AIRFRAME

Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1) The DAMAGE TOLERANCE principle takes cracking of the structure into account. 2) The SAFE LIFE principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight hours. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

According EASA CS the worst effect of a MAJOR FAILURE on the flight crew could be: no effect on flight crew. a slight increase in workload. physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload. physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.

The principle of FAIL SAFE design of an aircraft is based on the: redundancy of the structure or equipment. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use. monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded. capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.

According EASA CS the worst effect of a MAJOR FAILURE on the aeroplane could be: slight reduction in funcrional capabilities or safety margins. no effect on operational capabilities or safety. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

According EASA CS the worst effect of a CATASTROPHIC FAILURE on the aeroplane could be: large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. hull loss. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

For SAFE LIFE designed structural components: 1) there is more than one load carrying component. 2) one load carrying component is sufficient for a given load, provided it is strong enough. 3) the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4) the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2,4. 2,3. 1,3. 1,4.

According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: physical discomfort. multiple fatalities. physical distress, possibly including injuries. serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.

Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies the structure will never fail. 2) In structural design, SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies parallel structural parts. 2) In structural design, SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is correct.

The principle of DAMAGE TOLERANT structural design of an aircraft is based on the: capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure. fact that there is no need to inspect the structure. monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies the structure will never fail. 2) A SAFE LIFE structure is based on a declared time period or number of cycles. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

According EASA CS the worst effect of a MINOR FAILURE on the aeroplane could be: significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins. no effect on operational capabilities or safety.

In the attached diagram, the type of stress acting on the point indicated by the image number 1 is the: shear. torque. tension. compression.

Which of the following statements concerning the stresses "TORSION" and "TENSION" is correct?. Tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart. Torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart. Torsion is caused by two layers sliding apart and tension resists a force pulling it apart. Torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force.

Define the term "FATIGUE": a one off loading that breaks the material. a loading on the material but it returns fully to its former state when the load is removed. if a material is continually loaded and unloaded it will eventually break even though the load remains the same. the material suffers progressively more permanent damage each time that it is loaded and unloaded.

A structure in which the skin takes all of the load is: a semi -braced structure. a semi-monocoque structure. a monocoque structure. a box structure.

Which of these statements about SANDWICH structural parts are correct or incorrect? 1) A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material. 2) A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

Which of these statements concerning a SANDWICH structural part are correct or incorrect? 1) The main function of the core material is sound insulation. 2) A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

Which of these statements concerning a SANDWICH structural part are correct or incorrect? 1) The main function of the core material is sound insulation. 2) A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

Which of these statements about SANDWICH structural parts are correct or incorrect? 1) A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material. 2) A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is correct.

Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect? 1) For a structural component with given dimensions composite materials enable a structural component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load. 2) Composite materials enable structures with lower strength / weight ratio than metal structures. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect? 1) In a structural component with given dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is the same in all directions. 2) Composite materials enable structures with higher strength / weight ratio than metal structures. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct.

What are the most frequently used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure?. Aluminium or magnesium alloy. Steel. Wood. Composite fibers.

A composite structural component consists of: aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium. a matrix and fibres. two metal sheets bonded together. two thin metal sheets and a light core material.

A non-cantilever wing is: a wing supported by braces or a strut connected to the fuselage. a high wing configuration. a wing planform other than rectangular. a low wing configuration.

In flight, a cantilever wing of an aeroplane containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment that is: highest at the wing root. equal to the zero fuel weight multiplied by the span. equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span. lowest at the wing root.

When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects: downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line. upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line. upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line. downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.

What is the load in the upper respectively lower girder of a spar of a cantilever wing during straight and level flight?. Torsion in the lower- and upper girder. Tension in lower- and upper girder. Compression in the upper girder and tension in the lower girder. Tension in the upper girder and compression in the lower girder.

Significant torsion effects on a wing structure during flight can be caused by: aileron deflection. wing dihedral. propwash. wing tip vortices.

The function of ribs in a wing structure is to: give the wing the desired aerodynamic shape. allow installation of fuel cells in the wing. withstand all the structural loads. withstand the torsional loads.

The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines mounted under the wings, is subjected to bending moments due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is: compression. tension, and then compression. tension. compression, and then tension.

Whilst stationary on the ground in a hangar the most important loads on a cantilever wing are: tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface. tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces. compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces. compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface.

A typical wing structure consists primarily of: a front and rear main spar. a front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers. ribs and stringers only. ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction.

Loads on the cylindrical part of the fuselage during pressurisation cycles are carried by the: stringers. ribs. skin. spars.

The pressurisation load on the skin of a fuselage is: torsion. bending. tension. compression.

An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from: a glass and polycarbonate laminate. triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 45o to each other. a perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element. a boron aluminide and glass laminate.

The purpose of the floor proximity emergency escape path marking system is to: give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with a reduced cabin visibility. mark only the thresholds exits. replace the overhead emergency lighting in event of failure. give addrtional guidance during an emergency evacuation at night only.

Refer to the attached annex depicting various types of fuselage cross-sections. Place these cross-sections in order of INCREASING structural suitability for a pressurized cabin. 2, 3, 4, 1. 1, 3, 4, 2. 1, 4, 3, 2. 4, 2, 3, 1.

Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise: only the position of the selector switch. a green system "ON" information light and an amber system failure light. green or blue lights which cycle on/off with the function of the heating elements. amber lights when the system is functioning with a red warning should the windscreen enter an overheat condition.

Monocoque fuselages derive their strength from: the skin. metal stringers. longerons and formers. bulkheads and longerons.

Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect? 1) On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. 2) Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when: during crosswind landings. during push back. making tight turns when taxiing. after take-off .

The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that: the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time. these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights. in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way. the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum.

In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing force would be acting on the right hand side?. 20 N. 1 N. 4 N. 100 N.

In a hydraulic system the master cylinder's inner area is 10 mm², and the actuator cylinder's inner area is 100 mm². If you press the master cylinder by 2 cm using a 100 N force, the actuator cylinder will move: 2 cm and produce a force of 100 N. 2 mm and produce a force of 1 000 N. 1 mm and produce a force of 500 N. 2 mm and produce a force of 100 N.

Viscosity is: the temperature dependence of a liquid. the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow. the pressure resistance of a liquid. the flow velocity inside the hydraulic lines.

A hydraulic low pressure alert is the first indication of: the pump output pressure being insufficient. the reservoir level being at a minimum acceptable level. a leak in the reservoir return line. the hydraulic system accumulator becoming deflated.

The color of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluid is: purple. pink. blue. yellow / straw.

For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is: the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve. the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm2). the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential. the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.

Filtration in a hydraulic system is usually ensured by: a filter on the return line only. a filter in the pressure line only. filters in both the pressure and return lines. the use of sealed containers only during replenishment.

The hydraulic device, which functions in a comparable (similar) way to an electronic diode, is a: distribution valve. shutoffvalve. check valve. flow control valve.

Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to: warn of a hydraulic system overheat. indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system. warn of an impending by-pass situation. indicate that the filter is due for maintenance.

Which of these statements about an aeroplane's hydraulic system is correct?. The filters, the pressure relief valve(s), the by-pass valve(s), and the fire shut-off valve are safety features installed in a typical system. The hydraulic reservoir contains a membrane and is pressurised by nitrogen on one side of this membrane. The pumps are always electrically driven because they need to deliver a high pressure of 3000 psi. A hydraulic leak in a return line does not affect the functioning of the hydraulic system.

The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as: a volume storage. an energy storage. a fluid storage. a pressure storage.

A single action actuator: travels one direction under one application of hydraulic power and in the opposite direction under a second application of hydraulic power. is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under spring force. cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of travel. is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only.

Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to: their ability to produce high pressure when required but can be off loaded to reduce power consumption. their low cost, simplicity and durability. their ability to produce high pressure combined with constant high flow rate. the safety feature of the quill drive shearing due to pump seizure and the ease of repair by replacement of pump and shaft only.

A modern hydraulic system typically includes "hydraulic fuses". Their function is: to prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line. to switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system. to isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental contamination. to allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.

In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: reduce fluid combustibilily. seal the system. keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature. prevent pump cavitation.

Maximum power output and low mass of aircraft hydraulic systems can be achieved with. medium system pressure and high volume flow. medium system pressure and low volume flow. low system pressure and high volume flow. high system pressure and low volume flow.

An automatic cut-out valve is used in a: fixed volume pressure control hydraulic system. constant pressure hydraulic system. neither of these. both of these.

State the advantages of the variable displacement hydraulic pump compared to the constant displacement pump. The variable displacement pump is very rugged and dependable, and inexpensive to manufacture. The variable displacement pump only consists of two moving parts, and is therefore small in size, and very efficient compared to size. The variable displacement pump adjusts the fluid pumped to the fluid required, and the pump thereby adjusts the pressure output itself, and it moves fluid only when necessary. The variable displacement pump is simple in construction and very well suited for light aircraft.

To allow for a failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporates: a stand-by hydraulic pump. a high pressure relief valve. an accumulator. auxiliary hydraulic motors.

The temperature of hydraulic fluid is typically measured: after the cooler. in the reservoir. at the actuator. at the pumps.

What is the purpose of a "relief valve" in the hydraulic system?. Make sure that the pressure in the system exceeds a certain minimum pressure. Make sure that the pressure does not exceed the max. permitted pressure in the system. To "even out" the pressure in the system. Make sure that the emergency hand pump will produce enough pressure when used.

The main reason for using pressurized hydraulic reservoirs on jet transport aircraft is: to assure the pump inlet is provided with a continuous and adequate supply of fluid free from foaming. to increase the output pressure of the system. to maintain a minimum system pressure in case of hydraulic pump failure and enabling the pilot to lower flaps and gear with the help of this reservoir pressure. to compress the hydraulic fluids.

The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: protect a hydraulic system from over-pressure. supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure. relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems. prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.

Generally, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the landing gear can be extended by: alternate pneumatic extension. gravity extension. alternate electrical extension. hydraulic accumulators.

The purpose of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic landing gear strut is: the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function. the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function. the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function. the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat dissipation function.

The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is: locked-down and its door is locked. in the required position. locked-down. not in the required position.

VLE is the maximum: speed authorized in flight. speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. speed with flaps extended in a given position. flight speed with landing gear down.

A torsion link assembly (torque link) is installed on the landing gear to: prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod. take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected. avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the fixed part of the oleo strut. provide damping of the vertical motion during touch-down.

The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by: a pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector. a guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is airborne. any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning light and a loud horn. the electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels switch.

To prevent the landing gear from collapsing when the aircraft is parked on the ground, following device is used: locking pins with flags. hydraulic pressure. chocks. torque links.

On the lower image on the diagram shown, the landing gear element indicated by the number 11 is a: bogie pitch trimmer. retraction actuator. bogie beam. torque link.

The number in the annex that shows the TORSION LINK is: number 6. number 5. number 3. number 4.

For aircraft equipped with a landmg gear anti-retract latch, which of the following statements is correct?. This system can not be overridden since an uncentred nose wheel can damage the wheel well structure. This system prevents the gear retraction when the lAS is too low. This system prevents the gear retraction when the lAS is too high. This system can be overridden under specific conditions.

The elements typically protected against icing on large transport aircraft are: 1) engine air intake and pod, 2) front glass shield, 3) radome, 4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts, 5) leading edges of the wings, 6) cabin windows, 7) trailing edges of the wings, 8) electronic equipment compartment. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 5, 6. 1, 4, 5, 7. 1, 2, 4, 5. 1, 2, 3, 8.

Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on: slat leading edges. fin leading edges. pitot tubes. elevator leading edges.

The wing anti-ice system has to protect: the leading edge or the slats, either partially or completely. the whole upper wing surface and the flaps. the whole leading edge and the whole under wing surface. the whole leading edge except the slats because they cannot be de-iced when extended.

In jet aeroplanes the thermal anti-icing system is primarlly supplied by: bleed air from the engines. turbo compressors. ram air, heated via a heat exchanger. the APU.

The anti-icing method for the wings of large jet transport aeroplanes most commonly used in flight is: mechanical (pneumatic boots). chemical (glycol-based liquid). electrical (electrical resistance). thermal (use of hot air).

During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect: the whole upper wing surface and the flaps. a part of the whole leading edge. slats and the leading edge flaps only. the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.

"Nose-wheel shimmy" may be described as: aircraft vibration caused by the nose-wheel upon extension of the gear. the oscillatory movement of the nose-wheel when extended prior to landing. the amount of free movement of the nose-wheel before steering takes effect. a possibly damaging vibration of the nose-wheel when moving on the ground.

The type of brake unit most frequently found on transport category aeroplanes is a: drum type brake. multiple disk brake. single disk brake. belt brake.

On most large aircraft, the main source of braking power is derived from: the electrical system. bleed air pressure. pressure to the rudder pedals. the hydraulic system.

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1) idle wheel speed (measured) 2) braked wheel speed (measured) 3) brake temperature (measured) 4) desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5) tire pressure. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3.

In a hydraulic brake system of a transport aircraft, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200psi. If an electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3 000 psi, the pressure gauge, which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, will read: 1 200 psi. 3 000 psi. 4 200 psi. 1 800 psi.

The brake assembly of transport aircraft is typically equipped with an anti-skid system.Which device or system supplies the anti-skid control unit with information required to regulate the brake pressure?. the airspeed indicator, corrected to ground speed. the pilot-static system. a wheel speed sensor. a hydraulic pressure sensor.

An under-inflated tire will: experience reduced wear at the shoulders. experience increased wear at the shoulders. be more subject to viscous aquaplaning. be more subject to viscous aquaplaning.

To avoid the risk of tire burst from overheating there is: a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve. a thermal plug that deflates the tire at a specific temperature. the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tire temperature. water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tire temperature.

Thermal plugs are installed in: cabin windows. cargo compartments. wheel rims. fire warning systems.

An artificial feel system: is necessary in a reversible flight control actuator unit. is mounted in parallel with a spring tab. functions in parallel with an irreversible hydraulic actuator. functions in series with an irreversible hydraulic actuator.

Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? 1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the lAS increases. 2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the lAS increases. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

The expression "primary flight control" applies to the: 1) elevator 2) speed brake 3) lift-augmentation devices 4) roll spoilers. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 4. 1, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3.

An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls: does not require an artificial feel system. may be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls. must have a back-up control system. need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system.

A flight control surface actuator is said to be "irreversible" when: there is a need to lock the flight controls on the ground. there is no feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface. the flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam. the pilot does not feel any force when moving that control surface in flight.

The function of the rudder limiter system is: to restrict the rudder deflection during flight at high altitudes. to limit pedal movement in heavy turbulence. to restrict rudder deflection during flight at high lAS. to reduce pilot's workload during engine failure.

Which of these statements regarding most gust lock systems is correct?. When the gust lock is ON there is protection to prevent take-off. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effect of turbulence. On reversible flight controls, there is no need for a gust lock. A gust lock is only fitted on the elevator and the rudder.

Rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is: an adjustment of the rudder ratio changer. an adjustment of the zero force rudder position. an adjustment of the rudder trim tab. unnecessary because this aeroplane does not need rudder trim.

An aeroplane equipped with fully powered flight controls (irreversible type): remains normally controllable in case of total loss of power to the flight control system. does not require the use of an artificial feel system. must be equipped with control locks. requires the use of an artificial feel system.

Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? 1) There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls. 2) There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

Which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a conventional aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the elevator trim. 2) The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.

If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move: down and the elevator will move down. up and the elevator will move down. up and the elevator will move up. down and the elevator will move up.

Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? 1) A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence. 2) Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. is correct, 2) is incorrect.

Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?. Power assisted flight control systems require a Q-feel system. Powered flight control systems require an artificial feel system. In a powered flight control system there is no physical link between the pilot and the control surfaces. In a power assisted flight control system there is a physical link between the pilot and the control surfaces.

The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the: 1) elevator 2) speed brake 3) lift-augmentation devices 4) roll spoilers. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is. 2, 4. 1, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3.

The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the: 1) trimmable stabilizer 2) rudder 3) speed brake 4) aileron. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4. 2, 3. 1, 3. 2,4.

Where are flight spoilers fitted?. Asymmetrically on the wing lower surface. Symmetrically on the wing lower surface. Asymmetrically on the wing upper surface. Symmetrically on the wing upper surface.

The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 1) Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces. 2) Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike. 3) Direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems. 4) Immunity to different interfering signals. 5) Improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 5. 1, 2. 1, 5. 2, 3.

Bleed air extracted from turbine engine can be used for: supplying the engine with high pressure airflow. generation of electricity. cabin pressurization. provision of secondary airflow.

Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?. Bleed air may be supplied by an APU. Use of engine bleed air reduces engine thrust. Engine bleed air is considered to be high pressure. Bleed air may be taken from the HP compressor of a gas turbine engine.

In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is regulated.This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the: high pressure bleed air valve. low pressure bleed air valve. fan bleed air valve. intermediate pressure check-valve.

Main cabin temperature is: controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection. controlled by individual passenger. not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure. only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

An air cycle machine (air conditioning pack) : decreases bleed air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger. does not affect the bleed air. increases outlet pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger. causes a pressure and temperature drop in the bleed air.

Temperature regulation of an air conditioning system: is automatically controlled by sensing the output temperature from the control valve in relation to the temperature set on the pilot's control panel. cannot be automatically controlled. is manually controlled by the pilot reading the cabin temperature gauge and increasing or decreasing hot air as required. is automatically controlled by sensing cabin temperature in relation to engine compressor outlet temperatures.

In a cabin air conditioning system with an air cycle machine (bootstrap system), the mass air flow is routed via the: turbine outlet to the primary heat exchanger inlet. compressor outlet to the primary heat exchanger inlet. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet.

The purpose of the cabin pressure controller operating in automatic mode is to: 1) control the cabin altitude, 2) control the cabin altitude rate of change, 3) limit the differential pressure, 4) balance the aircraft altitude with cabin altitude, 5) ventilate the cabin, 6) keep a constant differential pressure throughout all the phases of flight. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 6, 4. 5, 6, 1. 4, 5, 3. 1, 2, 3.

In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the bleed air is compressed in the cold air unit to: maintain a constant cabin mass air flow. ensure a sufficient temperature drop in the secondary heat exchanger. ensure an adequate air flow across the secondary heat exchanger. increase the cabin air supply pressure when the inlet pressure is too low.

Under normal conditions (EASA CS-25) the cabin pressure altitude of a transport aeroplane is not allowed to exceed: 8 000 ft. 4 000 ft. 6 000 ft. 10 000 ft.

Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by: the cabin sensors only, modulating the mix valve. the temperature selector only, modulating the mix valve. automatic control of the ram air. the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator, modulating the apapmix valve.

In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system) the: turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin. turbine drives the compressor, which provides pressurisation. turbine drives the compressor, which increases the temperature of the air, thus making the second heat exchanger more efficient. temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine.

The purpose of an air conditioning pack inlet flow valve (pack valve) is to: discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude. regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude. maintain a constant and sufficient air mass flow to ventilate the cabin. regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

In a typical air conditioning system of a short-haul turbojet aircraft the cabin air is not controlled in respect to the: pressure. temperature. humidity. purity.

The purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system is to: supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight. supply the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air. cool the APU compartment. supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.

In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by: the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and ambient barometric pressure. the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure. a rate of change selector. the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane altitude.

Why is the combustion chamber of a heater in an aircraft pressurization system completely separated from the ventilating system?. To develop the required heat. To stop the solenoid valve. To prevent any exhaust gases from contaminating the cabin air. For proper operation of the heater.

An aircraft climbs and in order to maintain the same cabin pressure during climb, what mode of operation will the pressurisation system make use of?. Differential. Isobaric. Max differential. Manual.

The engine fuel control unit (FCU) is protected from damage by debris by: the fine filter located between the high pressure fuel pump and the governor unit. a fine filter located prior to the high pressure fuel pump at the inlet to the fuel control unit. strainers at the inlet to the low pressure fuel pumps. magnetic plugs located at various positions throughout the fuel supply usually at the outlet of fuel pumps and valves.

The cross-feed fuel system can be used to: 1) feed any engine from any fuel tank, 2) dump the unusable fuel, 3) adjust fuel distribution, 4) to transfer fuel from one tank to another located in the same wing. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 3. 1, 3. 1, 4. 2, 4.

One of the reasons for the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in fuel: improve their efficiency. cool the pumps. to improve the accuracy of the fuel quantity measurement. shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.

The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the: resistivity variation of the fuel. density variation of the fuel. dielectric change between fuel and air. electrical resistance change.

The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to: distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling. trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank. increase the fuel level at the boost pump location. ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure.

Fuel system indications available to the pilot are normally restricted to: fuel low level; fuel flow; fuel temperature; fuel filter monitor; tank transfer status. fuel contents and low level only. fuel contents; fuel low level; fuel pressure; fuel flow; fuel transfer status; fuel filter condition. fuel flow; tank transfer status; fuel contents; fuel temperature; fuel cooler status.

The slipstream effect of a propeller is most prominent at: low airspeeds with high power setting. high airspeeds with low power setting. high airspeeds with low power setting. low airspeeds with low power setting.

Fixed pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at: idling. cruising speed. full throttle. take-off.

A propeller blade is twisted in order to: maintain a constant angle of attack along the blade. avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena. reduce the blade tangential velocity from root to tip. allow an increased mechanical load.

One of the advantages of a turbocharger is: the power available is less affected by altitude. an increased propulsive efficiency. that there is no torsion at the crankshaft. that there is no danger of detonation.

Assume an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller. What will happen if the altitude is decreased while the throttle remains fully open and the waste gate is seized in the cruise position?. The blade angle may reach the full fine limit. The power of the engine will decrease. The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value. The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value will stay constant.

The operating pressure of a booster pump in the fuel supply system of a gas turbine aircraft is typically within the following range: 5 to 10 psi. 20 to 50 psi. 300 to 500 psi. 3 000 to 5 000 psi.

The high pressure fuel pumps are driven by: hydraulic pressure. air pressure. the engine. the electrical system.

Which fuel tanks are heated on a typical large transport aircraft?. Only the wing tanks. Only the fuselage tanks. All tanks. None.

The refuelling of a large transport jet aircraft is typically performed: by means of the aircraft suction pumps. through the refuelling cap of every tank. through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre). by means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).

One of the main functions of the battery in large transport aircraft is to: be an emergency source of electric power. provide AC power for certain equipment. provide electric power for heating. provide DC power for certain equipment.

The electrolyte in a Nickel-Cadmium battery is: nickel dioxide. potassium chloride. hydrogen peroxide. potassium hydroxide.

Batteries are rated in: amperes x hours. ohms. amperes / volts. watts.

A constant speed drive (CSD) unit which has been disconnected in flight: may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism. may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down. automatically resets at engine shut-down. automatically resets at engine shut-down.

The input and output of a static inverter are respectively: DC and AC. AC and DC. AC and AC. DC and DC.

In an aeroplane equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from: an inverter. a TRU. a rectifier. a contactor.

Generators, when connected to the same busbar, are usually connected: in a series mode. dependent on the type of engine. dependent on the type of generator. in a parallel mode.

The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1) simple connection 2) high starting torque 3) flexibility in use 4) lighter weight of equipment 5) easy to convert into direct current 6) easy maintenance of machines. The combination of correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. 1, 4, 6. 3, 4, 5, 6. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.

A "bus bar" is: a device which may only be used in DC circuits. a device permitting operation of two or more switches together. the stator of a moving coil instrument. a distribution means for electrical power.

GEN 2 can be used to feed tfle DC ESS BUS: (Note: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open). via AC BUS 2, when C1-4, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed. via AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS, when C1-1, C1-4, C3-1, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed. via AC BUS 2, when C1-1, C3-1 and C5-2 are closed. via AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS, when C1-4, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.

When carrying out battery condition check using the aeroplane's voltmeter. no load snould be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage. the load condition is unimportant. a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition. the battery should be isolated.

the battery should be isolated. in series to provide maximum power. in parallel to provide maximum power. in parallel to provide maximum voltage. in series to provide maximum voltage.

When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the: voltage. excitation current. frequency. torque of the constant speed drive (CSD).

To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel: both real and reactive loads must be matched. only real loads need to be matched. the matching of loads is unimportant. only reactive loads need to be matched.

Load shedding means: reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief valve. to leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits. a procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces. temporary or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric generators.

On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main busbars and other AC generators, the protection device that opens is/are the: generator breaker and the tie breaker(s). generator breaker. tie breaker(s). exciter control relay and the generator breaker.

A magnetic circuit breaker: is a protection system that has a quick tripping response. permits an overcurrent limited in time. can be reset without any danger even when fault remains. is a system with a slow response time.

A thermal circuit breaker: protects the system in the event of any overcurrent. protects the system in the event of any overheating. protects the system in the event of a prolonged overheating. protects the system in the event of a prolonged overcurrent.

In flight, the AC ESS BUS can be fed by the EMER GEN when: (Note: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open). C4-1 is closed. C4-1 is closed via the static inverter. C4-1 and C5-2 are closed via the DC BAT BUS and the static inverter. C4-1 and C5-2 are closed via the DC ESS BUS and the static inverter.

When load sharing AC generators, real and reactive loads are adjusted by controlling: frequency only. voltage only. frequency and voltage. CSD speed.

The primary purpose of the reverse current relay is to: prevent the generator from delivering current to the generator. prevent the battery from delivering current to the generator. prevent the generator from delivering too much current. allow the battery to be charged.

A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended: never. provided that the grade is higher. provided that the grade is lower. provided that it is an aeronautical petrol.

The octane rating of a fuel characterises the: fuel volatility. resistance to detonation. quantity of heat generated by its combustion. fuel electrical conductivity.

The relationship between compression ratio of a piston engine and the required fuel octane rating is that the: higher the compression ratio, the higher the octane raring required. higher the compression ratio, the lower the octane rating required. lower the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required. required octane rating is independent of the compression ratio.

In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?. Main air bleed and main discharge nozzle. Float chamber and fuel inlet filter. Accelerator pump and main metering jet. Venturi and the throttle valve.

With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor: will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water. will only form at OATs below the freezing point of fuel. will only form at OATs below +10˚C. may form at OATs higher than +10˚C.

The mixture controller of a carburettor: alters the pressure drop at the main discharge nozzle. moves the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control. varies the fuel supply to the main discharge nozzle. varies the air supply at the main discharge nozzle.

To enable proper functioning of a piston engine during rapid throttle advance a carburettor can be fitted with: a diffuser (compensating jet). an accelerator pump. a mixture control. a power jet.

Which of these statements is correct regarding piston engine induction system icing?. Induction system icing affects only engines equipped with carburettors. Fuel ice is normally formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems. Ice accretion affects both fuel injection systems and engines equipped with carburettors. Ice on the throttle valve is usually formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems.

When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a constant speed propeller: the RPM increases. the RPM decreases. the mixture becomes leaner. the RPM remains constant.

A capacitor in parallel with breaker points: permits arcing across the breaker points. induces a very high current across the primary windings. induces a very high current across the secondary windings. prevents arcing across the breaker points.

If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position. a still operating engine will shut down. the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position. the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced.

The purpose of a contact breaker (ignition switch) is to: connect the battery to the magneto. connect the secondary coil to the distributor. control the primary circuit of the magneto. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil.

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine: will not operate on the left magneto. cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position. will not operate on the right magneto. cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.

If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine continues to run normally, the most probable cause is that: there is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes. the grounding wire of one of the magnetos is broken. a wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine. there are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).

The ignition system generally used for small piston engine aircraft is a: high intensity system. high tension system. battery ignition system. low tension system.

In the event of an engine failure during flight, the blades of a constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane not fitted with a feathering system tend to move: towards the smallest blade angle by centrifugal twisting moment and/or spring force. towards the highest blade angle by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller. towards the highest blade angle by the aerodynamic twisting moment. to a blade angle dependent on windmilling RPM.

The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is: a hybrid compressor. an axial compressor. a radial compressor. a piston compressor.

Prolonged running at low RPM may have an adverse effect on the efficiency oft he: carburettor. spark plugs. oil pump. fuel filter.

The primary purpose of a supercharger is to: increase the velocity of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder. increase the mass of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder. raise the temperature of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder. improve engine scavenging and hence power output.

If the turbocharger waste gate is completely closed: none of the exhaust gases are direcred through the turbine. the mani fold pressure will be lower than normal. the turbo/supercharger is in the OFF position. all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine.

In an engine fitted with a turbocharger, where is the waste gate installed?. In the inlet manifold. In parallel with the turbine. Down stream of the turbine. In parallel with the compressor.

A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 220 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 220 kg/s has a bypass ratio of: 10. 0. 1.1. 1.

A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 300 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio of: 1.2. 2.2. 5. 6.

The bypass ratio: 1) is the ratio of bypass air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow. 2) can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio (BPR) of: 3. 1. 0. 2.

Given the following information about an aeroplane with a turbojet engine: • mass air flow 50 kg/s • TAS 90 m/s • exhaust nozzle gas velocity 150 m/s • exhaust nozzle static pressure 1 050 hPa • ambient static pressure 1 000 hPa • cross-sectional area of the nozzle 0.10 m2. Net engine thrust equals: 4 000 N. 3 000 N. 2 500 N. 3 500 N.

By-pass ratio in a turbine engine is the ratio of the: speed of the combusted air to the speed of the by-pass air. cold air mass flow to the hot air mass flow. intake air pressure to the turbine delivery air pressure. tertiary air mass flow to the primary air mass flow.

For a subsonic airflow, air passing through a divergent duct: decreases in pressure and velocity. increases in velocity and decreases in pressure. increases in pressure and velocity. decreases in velocity and increases in pressure.

In a free turbine engine, the energy delivered by the free turbine stages: is not connected with the rotation speed of the generator. is used to drive the compressor and the main rotor gearbox. is dependent on the rotational speed of the gas generator. is used to drive the compressor only.

Both gas turbine and piston engines utilise a cycle of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust. However in the gas turbine these processes are (i) and combustion occurs at (ii). i) continuous; ii) constant pressure. i) continuous; ii) constant volume. i) intermittent; ii) constant pressure. i) intermittent; ii) constant pressure.

The blades in an axial flow compressor decrease in size from the: root to the tip in order to increase tip clearance. low pressure to the high pressure stages in an attempt to sustain axial velocity. high pressure to the low pressure stages in order to allow for expansion at increased velocity. root to the tip in order to maintain a constant angle of attack.

In the axial flow compressor the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: reduce the axial speed in cruising flight. reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating. maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating. maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.

Increasing the frequency of variations in thrust setting during normal operation is detrimental to the life of HP turbine blades because: the EGT limit would be exceeded more often. low cycle fatigue damage is more severe. fatigue due to vibration is more severe. creep will be more severe.

Ice formation on turbofan engine intakes is usually: prevented by using turbine bleed air. removed by using electrical heating. prevented by using compressor bleed air. removed by using pneumatic boots.

Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? 1) The dynamic pressure decreases in flow direction. 2) The static temperature decreases in fiow direction. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is correct.

In a compressor stage of a gas turbine engine, the sequence is: rotor - stator. rotor - rotor - stator. stator - rotor. stator - stator – rotor.

The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: feed cooling air to the engine cowling. serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage. provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed. provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.

Which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect? 1) The pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes. 2) The pressure drops across the rotor blades. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct.

During the ram recovery process in a gas turbine engine subsonic intake, the: total pressure increases. flow velocity decreases. static temperature decreases. total temperature increases.

In addition to providing 'customer' bleed for aeroplane systems, air may be bled from compressors of a turbofan engine to increase stall margin: at high rotor speed. and prevent stall at high rotor speed. and recover from stall at high rotor speed. at low rotor speed.

The compressor pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor is primarily determined by the: rotor diameter. compressor inlet pressure design value. number of stages. compressor inlet temperature design value.

The characteristics of an axial compressor are: 1) a low pressure ratio by stage 2) a high pressure ratio by stage 3) the possibility of compressing a large mass airflow 4) the inability of compressing a large mass airflow. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1,4. 1,3. 2,3. 2,4.

The function of the swirl vanes round the fuel nozzles is to: 1) increase air pressure at the fuel nozzles. 2) reduce the average axial flow speed in order to stabilise the flame front. 3) generate a swirl of incoming air to enhance mixing of the fuel with air. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1,3. 1,2,3. 1,2. 2,3.

The air flow passages between adjacent axial compressor rotor blades are divergent, but the absolute exit velocity is higher than the absolute entry velocity of the rotor. This is because: the compressor rotational velocity slows down the air flow. it is a constant temperature process. the gas expands between the blades. part of the compressor work delivered to the air is converted into kinetic energy.

Which of these statements about compressor stall are correct or incorrect? 1) A compressor stall is most likely to occur in a compressor designed for a high pressure ratio operating at low RPM. 2) A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the rear stages of the compressor. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

Which of these statements about a reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? 1) The pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes. 2) The pressure rises across the rotor blades. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

A booster or LP compressor in a twin-spool turbofan: rotates at a rotor speed different from both fan, HP compressor and HP turbine. rotates at the same rotor speed as the fan. rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP turbine. rotates at the same rotor speed as the H P compressor.

The internal geometry of a turbofan intake for a subsonic commercial aeroplane is: divergent in order to increase both airflow velocity and static pressure in front of the fan. divergent in order to reduce airflow velocity and increase static pressure in front of the fan. convergent in order to increase airflow velocity and reduce static pressure in front of the fan. convergent in order to reduce airflow velocity in front of the fan.

In a high bypass engine exhaust, the cold flow is usually exhausted: with the hot gas flow and flows through a mixer unit. through the air conditioning system. into the LP compressor inlet. separately.

Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? 1) The speed remains constant in flow direction. 2) The total pressure remains constant in flow direction. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? 1) The static pressure remains constant in flow direction. 2) The total temperature decreases in flow direction. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

The FADEC of a gas turbine engine normally includes: an engine overspeed and/or an EGT protection function. an excessive fuel flow detection function. an overheat protection for the electronic engine control unit. the engine fire loops.

On a FADEC gas turbine engine during normal flight, the power for the FADEC's sensors comes from: the aircraft battery. the aircraft generator. the FADEC power source(s) on the engine. the APU generator.

The electronic engine control unit of a gas turbine engine FADEC uses data from: 1) aircraft systems, 2) cockpit display units, 3) its own engine sensors, 4) electronic engine control units of the other engines(s). The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 4. 2, 4. 1, 3. 2, 3.

The meaning of abbreviation "FADEC" on a gas turbine engine is: Failsafe Adapter Direct Effect Computation. Fool Adapter Dual Electronic Computer. Failure Analysis / Dispatch Evaluation Computer. Full Authority Digital Engine Control.

The pressurising function of the pressurising and dump valve in a gas turbine engine fuel system is: to prevent overpressure at the fuel nozzles. to admit oil to the fuel-oil heat exchanger preventing ice crystals blocking the fuel lines. to prevent fuel leakage in the combustion chamber after engine shutdown. to admit fuel to the nozzles only if the fuel pressure is high enough for sufficient atomisation.

For a turbine engine, the self-sustaining speed relates to the minimum RPM at which the engine: will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage. is designed to IDLE after starting. operates most efficiently in the cruise. will continue to operate without any starter motor assistance.

Regarding a jet engine: 1) The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases. 2) The specific fuel consumption decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

When a turbo prop pneumatic anti-icing system is switched on whilst at cruise: propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature rises and torque reduces. propeller RPM reduces, turbine temperature reduces and torque increases. propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature reduces and torque reduces. propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature remains unchanged and torque remains unchanged.

On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide: 1) electricity. 2) air for main engine starting. 3) hydraulic pressure. 4) air for air conditioning. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1. 1, 2, 3, 4. 1, 2, 4. 1, 3, 4.

A flight deck indication that a fire extinguishing agent has been discharged would be?. Light only. Light and horn. Horn only. Aural warning.

In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. These compartments are: 1) the main landing gear wheel wells 2) the fuel tanks 3) the oil tanks 4) the auxiliary power unit 5) around the engines. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3. 1, 4, 5. 2, 5. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

Which statements concerning the use of halon gas in engine fire extinguishing systems are correct/incorrect? 1) Halon gas suppresses the chemical reaction of fire. 2) Halon gas is more effective than any other type of fire extinguisher. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct.

Most modern aeroplanes have fire extinguishers in the toilet compartments which are: manually operated to release the extinguishant. fully automatic and activated by smoke. automatic and self activated by heat. operated by a switch in the cockpit and/or a switch at each cabin attendant station.

When an engine bay fixed fire extinguisher is activated, to what location is the extinguishant directed?. The engine intake. The low pressure end of the outside of the engine compressor. Into the combustion chambers. The high pressure end of the engine turbine.

How is a typical gas turbine engine fire detection system tested?. Using a heat source. Using a pressure source. It cannot be checked apart from a physical wiring check. There is a test circuit that carries out a continuity check.

A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew. activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground. automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire . inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.

Power plant fire extinguishers are operated by: an electrically fired cartridge rupturing a seal in the head of the bottle. an electrically heated capsule rupturing a seal in the pipeline at the engine. manual remote control opening a discharge valve. a mechanical link withdrawing a safety pin and allowing a spring operated plunger to rupture the bottle seal.

Generally, when the fire handle of the engine fire-extinguishing system on an aeroplane is pulled, the effects are: 1) opening of the bleed air valves and HP valves on the engine concerned. 2) arming of the extinguishing system. 3) immediate discharge of extinguishing agent. 4) deactivation of the electric generators. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 4. 2, 3. 1, 4. 1, 3.

A flight deck oxygen system regulator has 3 controls: POWER lever: ON /OFF; "O2" lever: NORMAL/ 100%; EMERGENCY lever: ON / OFF. Among the following statements, the correct proposition is: the EMERGENCY lever in the ON position enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure. the "CO2" lever in the ON position enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate. with the EMERGENCY lever in the OFF position, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe. the POWER lever in the ON position, and, the "O2" lever in the NORMAL position allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.

In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment: protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases. protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization. protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.

Oxygen regulators used by the flight crew for most commercial jet aircraft are of the: continuous pressure diluter-demand type. continuous flow type. pressure demand type. diluter-demand type.

Who are smoke hoods available to and for how long must they provide oxygen?. Everyone on board the aircraft and last for 15 minutes. The aircraft crew and must last for 20 minutes. The aircraft crew and must last for 15 minutes. The flight deck crew and must last for 20 minutes.

Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? 1) Chemical oxygen generators are often used to supply passenger oxygen. 2) The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, can be switched off. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.

When a cabin oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes: pure oxygen at the ambient pressure. pure oxygen under pressure. a mixture of oxygen and cabin air. cabin air under pressure.

Fixed oxygen systems in pressurised aeroplanes are used to provide oxygen: 1) in the event of depressurisation. 2) in the event of any passenger indisposition. 3) during a normal flight. 4) in the event of smoke or toxic fumes in the cockpit. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 4. 1, 2, 4. 3. 2, 3.

Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the: 1) cockpit 2) cabin 3) toilets 4) smoke hood. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2. 2, 3, 4. 1, 4. 1, 3.

The type of an aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers is mostly: a pressure demand system. portable equipment only. an air recycle system. a continuous flow system.

Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? 1) Chemical oxygen generators are often used to supply passenger oxygen. 2) The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off. 1) is correct, 2) is correct. 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect. 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct. 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.

In a pressurized aircraft, the first aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to: protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases. give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders. protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation. protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.

What is supplementary oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft?. To protect flight and cabin crew against smoke and fumes. To protect certain passengers and carried only for those passengers. To provide medical assistance to passengers and crew. To protect passengers and crew against the effects of accidental depressurisation.

A public transport aircraft is cruising at FL390. It is fined with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of cabin depressurization, the passenger oxygen masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: 10 000 ft. 14 000 ft. 15 000 ft. 13 000 ft.

The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is: 1) pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system 2) electrical for the chemical oxygen system 3) pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system 4) electrical for the gaseous oxygen system. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2. 1, 3. 2, 3. 2, 4.

Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the passenger must: operate the relevant switch in his armrest. firmly pull the mask towards his face. firmly pull the door compartment of the oxygen mask storage. turn the oxygen valve to open.

A pressurised aeroplane is flying at FL370 and experiences a rapid decompression. Which of the following statements is correct about the oxygen system?. The oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members. If the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes. Manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible. The oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers.

The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts: immediately. after pulling the oxygen mask downwards. only above FL200. after the system has been switched on by a crew member.

The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about: 5 minutes. 30 minutes. 2 hours. 15 minutes.