is pneumatically regulated by the __________ when air is supplied by the HP stage, or by the __________ when the air is supplied by the Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

Question 412/687 When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

Question 413/687 What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high altitude.

Question 414/687 A ground cart may supply the pneumatic system, and the supply duct is located on the left-hand side of the cross bleed valve. Only the LH bleed system is supplied when the X-BLEED selector is in the ____________ position for ground air supply. OFF. AUTO. OPEN. SHUT.

Question 415/687 When the X-BLEED selector is in the SHUT position, the ground air supply will be available to supply the LH and RH systems ____________. simultaneously. independently. alternately. occasionally.

Question 416/687 The leak detection system is used to detect leaks in the vicinity of the packs, wings, pylons, and APU hot air ducts. Each wing is monitored by a double loop, and the pylon and APU hot air ducts are monitored by a ____________ loop. dual. redundant. single. triple.

Question 417/687 The APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system through the APU bleed valve if the APU is ____________. operational. running. stopped. in standby mode.

Question 418/687 What are the three subsystems that make up the water and waste system on Airbus A320 Family aircraft?. Fuel system, electrical system, hydraulic system. Potable water system, waste water system, toilet system. Navigation system, communication system, entertainment system. Landing gear system, engine system, avionics system.

Question 419/687 Where is the potable water tank located in the A318, A319, and A321 aircraft?. In the galleys. In the forward cargo compartment. In the aft cargo compartment. In the lavatories.

Question 420/687 Where is the potable water tank located in the A320 aircraft?. In the forward cargo compartment. In the aft cargo compartment. In the aft bulk cargo. In the galleys zone.

Question 421/687 Which aircraft in the Airbus A320 Family has a different location for the potable water tank compared to the others?. A318. A319. A320. A321.

Question 422/687 What controls the potable water service panel heating, especially in winter conditions?. A thermostat. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). The vacuum toilet system. The water tank.

Question 423/687 Where are the water and waste indications displayed for the flight attendants?. On the cockpit display. On the passenger seats. On the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). On the aircraft's exterior.

Question 424/687 How is used water from the lavatory washbasins and galley sinks discarded in the waste water system?. Stored in a separate tank. Discharged overboard outside. Stored in the cargo compartment. Converted into drinking water.

Question 425/687 What feature is integrated into the drain masts of the waste water system to prevent ice formation?. Heated tapes. Compressed air. Vacuum generator. Electric heating elements.

Question 426/687 What type of system does the toilet system on Airbus A320 Family aircraft use for flushing?. Hydraulic system. Electrical system. Potable water system. Differential pressure toilet system.

Question 427/687 What happens when the waste holding tank is full in the toilet system?. The waste is automatically ejected. The toilet system shuts down. The waste is recycled. The waste is diverted to the potable water tank.

Question 428/687 What provides the necessary differential pressure in the waste system to move waste from the toilet bowl to the tank at low altitude or on the ground?. The cabin air pressure. A vacuum generator. The waste holding tank. The toilet bowl.

Question 429/687 Which system controls the flushing system operation and stops it when the waste servicing panel is open?. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). The potable water system. The Vacuum System Controller Function (VSCF). The waste holding tank.

Question 430/687 Where is the waste holding tank located in the aircraft?. In the lavatories. In the forward cargo compartment. Behind the bulk cargo compartment. In the galleys.

Question 431/687 What components are included in the waste holding tank?. A vacuum generator, a liquid level sensor, and a flush control unit. A water separator, a liquid level transmitter, and an ice prevention system. A waste drain valve, two rinse line connections, and a liquid level sensor. A potable water tank, a vacuum system controller, and a heating element.

Question 432/687 What can be insulated in the waste holding tank system as an option?. The vacuum generator. The toilet bowl. The potable water tank. The lines between the tank and the service panel.

Question 433/687 Why are the lines between the waste holding tank and the service panel insulated and heated?. To keep the waste warm. To prevent freezing and ice formation. To improve waste disposal efficiency. To save energy.

Question 434/687 What controls and monitors the system functions and related electric components in the vacuum toilet system?. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). The waste holding tank. The Flush Control Unit (FCU). The Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS).

Question 435/687 What happens when the waste holding tank is full in the toilet system?. The waste is automatically ejected. The toilet system shuts down. The waste is recycled. The waste is diverted to the potable water tank.

Question 436/687 The water and waste indications are displayed automatically as soon as the service panel is open. True. False.

Question 437/687 On the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP), the filling quantity cannot be selected as an option. True. False.

Question 438/687 There is only one control handle on the water service panel. True. False.

Question 439/687 On the A320, the overflow valve opens mechanically when the fill/drain control handle is set to the drain position. True. False.

Question 440/687 When does the "Overflow Valve Light" come on, and what does it indicate when the valve is in the open position?. A) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on during draining, indicating that the valve is closed. B) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on during filling, indicating that the valve is open. C) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on when the air compressor is activated. D) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on when the tank is empty.

Question 441/687 The Fill/Drain control handle is initially positioned to "drain" when filling the water tank. True. False.

Question 442/687 The "Green Tank Full Light" comes on when the tank is empty. True. False.

Question 443/687 What happens when the toilet service panel door is open on the ground?. A) All toilet operations are stopped through DEU B. B) Flush signals are inhibited. C) The vacuum generator starts automatically. D) The waste holding tank is drained.

Question 444/687 What is the primary purpose of the drain control handle located at the service panel?. A) Initiating the vacuum generator. B) Controlling cabin pressurization. C) Initiating waste holding tank draining. D) Activating the DEU B.

Question 445/687 When is the drain control handle used during ground service?. A) To activate the vacuum generator valve. B) To stop all toilet operations. C) To initiate cabin pressurization. D) To operate the vacuum generator motor.

Question 446/687 What is the purpose of opening the cap of the waste drain connection during the servicing process?. A) To check for leaks from the waste drain connection. B) To connect the toilet service vehicle drain hose. C) To flush the waste tank with disinfectant solution. D) To activate the vacuum system.

Question 447/687 The Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) includes two sub-systems: a) The Fuel Tank Ventilation System (FTVS). b) The Air Conditioning System (ACS). c) The Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). d) The Airplane Mode Selector (AMS).

Question 448/687 The CSAS gets hot air from the Engine bleed air system and decreases its temperature to a level compatible with the IGGS sub-system. a) The CSAS Inert Gas Generation System (IGGS). b) The CSAS Conditioned Service Air System (CSAS). c) The CSAS Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). d) The CSAS Air Conditioning System (ACS).

Question 449/687 Engine 1 is the primary bleed source and Eng 2, through the X Bleed valve, is the secondary bleed source. a) Engine 1 is the secondary bleed source. b) Engine 2 is the primary bleed source. c) Engine 2 is the secondary bleed source. d) Engine 1 is the primary bleed source.

Question 450/687 The bypass valve is installed in the heat exchanger bypass duct and is controlled by the CSAS. a) The bypass valve adds cold air downstream of the heat exchanger. b) The bypass valve adds hot air downstream of the heat exchanger. c) The bypass valve controls the ozone converter. d) The bypass valve is not used in the CSAS.

Question 451/687 If there is over-pressure or over-temperature, the CSAS isolation valve closes to stop the system. a) The CSAS isolation valve opens to release pressure. b) The CSAS isolation valve remains unaffected by temperature changes. c) The CSAS isolation valve closes in normal operation. d) The CSAS isolation valve has no impact on pressure.

Question 452/687 In normal operation, the CSAS isolation valve is open to let the air go through the ozone converter. a) The CSAS isolation valve remains closed. b) The CSAS isolation valve opens after the ozone converter. c) The CSAS isolation valve opens after the heat exchanger. d) The CSAS isolation valve is not used in normal operation.

Question 453/687 If a failure of the CSAS system occurs, the status message "INERT FAULT" will come into view only in flight phase 1 and 10, for maintenance. a) The status message appears in all flight phases. b) The status message appears only in flight phase 2. c) The status message appears only in flight phase 1 and 10. d) The status message never appears.

Question 454/687 The MEL tells that the A/C can be dispatched with the system unserviceable for 10 days with no maintenance procedure. a) The MEL allows dispatch with unlimited unserviceable days. b) The MEL requires maintenance immediately. c) The MEL allows a 10-day dispatch without maintenance. d) The MEL does not mention dispatch conditions.

Question 455/687 In normal operation, the bleed air is filtered by the. CSAS and D-ULPA filter. HPGC door and ASM. ICU and DFSOV. ASM and HPGC door.

Question 456/687 Downstream of the D-ULPA filter, air parameters are sent to. DFSOV and ASM. ICU and ASM. Oxygen sensor and ASM. HPGC door and DFSOV.

Question 457/687 In abnormal operation, if there is overpressure or overtemperature, the ICU de-energizes the. IGGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid and the DFSOV solenoid. HPGC door and ASM. DFSOV solenoid and the oxygen sensor. Oxygen sensor and the ASM.

Question 458/687 If the oxygen sensor senses an oxygen rate higher than 12% during abnormal operation, the ICU de-energizes the. DFSOV solenoid and the IGGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid. ASM and HPGC door. HPGC door and the DFSOV solenoid. IGGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid and the oxygen sensor.

Question 459/687 The ASM is the core of the Inert Gas Generation System, and it removes oxygen to produce. Oxygen Enriched Air (OEA) and Nitrogen Enriched Air (NEA). Hydrocarbons and dust. Oxygen and hydrocarbons. OEA and HPGC door.

Question 460/687 An ASM is a semi-permeable hollow-fiber membrane bundle contained in a. Pressure containment canister. D-ULPA filter. CSAS. HPGC door.

Question 461/687 In normal operation, the DFSOV is __________ and isolates the IGGS from the center fuel tank. open. closed. partially open. malfunctioning.

Question 462/687 The ICU supplies the two solenoids of the DFSOV to control the DFSOV position (OPEN/CLOSE) and to control the NEA flow _______. LOW. HIGH. MI. LOW/MI/HIGH.

Question 463/687 What is the primary function of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?. Electrical power generation. Engine thrust. Fuel storage. Wing anti-ice.

Question 464/687 Besides electrical power, what else does the APU provide?. Engine cooling. Air conditioning in-flight, bleed air for various functions. Navigation assistance. Oxygen supply.

Question 465/687 When does the air intake flap open and close?. Opens when APU is ON, closes when OFF. Opens during landing, closes during takeoff. Opens during takeoff, closes during landing. Opens when the main engines are running.

Question 466/687 What is the purpose of the air intake flap?. Engine cooling. Reducing noise. Pneumatic supply, combustion air supply. Preventing fires.

Question 467/687 Where is the APU installed on the aircraft?. In the cockpit. In the wing. In the fuselage tail cone. In the landing gear.

Question 468/687 How is vibration transmission reduced between the APU and the aircraft structure?. Through tie rods,Through isolators. Through fuselage. Through exhaust muffler. Through air intake.

Question 469/687 How is the APU attached to the structure brackets in the APU compartment ceiling?. Through tie rods. Through bolts. Through welding. Through adhesive.

Question 470/687 What is the purpose of the vibration isolators in the APU mounting system?. To increase vibration. To reduce noise, prevent transmission of vibrations. To transfer vibrations to the aircraft structure. To connect to the APU three-point mounting system.

Question 471/687 What is the primary purpose of the drain system in the APU compartment?. To collect fluids for reuse. To prevent fluid accumulation. To supply water for aircraft cleaning. To collect APU exhaust gases.

Question 472/687 How are fluids collected and removed from the APU compartment?. Through a drain mast. Through an APU exhaust pipe. Through an APU cooling system. Through an APU fuel line.

Question 473/687 The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is a constant-speed ________ engine. electric. jet. gas turbine. propeller.

Question 474/687 The APU provides electrical power for the aircraft systems, bleed air for various functions, and bleed air cutoff above the specified ________ limit. altitude. temperature. manufacturer. speed.

Question 475/687 The air intake flap opens when the APU MASTER SWITCH is set to ON and closes when the MASTER SWITCH is set to OFF and the APU ________. When open, it supplies air to the APU inlet for combustion and pneumatic supply. starts. stalls. accelerates. stops.

Question 476/687 In case of failure, the air intake flap can be opened or closed manually by a manual ________ device. override. control. lever. switch.

Question 477/687 The APU is installed in a fireproof compartment located in the fuselage ________ cone. wing. tail. nose. cockpit.

Question 478/687 Vibration isolators are installed between the APU mount brackets and the tie rods to reduce the transmission of A/C vibrations and shocks to the APU. The isolators also prevent the transmission of vibrations from the APU to the A/C ________. wings. engines. structure. cockpit.

Question 479/687 The air intake system ducts ambient air to the APU plenum chamber. An air intake flap cuts off the air supply when the APU does not operate. In case of failure, the air intake flap can be opened or closed manually by a manual ________ device. override. control. lever. switch.

Question 480/687 The air intake duct, which is composed of a diffuser and elbow, provides correct airflow to the APU plenum. The air intake duct is attached to the ________ access door. left. right. top. rear.

Question 481/687 The exhaust system lets the APU exhaust gas flow into the atmosphere and muffles the ________ from the exhaust. The exhaust muffler thermal insulation protects the A/C structure. smoke. noise. heat. vibration.

Question 482/687 The exhaust muffler thermal insulation protects the A/C ________. wings. engines. structure. cockpit.

Question 483/687 Two access doors allow access to the APU compartment. The access doors on the bottom of the tail cone open ________ to allow the APU to be inspected, lifted, and lowered. inward. outward. upward. downward.

Question 484/687 Two access doors allow access to the APU compartment. The access doors on the bottom of the tail cone open outward to allow the APU to be inspected, lifted, and ________. secured. fixed. raised. lowered.

Question 485/687 A drain system prevents the collection of fluids in the APU compartment. Any fluid that may accumulate in the APU compartment is delivered to a ________ mast. Some of the fluids are collected in a drain tank in the APU compartment, which is emptied through the drain mast when the A/C is above 200 kt. fuel. drain. water. hydraulic.

Question 486/687 The Structure Repair Manual is a customized document exclusive to specific airlines. True. False.

Question 487/687 The introduction chapter of the SRM provides airplane information such as Weight Variant and Airplane Allocation List. True. False.

Question 488/687 The weight variant given in the Airplane allocation list always represents the current status of the aircraft. True. False.

Question 489/687 For permanent repairs with inspection program, inspections are not quoted along with the repair. True. False.

Question 490/687 Each subject within the SRM uses a four-element numbering system. True. False.

Question 491/687 What is the first document to use to assess damage on the aircraft structure?. Aircraft Operation Manual. Pilot's Handbook. Structure Repair Manual. Maintenance Manual.

Question 492/687 Where is general information or information applicable to more than one chapter included in the SRM?. Chapter 50. Chapter 51. Chapter 52. Chapter 53.

Question 493/687 In the "MOD/Definition Comparison" service, what does the "Aircraft status" criterion allow you to filter by?. The family of the aircraft. The type of aircraft. The status of the aircraft (e.g. delivered or to be delivered). The owner ICAO code of the aircraft.

Question 494/687 What is the primary purpose of the Structure Repair Manual (SRM)?. To provide a list of all Airbus aircraft models. To provide guidelines on how to repair aircraft. To provide a history of Airbus. To provide a list of all aircraft manufacturers.

Question 495/687 How is the SRM organized?. By aircraft model. By type of damage. By ATA specification. By date of publication.

Question 496/687 What is the significance of 'Allowable Damage'?. It indicates damage that requires immediate repair. It indicates damage that can be ignored. It indicates damage that can be temporarily tolerated without immediate repair. It indicates damage that has been repaired previously.

Question 497/687 What does a 'gouge' refer to?. A line of damage. A damage area resulting in a cross-sectional change. A mark caused by a sharp object. A series of scratches.

Question 498/687 What causes 'corrosion'?. Physical impact. Chemical or electro-chemical effect. Exposure to high temperatures. Regular wear and tear.

Question 499/687 Which factors determine the type of surface protection for components?. Material and Function. Material, Function, and Location. Function and Location. Only Material.

Question 500/687 Which of the following is NOT an exception to external areas having surface protection?. Leading edges of slats. APU exhaust. Wing flaps. Cabin Pressurization Control System Outflow Valve.

Question 501/687 What is the definition of corrosion?. Enhancement of metals. Destruction of metals by chemical effects. Strengthening of metals. Natural wear and tear of metals.

Question 502/687 Which of the following is NOT a step necessary for satisfactory control of corrosion?. Regular maintenance. Applying heat. Initial identification of corrosion. Complete removal of corrosion when it occurs.

Question 503/687 Which of the following is NOT a corrosive agent?. Acids. Alkalies. Pure water. Salts.

Question 504/687 Which atmosphere can cause special problems due to the presence of oxidized sulphur and nitrogen compounds?. Marine Atmosphere. Industrial Atmosphere. Tropical Atmosphere. Desert Atmosphere.

Question 505/687 How many main zones are the internal areas of an aircraft divided into, in terms of surface protection?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

Question 506/687 Which of the following is NOT a group of protective treatment mentioned?. Pretreatment. Paint coatings. Special coatings. Heat treatments.

Question 507/687 What is the primary purpose of pretreatment of materials?. To add color to the materials. To increase weight. To increase corrosion-resistant properties and provide a good surface for paint adhesion. To make the material shiny.

Question 508/687 What is the primary cause of corrosion in the general atmosphere?. Lack of oxygen. Excess of nitrogen. Moisture and oxygen. Carbon dioxide.

Question 509/687 Which of the following is NOT a step necessary for satisfactory control of corrosion?. Regular maintenance. Applying heat. Initial identification of corrosion. Complete removal of corrosion when it occurs.

Question 510/687 The fastener contact area of the tool must be rough and textured. True. False.

Question 511/687 A clear indication of a loose fastener is when the head of a fastener is rolled upwards at its periphery. True. False.

Question 512/687 If a fastener is suspected to be loose, it should be ignored until the next maintenance cycle. True. False.

Question 513/687 The use of a washer under a nut/collar is only permitted when used in the original construction. True. False.

Question 514/687 It's always recommended to use two washers instead of one under the nut/collar. True. False.

Question 515/687 The hand hammering method is the most recommended method for installing rivets in the aircraft structure. True. False.

Question 516/687 What type of doors are the forward and aft passenger doors of the Airbus A320 Family?. Swing-type doors. Sliding doors. Plug-type doors that open upward, outward, and forward. Hydraulic doors that open automatically.

Question 517/687 How do the passenger doors of the Airbus A320 Family open?. Open inward and upward. Swing outward and downward. Open upward, outward, and forward parallel to fuselage. Automatically open and close hydraulically.

Question 518/687 What is the purpose of the slide ARMING/DISARMING lever on the passenger doors?. Control cabin temperature. Activate emergency lighting. Disarm the escape slide. Connect the slide to the floor for automatic deployment.

Question 519/687 How does the escape slide on the passenger doors deploy in an emergency?. Automatically inflates when the door is opened from the outside. Manually inflated by passengers. Automatically inflates when the slide-arming lever is disarmed. Requires activation by cabin crew.

Question 520/687 How many overwing emergency exits are typically found on the Airbus A321?. Two exits. Four exits. Six exits. None of the above.

Question 521/687 How can the overwing emergency exits on the A318, A319, and A320 be opened for evacuation?. Only from inside. Only from outside. Both from inside or outside. They cannot be opened for evacuation.

Question 522/687 How are the cargo compartment doors of the Airbus A320 Family operated?. Electrically using the yellow system. Manually with a locking handle. Hydraulically using the blue system. Automatically via the cockpit controls.

Question 523/687 What is the function of the bulk cargo door on the A320 and A321 aircraft?. Provides access to the avionics compartment. Gives access to the bulk cargo compartment. Opens into the passenger cabin. Acts as an emergency exit.

Question 524/687 How are the avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage operated?. Manually. Electrically. Automatically. Using a hand pump.

Question 525/687 What is the purpose of the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) in the Airbus A320 Family?. Control cabin temperature. Prevent unauthorized cockpit access. Manage the escape slide. Activate the emergency lighting.

Question 526/687 How is the cockpit door typically locked when the aircraft is powered?. Manually with a key. Automatically by CDLS. Electronically with a keypad. Physically by flight crew.

Question 527/687 What does the cockpit door escape hatch feature, and how is it kept in position?. Contains emergency supplies. Has a locking handle. Includes a keypad for access authorization. Secured with two pip-pins.

Question 528/687 What components are part of the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) in the Airbus A320 Family?. Cockpit door panel on the pedestal with a toggle switch. Control cabin temperature. Overhead control unit in cockpit with integrated maintenance annunciators. Electrical release strikes.

Question 529/687 What is the purpose of the buzzer located on the cockpit overhead panel?. Control cabin temperature. Prevent unauthorized cockpit access. Activate the emergency lighting. Provide maintenance alerts.

Question 530/687 How does the avionics compartment door locking mechanism operate on the Airbus A320 Family aircraft?. Electrically. Manually. Automatically. Using a hand pump.

Question 531/687 The escape slide inflates automatically when the slide-arming lever is in the _________ position and the door is opened from the inside. armed. disarmed. closed. locked.

Question 532/687 The A321 is equipped with four emergency exit doors located forward and aft of the _________. cockpit. avionics compartment. wing. cargo compartment.

Question 533/687 To activate the evacuation system through the overwing emergency exits on the A318, A319, and A320, authorized personnel must _________ the exits from the inside. disarm. lock. open. activate.

Question 534/687 The cargo compartment doors on the Airbus A320 Family give access to the forward and aft _________ compartments. cargo. cockpit. avionics compartment. passenger.

Question 535/687 In case of electrical failure, the cargo compartment door can be opened manually using a _________. hydraulic system electric pump. hand pump. slide ARMING/DISARMING lever. keypad.

Question 536/687 There are _________ avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage around the nose landing gear bay. two. three. four. five.

Question 537/687 The locking mechanism for the avionics compartment access doors is _________ on each door. different. identical. electronic. manual.

Question 538/687 The cockpit door on the Airbus A320 Family is designed to prevent _________. cabin temperature. hijacking attempts. unauthorized access. mechanical failures.

Question 539/687 The cockpit door escape hatch is secured with two _________ to keep it in position. toggle switches. pip-pins. escape slides. keycards.

Question 540/687 The A318 and A319 are equipped with two overwing emergency exits, and the A319 can optionally have _________ additional exits. one. two. three. four.

Question 541/687 The avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage open _________. inward. outward. upward. downward.

Question 542/687 To perform normal door opening from the outside, one must check that the arming lever is in the _________ position and that the cabin pressure indicator is not flashing. disarmed. armed. locked. opened.

Question 543/687 In case of emergency opening, the arming lever should be in the _________ position, and after pulling the door control handle rapidly fully up and releasing it, the door opens and locks automatically. armed. locked. disarmed. opened.

Question 544/687 How many main parts is the fuselage divided into?. Three. Four. Five. Six.

Question 545/687 What are the names of the main parts that make up the fuselage?. Forward, center, rear, cone. Nose, forward, center, rear, cone. Upper, lower, middle, aft, tip. Front, back, middle, aft, end.

Question 546/687 How does the length of the A321 forward fuselage compare to the A320, and which frames does the additional section (14A) extend between?. It's eight frame bays longer, extending between Fr 35 and Fr 35.8. It's five frame bays longer, extending between Fr 47 and Fr 47.5. It's three frame bays shorter. It's four frame bays shorter.

Question 547/687 The fuselage of the Airbus A320 is divided into five main parts. (True/False). True. False.

Question 548/687 The forward fuselage of the A321 is longer by eight frame bays compared to the A320, and it includes an additional section between frames (Fr) 35 and 35.8. (True/False). True. False.

Question 549/687 The A319 forward fuselage is four frame bays shorter than the A320. (True/False). True. False.

Question 550/687 An additional emergency exit is installed on both sides of the A319 in section 15 to accommodate a cabin capacity of at least 160 passengers. (True/False). True. False.

Question 551/687 The nose forward fuselage contains the nose landing gear bay and access and service door cutouts. (True/False). True. False.

Question 552/687 The nose landing gear bay is shaped by three machined panels reinforced by horizontal and vertical extruded sections attached to the corresponding frames. (True/False). True. False.

Question 553/687 The central panel of the lower fuselage in the nose forward fuselage contains an opening for access between Fr 3 and 5 and the opening for the nose landing gear bay between Fr 9 and 20. (True/False). True. False.

Question 554/687 What is the extent of the cone/rear fuselage section, measured in frame numbers?. Fr 65 to Fr 90. Fr 70 to Fr 87. Fr 60 to Fr 80. Fr 50 to Fr 75.

Question 555/687 What does the rear pressure bulkhead separate within the fuselage?. Pressurized rear fuselage,Un-pressurized cone/rear fuselage. Cargo compartment. Cone rear fuselage. Landing gear bay.

Question 556/687 How is the tail cone unit connected to section 19?. By four lugs and one spigot. Welded joints. Glue and rivets. Bolted connections.

Question 557/687 What is the primary function of the engine pylons installed under each wing?. To support the engine. To house electrical wiring. To support the nacelle. To store fuel.

Question 558/687 Which part of the pylon primarily houses most of the systems connected with the engine?. Secondary structure. Primary structure. Fairings. Fan cowl doors.

Question 559/687 How many points attach the pylon box to the wing?. Three. Four. Two. Five.

Question 560/687 What components make up the stabilizers?. Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS), elevators, vertical stabilizer, and rudder. Wings, ailerons, flaps, and slats. Engines, pylons, and nacelles. Landing gear and doors.

Question 561/687 What is the main structure of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?. Spar boxes. Elevators. Leading edge. Trailing edge.

Question 562/687 What are the primary functions of the engine pylons installed under each wing of the aircraft?. To support the engine, to transmit the engine thrust, to enable the routing and attachment of all the systems connected with the engine. To provide additional lift to the aircraft, to house the landing gear, to store fuel. To provide structural support to the wing, to house the pilot, to store luggage. To house the aircraft's avionics, to support the hydraulic system, to provide additional fuel storage.

Question 563/687 Where can detailed information about the structure of the nacelle be found?. In the aircraft's maintenance manual, In the nacelle manufacturer documentation. In the pylon manufacturer documentation. In the IPC and SRM. In the aircraft's flight operations manual.

Question 564/687 How many points support the engine on the pylon box?. Two points. One point. Three points. Four points.

Question 565/687 The hinge fittings of thrust reverser doors are installed on the forward fairing (secondary structure) of the pylon. True. False.

Question 566/687 The pylon box is attached to the wing at two points. True. False.

Question 567/687 The aft engine to pylon attach fitting is located at Rib 4 for the CFM 56-5 engine configuration. True. False.

Question 568/687 Stabilizers include wings, flaps, slats, and ailerons. True. False.

Question 569/687 The adjustment of the angle of incidence of the THS is achieved by a hydraulic actuator. True. False.

Question 570/687 There are two spar boxes in the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS). True. False.

Question 571/687 The center joint in the spar box assembly is made from aluminum. True. False.

Question 572/687 The leading edge of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) includes avionics and hydraulics. True. False.

Question 573/687 The cockpit has four fixed windows: two windshields and two fixed side windows that can be removed from the exterior. True. False.

Question 574/687 The sliding windows in the cockpit can only be opened and controlled from the outside of the aircraft. True. False.

Question 575/687 Cabin windows consist of a seal, inner and outer panes made of stretched acrylic resin, held together by a seal. True. False.

Question 576/687 In normal operation, both the inner and outer panes of cabin windows are pressurized to maintain cabin pressure. True. False.

Question 577/687 Circular windows on passenger/crew doors and emergency exit doors are used for inspection and observation. True. False.

Question 578/687 The inner pane of door windows is not designed to maintain cabin pressure in case of outer pane failure. True. False.

Question 579/687 The cockpit has both fixed and sliding windows. True. False.

Question 580/687 The windshield panes in the cockpit are made of hard glass and are not interchangeable between different suppliers. True. False.

Question 581/687 The fixed side windows in the cockpit are held by retainers bolted onto the outer surface of the frame. True. False.

Question 582/687 The fixed side windows have an integral anti-icing and defogging system. True. False.

Question 583/687 The sliding windows in the cockpit can be controlled from inside the cockpit and used as emergency exits. True. False.

Question 584/687 The sliding windows have only one layer of glass without interlayers. True. False.

Question 585/687 Cabin windows are installed and removed from the inside of the aircraft. True. False.

Question 586/687 The inner pane of cabin windows is pressurized in normal operation. True. False.

Question 587/687 Door windows are used for inspection and observation to check if the cabin is pressurized or to verify if the outside is clear. True. False.

Question 588/687 The outer pane of door windows has a vent hole that allows pressurization only in normal operation. True. False.

Question 589/687 The primary function of the sliding windows in an emergency is to act as ______. ventilation. observation points. emergency exits. additional lighting.

Question 590/687 The windshields are equipped with an anti-icing and ______ system. anti-fogging. defogging. heating. cooling.

Question 591/687 The windshield panes are mounted with retainers on the ______ surface of the frame. inner. outer. top. bottom.

Question 592/687 The fixed side windows are installed with an integral ______ system. heating. anti-icing. defogging. cooling.

Question 593/687 Cabin windows are installed and removed from ______. the exterior. the inside. either side. the top.

Question 594/687 The inner pane of the cabin windows is designed to ______ cabin pressure. increase. decrease. maintain. monitor.

Question 595/687 The circular windows help check from outside if the cabin is ______. pressurized. ventilated. illuminated. conditioned.

Question 596/687 In case of outer pane failure, the ______ pane is able to maintain the cabin pressure. outer. inner. cockpit. passenger.

Question 597/687 The circular windows are essential for verifying if the outside is clear for ______. landing gear deployment. engine start. door opening/slide deployment. air conditioning activation.

Question 598/687 Which spoiler is connected to the false rear spar?. Spoiler 1. Spoiler 2. Spoiler 3. Spoiler 4.

Question 599/687 How are the bottom surface access panels of the fixed leading edge attached?. With screws. With adhesive. With quick release fasteners. With bolts.

Question 600/687 Which component of the A321 flaps is made of honeycomb core with a skin made of aluminum sheet metal?. Leading edge. Flap box. Trailing edge. Tab.

Question 601/687 What is the primary function of the rubbing strip on the outer surface of the top skin of the flaps?. To enhance aerodynamics. To provide additional support. To prevent corrosion. To protect from damage.

Question 602/687 The fixed Leading Edge (LE) assembly is located behind the front spar of the wing-box. True. False.

Question 603/687 The bottom surface access panels are made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP) and are attached with screws. True. False.

Question 604/687 The wing leading edge is fitted with five slats. True. False.

Question 605/687 The trailing edge devices consist of three flaps, one aileron, and six spoilers. True. False.

Question 606/687 Two flaps are installed on the TE of the outer wing, and they are connected by an interconnection strut. True. False.

Question 607/687 The inboard flap of A318-A319-A320 is supported by three tracks. True. False.

Question 608/687 The outboard flap of A318-A319-A320 has a leading edge made of stainless steel. True. False.

Question 609/687 The A321 flaps are fowler flaps without any tabs on the trailing edge. True. False.

Question 610/687 There are six spoilers on the upper surface of the wing trailing edge. True. False.

Question 611/687 Where is the center wing located in the aircraft's fuselage?. Between the main frames Fr 36 and 42. Between the main frames Fr 20 and 30. Between the main frames Fr 1 and 10. In the rear fuselage.

Question 612/687 How is maintenance access to the center wing box typically achieved?. Through two rectangular openings in the rear spar. Through triangular openings in the rear spar. Through circular openings in the rear spar. Through the top skin panels of the center wing box.

Question 613/687 What fittings ensure the junction between the center wing box and the outer wing box?. Upper cruciform fitting and lower triform fitting. Upper triangular fitting and lower square fitting. Upper circular fitting and lower rectangular fitting. Upper hexagonal fitting and lower oval fitting.

Question 614/687 What does the upper cruciform fitting make the junction between?. Center wing box top skin panels, outer wing box top skin panels, fuselage, and Rib 1. Center wing box top skin panels and bottom skin panels. Center wing box and outer wing box bottom skin panels. Outer wing box top skin panels and fuselage.

Question 615/687 What part of the outer wing contains the top and bottom skin panels, ribs, and stringers?. Outer wing box. Wing tip. Leading edge and leading edge devices. Trailing edge and trailing edge devices.

Question 616/687 How many top skin panels are there in the outer wing box?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

Question 617/687 How many top skin panels are there in the outer wing box?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

Question 618/687 What do the wing spars extend from in the outer wing?. Rib 1 to Rib 27. The center wing box. The fuselage. Rib 22 to Rib 27.

Question 619/687 How many load-carrying access panels are there in the outer wing box between Rib 14 and Rib 27?. Fourteen. Seven. Three. Twenty-one.

Question 620/687 How are the non load-carrying access panels between Rib 1 and Rib 13 attached to the wing?. Clamped on the wing skin. Bolted through the skin panel. Welded to the fuselage. Riveted to the center wing box.

Question 621/687 What parts of the wing require reinforcement when sharklets are installed?. Wing front spar, fixed leading edge structure, wing rear spars, fixed trailing edge structure, wing covers, wing ribs. Wing tip, wing root, winglets, winglet ribs. Center wing box, winglet attachment points, ailerons. Wing stringers, wing skin panels, trailing edge devices.

Question 622/687 How is Rib 27 modified when sharklets are installed on the aircraft?. It becomes a box Rib instead of a traditional single-sided Rib. It is removed from the wing. It is strengthened with additional materials. It is shifted to a different location on the wing.

Question 623/687 What is the composition of the D-nose assembly in the fixed leading edge?. Made of aluminum alloy parts. Made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic. Made of stainless steel. Made of honeycomb core.

Question 624/687 Which component holds the pylon shroud panels?. D-nose assembly. Support ribs. Sub spar. Pylon ribs.

Question 625/687 What is the composition of the D-nose assembly in the fixed leading edge?. Made of aluminum alloy parts. Made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic. Made of stainless steel. Made of honeycomb core.

Question 626/687 Which component holds the pylon shroud panels?. D-nose assembly. Support ribs. Sub spar. Pylon ribs.

Question 627/687 How many tracks support Slat 1?. 2. 4. 5. 3.

Question 628/687 Which slats receive de-icing through the bleed air system?. Slats 1 and 2. Slats 3 to 5. Slats 1 to 3. Slats 4 and 5.

Question 629/687 Where is the fixed trailing edge located?. Forward of the wing front spar. Aft of the wing rear spar. Between the wing box and LE spar. On the wing leading edge.

Question 630/687 What are the trailing edge devices?. Two flaps, one aileron, five spoilers. Three flaps, two ailerons, four spoilers. Two flaps, two ailerons, six spoilers. One flap, one aileron, four spoilers.

Question 631/687 How many flaps are installed on the TE of the outer wing?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Question 632/687 What is the function of the rubbing strip on the inboard flap?. To enhance aerodynamics. To provide additional support. To prevent corrosion. To protect the top skin from damage.

Question 633/687 How many wing tracks support and drive the outboard flap in the A318-A319-A320?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Question 634/687 What is the unique feature of the A321 flaps compared to the A318-A319-A320?. They have a tab on the trailing edge. They are made entirely of aluminum alloy. They are larger in size. They have no leading edge.

Question 635/687 How many spoilers are connected to the middle and outer sections of the rear spar?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Question 636/687 Which spoilers have a rubbing strip attached to their trailing edge?. Spoilers 1 & 2. Spoilers 3 & 4. Spoilers 4 & 5. All spoilers.

Question 637/687 What is the primary material used for the top and bottom skins of the spoilers?. Aluminum alloy. Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP). Stainless steel. Honeycomb core.

Question 638/687 Where is the aileron located in relation to the outer flap?. Inboard. Outboard. Above. Below.

Question 639/687 What material is primarily used for the aileron's skin?. Aluminum alloy. Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP). Stainless steel. Honeycomb core.

Question 640/687 What is the primary material used for the sides and trailing edge profile of the spoilers?. Aluminum alloy. Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (CFRP). Stainless steel. Honeycomb core.

Question 641/687 The CFM56-5B engine is a single-rotor, fixed stator, low-bypass-ratio turbo-fan power plant. True. False.

Question 642/687 The power plant installation includes the engine, the engine inlet, the exhaust, and the fan cowls only. True. False.

Question 643/687 The reverse thrust is controlled manually by the flight crew without any involvement of the ECU. True. False.

Question 644/687 The thrust reverser uses 4 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors to redirect the engine fan airflow. True. False.

Question 645/687 The FADEC alternator is located on the LH side of the gearbox. True. False.

Question 646/687 The air starter is located on the LH side of the gearbox rear face. True. False.

Question 647/687 The primary components of the fuel system are installed on the RH side of the fan compartment. True. False.

Question 648/687 What is the primary function of the programming plug on the Electronic Control Unit (ECU) of the CFM56-5B engine?. To change the engine type. To adjust the fuel consumption. To change the available thrust. To monitor the engine temperature.

Question 649/687 How is the engine attached to the pylon?. By the exhaust system. By forward and aft mounts. By the fan cowls. By the reverser assemblies.

Question 650/687 Who manually selects the reverse thrust?. The ECU. The Engine Interface Unit (EIU). The flight crew. The Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU).

Question 651/687 What is the primary role of the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) in the thrust reverser system?. To control the ECU. To supply hydraulic power to operate the thrust reverser. To control the throttle control levers. To monitor the engine's thrust.

Question 652/687 Where is the ECU located?. On the LH side of the fan case. On the gearbox. On the RH side of the fan case. Inside the engine core.

Question 653/687 Where is the air starter located?. On the LH side of the gearbox rear face. On the RH side of the engine core. On the RH side of the gearbox rear face. Inside the engine core.

Question 654/687 Which component of the fuel system is operated by the gearbox?. The Hydro-Mechanical Unit (HMU). The filter. The fuel pump. The fuel nozzle.

Question 655/687 Where is the oil tank located?. On the RH side of the fan case. On the LH side of the fan case. Inside the engine core. On the gearbox.

Question 656/687 Where is the hydraulic shut-off valve located?. On the rear part of the pylon. On the forward part of the pylon. On the forward part of the RH 'C' duct. Inside the engine core.

Question 657/687 What is the primary function of the drain system?. To supply fuel to the engine. To cool the engine. To collect and drain waste fluids and vapors from engine systems and accessories. To provide air to the engine.

Question 658/687 What happens to the LP and HP fuel shut-off valves during a normal shutdown?. They are opened. They remain in a neutral state. They are closed. They are partially opened.

Question 659/687 What drives the LP SOV to the closed position when the ENGine MASTER control switch is set to OFF? The ECU Both electrical motors The HMU The EIU. The ECU. Both electrical motors. The HMU. The EIU.

Question 660/687 What happens to the LP SOV when the ENGine FIRE P/B is released out?. It is driven to the open position. It remains in a neutral state. Both electrical motors drive it to the closed position. It sends a signal to the EIU.

Question 661/687 What changes the available thrust in the CFM56-5B engine?. The power plant installation. The pylon. The programming plug on the Electronic Control Unit (ECU). The fan cowls.

Question 662/687 What does the thrust reverser use to redirect the engine fan airflow?. 2 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors. 4 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors. 6 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors. 8 hydraulically operated pivoting blocker doors.

Question 663/687 Which system controls the turbine clearance?. The compressor airflow control system. The transient bleed valve system. The turbine clearance control system. The FADEC system.

Question 664/687 The engine fuel system is designed only to supply Fuel Flow (FF) into the combustion chamber. True. False.

Question 665/687 The fuel coming from the A/C tanks is driven by the HP stage of the fuel pump. True. False.

Question 666/687 The fuel from the fuel pump goes directly to the nozzles without passing through any filter. True. False.

Question 667/687 The FADEC is not repowered when the engine start selector is selected to CRANK. True. False.

Question 668/687 The ECU is supplied from the aircraft electrical power when N2<60%. True. False.

Question 669/687 The Control Alternator does not supply the ECU when the engine is running above 58% of N2. True. False.

Question 670/687 The FADEC is automatically de-powered in the air, through the EIU, after engine shutdown. True. False.

Question 671/687 Releasing the ENGine FIRE P/B out does not affect the ECU power. True. False.

Question 672/687 Where is the ECU of the FADEC system located?. On the engine fan case left hand side. Inside the cockpit. On the engine fan case right hand side. On the aircraft's tail.

Question 673/687 What does the FADEC system consist of?. A single channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU). A dual channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU) without peripherals. A dual channel Electronic Control Unit (ECU) with its associated peripherals. Only its associated peripherals.

Question 674/687 Which of the following is NOT a function of the FADEC system?. Power management control. Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs) control. Fuel tank monitoring. Transient Bleed Valve (TBV) control.

Question 675/687 What happens to the ECU power supply when the engine N2 is below 58%?. It is supplied by the aircraft's battery. It is supplied by the aircraft's 28 VDC through the Engine Interface Unit (EIU). It is supplied by the Control Alternator. It is not supplied power.

Question 676/687 What does the FADEC system manage?. Only the engine thrust. Only the performance optimization. Both the engine thrust and performance optimization. Neither the engine thrust nor the performance optimization.

Question 677/687 When is continuous ignition manually selected?. When the APU is off. When IGNition START is deselected with an engine running. When the aircraft is on the ground. When the ECU detects a malfunction.

Question 678/687 What does the FADEC do when it detects an ignition delay during start?. It shuts down the engine. It provides continuous relight. It aborts the start sequence. It switches to manual mode.

Question 679/687 What is the aircraft configuration for engine CRANK modes?. APU off and APU BLEED off, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered. APU running and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 powered. APU running and APU BLEED off, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered. APU off and APU BLEED on, FADEC 1 and 2 unpowered.

Question 680/687 What happens when CRANK is selected on the ground?. The ENGINE page disappears from the ECAM. The ECU initiates a shutdown sequence. The ECU initiates a motoring sequence after action on the MANual START P/B. The ECU cuts off the ignition.

Question 681/687 For how long should you motor the engine with the MASTER CONTROL SWITCH in the ON position during a wet crank?. 5 seconds. 15 seconds. 30 seconds. 60 seconds.

Question 682/687 What should you do after a wet crank of 15 seconds maximum?. Continue to dry crank the engine for 30 seconds. Set the selector back to MODE NORMal position immediately. Continue to dry crank the engine for 60 seconds. Release the MANual START P/B switch immediately.

Question 683/687 How is the fan case and its accessories cooled?. By air entering two flush inlet scoops located on the inlet cowl outer barrel. By using engine oil. By using coolant fluid. By using fan air from the core compartment.

Question 684/687 Where does the air exit after cooling the fan compartment?. Through an outlet port located in the lower aft section of the right-hand fan cowl door. Through the engine exhaust. Through the core compartment. Through the engine intake.

Question 685/687 How is the core compartment cooled and ventilated?. By fan air entering flush inlets located at the forward section of the core cowl. By using engine oil. By using coolant fluid. By using air from the fan compartment.

Question 686/687 Where does the air exit after cooling the core compartment?. Through the annular vent located at the interface between the core cowl and the primary nozzle. Through the engine exhaust. Through the fan compartment. Through the engine intake.

Question 687/687 What does the engine provide sources for?. To feed the Active Clearance Control subsystems and to supply the inlet cowl anti-ice and the engine bleed system. To cool the engine. To provide continuous ignition to the engine. To regulate airflow in the engine.