AIRFRAME AME TEST 4

An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to. act as a restraint strap. provide current return paths. aid inthe panel installation.

When an unpressurized aircraft's static pressure system is leak checked to comply with the requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system tester? 1. Vertical speed indicator 2. Cabin altimeter 3. Altimeter 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator 5. Airspeed indicator. 2 OR 4. 1 OR 5. 3.

When performing the static system leak­ age check required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes. static pressure. negative pressure. positive pressure.

An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the compass correction card when. the compass is serviced. equipment is added that could effect compass deviation. an annual inspection is accomplished on the aircraft.

When must the radio station license be displayed in an aircraft equipped with a two-way radio?. When the aircraft is certified for IFR flight. When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S. When the aircraft is returned to service.

Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes. sense and loop antennas. RMI indicator antenna. marker beacon antenna.

An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery must be capable of furnishing pow­er for signal transmission for at least. 48 hours. 36 hours. 72 hours.

The preferred location of an ELT is. where it is readily accessible to the pilot or a member of the flightcrew while the aircraft is in flight. as far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical fin. as far aft as possible.

An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is normally activated by an inertial switch or equivalent mechanism if subjected to a force of a prescribed intensity and du­ ration. It must actívate when the force is applied. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. in any direction relative to the aircraft axes. parallel to the vertical axis of the aircraft.

How may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator transmit­ ter (ELT)?. By activating the transmitter and measuring the signal strength. By removing the batteries and testing them under a measured load to determine if 50 percent of the useful life remains. By observing the battery rcplacement date marked on the outside of the transmitter.

How may the operation of an installed emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be verified during aircraft inspection?. By moving the deactivating switch from the DISARM position to the ARM position, while monitoring the civil emergency frequency with a communications receiver at five minutes after the hour. By tuning a communications receiver to the civil emergency frequency, and activating the ELT momentarily within five minutes after the hour. By activating the 5 g switch and turning the unit on at five minutes after the hour.

Long Range Navigation (LORAN) systems determine aircraft location by. measuring the inertial forces acting on the aircraft. means of pulsed signals transmitted from ground stations. means of signals transmitted to and from navigation satellites.

VHF radio signals are commonly used in. both VOR navigation and ATC communications. ATC communications. VOR navigation.

In the landing configuration GPWS typi­ cally monitors the radio (radar) altimeter; air data computer; instrument landing system, and. aileron, rudder, and elevator positions. landing gear and flap positions. spoiler, slat, and stabilizer positions.

In general, the purpose of an aircraft tran­sponder is to. continually transmit heading, speed, and rate of climb/decent etc. information to ATC. monitor aircraft speed, heading, altitude, and attitude whenever the autopilot system is engaged. receive an interrogation signal from a ground station and automatically send a reply back.

One antenna can be used for the radio range and standard broadcast bands in light aircraft because the. antenna is omnidirectional. antenna length may be electronically adjusted. two ranges are clase together.

The purpose of a localizer is to. set the airplane on the proper approach angle to the runway. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway. align the airplane with the center of the runway.

The purpose of a glideslope system is to. indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway. assist the pilot in making a correct angle of descent to the runway. provide for automatic altitude reporting to air traffic control.

When must the emergency locator trans­mitter (ELT) battery be replaced (otherthan reading the replacement date)?. When the transmitter has been tested more than ten times. When the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour. Must be replaced annually or if the five G switch has been activated.

What is the primary purpose of an autopi­lot?. To fly a more precise course for the pilot. To obtain the navigational aid necessary for extended over water flights. To relieve the pilot of control of the aircraft during long periods of flight.

Which of the following provides manual maneuverability of the aircraft while the autopilot is engaged?. Directional gyro indicator. Servo amplifier. Flight controller.

In an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons?. Course signal. Follow-up signal. Displacement signal.

In which control element of an autopilot system is an attitude indicator?. sensing. Command. Input.

What is the operating principie of the sens­ing device used in an autopilot system?. The rate of change of motion between the gyro gimbal rings and the aircraft. The reaction of the force 90° away from the applied force in the direction of gyro rotation. The relative motion between a gyro and its supporting system.

What will occur if an aircraft attitude is changed by its autopilot system in order to correct for an error and the involved con­ trol surfaces are returned to streamline by the time the aircraft has reached its correct position?. Normal operation. Overshoot and oscillation. Undershoot and oscillation.

What component of an autopilot system applies torque to the control surfaces of an aircraft?. Controller. Gyro. Servo.

What is the main purpose of a servo in an autopilot system?. Correct for displacement of the aircraft about its axis. Move the control surface as commanded. Change mechanical energy to electrical energy.

Which channel of an autopilot detects changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft?. Aileron. Elevator. Rudder.

The elevator channel of an autopilot controls the aircrlaft about which axis of rotation?. Lateral. Roll. Longitudinal.

What component is the sensing device in an electromechanical autopilot system?. Gyro. Servo. Controller.

A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft around how many axes?. Four. Two. Three.

Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many swept wing aircraft, is counteracted with. a yaw damper system. an aileron damper system. a flight director system.

When operationally checking an autopilot system on the ground, after the aircraft's main power has been switched on, the autopilot should be engaged. only after the gyros come up to speed and the amplifier warms up. for only a few minutes at a time. whenever the operator desires.

On modern large aircraft, what electronic device typically monitors flight parameters and performs autopilot functions?. Control/ display unit. Transponder. Flight management computer.

Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to jolts and vibration by. shock mounts. spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks. rubber or foam cushioning material between circuit chassis and case.

When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured firmly along its entire length. wherever the cable sags. at 1-foot intervals. at 2-foot intervals.

How much clearance from the seat bottom is required when installing radio equip­ ment under a seat?. No set mínimum as long as the equipment receives adequate cooling and damage protection. 3 inches with the seat unoccupied. 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to maximum downward seat spring deflection.

Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at. low current levels. high voltage level. high current levels.

An aircraft antenna installation must be grounded. to the airframe. to the radio rack. to the engine.

When an antenna is installed, it should be fastened. to the primary structure at the approximate intersection of the thiee aircraft axes. with a reinforcing doubler on each side of the aircraft skin. so that loads imposed are transmitted to the aircraft structure.

After an automatic direction finding anten­ na has been installed, the. loop must be calibrated. antenna must be grounded. transceiver must be compensated.

Doublers are used when antennas are in­ stalled to. prevent oil canning of the skin. eliminate antenna vibration. reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin.

What characteristics of the installation of a rigid antenna on a vertical stabilizer should be evaluated?. Polarization and impedance. Flutter and vibration. Impedance and interference.

A gasket or sealant is used between the antenna mast and fuselage skin. for aircraft pressurization only. to prevent the entry of moisture. to prevent abrasion between the antenna mast and fuselage skin.

The preferred location of a VOR antenna on light aircraft is on. top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing forward. top of the vertical stabilizer. the bottom of the fuselage and as far forward as possible.

DI\.1E antenna should be located in a position on the aircraft that will. permit interruptions in DME operation. not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked. eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a station.

When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius should be at least. 10 times the diameter of the cable. 15 times the diameter of the cable. 20 times the diameter of the cable.

When installing a DME antenna, it should be aligned with the. centerline on the airplane. angle of incidence. null position.

The addition of avionics and associated antenna systems forward of the CG limit will affect. CG limits and usefulload. usefulload and maximum gross weight. empty weight and usefulload.

When installing pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots,. apply a solution of glycerin and water between the rubber and the wing skin. apply a silastic compound between the boot and the wing skin. remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.

Which of the following are found in a lam­ inated integral electrically heated wind­ shield system? 1. Autotransformer 2. Heat control relay 3. Heat control toggle switch 4. 24V DC power supply 5. Indicating light. 2,3,4 and 5. 1,2,3 and 5. 1,2,4 and 5.

What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replace­ment?. Ammeter reading. Continuity check of system. Voltmeter reading.

What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?. Vacuum pump. shuttle valve. Distributor valve.

What is the source of pressure for inflat­ ing deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?. Vane type pump. Piston type pump. Gear type pump.

Which of the following regulates the vac­uum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?. Distributor valve. Pressure regulator. Suction relief valve.

What may be used to clean deicer boots?. Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel. Naphtha. Soap and water.

Some aircraft are protected against air­frame icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti ice system usually operated?. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur. Insymmetric cycles during icing conditions to remove ice as it accumulates. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight.

Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system?. Pressure and vacuum gauges will fluctuate as the deicer boots inflate and deflate. Relatively steady readings on the pressure gauge and fluctuating readings on the vacuum gauge. Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.

What method is usually employed to con­trol the temperatura of an anti icing system using surface combustion heaters?. Thermostats in the cockpit. Heater fuel shutoff valves. Thermo cycling switches.

What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots?. To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically. To distribute anti-icing fluid to the deicer boots. To equalize the air pressure to the left and right wings.

What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?. To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vacuum system. To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer boots. To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.

Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated wind­ shields?. Imbedded in the glass. Around the glass. Attached to the glass.

what maintains normal windshield tem­ peratura control in an electrically heated windshield system?. Thermistors. Electronic amplifiers. Thermal overheat switches.

Arcing in an electrically heated wind­ shield panel usually indicates a break­ clown in the. temperature sensing elements. conductiva coating. autotransformers.

Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the systems is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?. Distributor valve. Ejector. Vacuum relief valve.

How do deicer boots help remove ice accu­mulations?. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up. By preventing the formation of ice. By breaking up ice formations.

Why are the tubes in deicer boots alter­nately inflated?. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airf1ow. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a mínimum. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump.

Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air. Electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol spray, or alcohol spray. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.

What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft sur­face?. Methyl ethyl ketene and ethylene glycol. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol. Naphtha and isopropyl alcohol.

Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft?. Hot air. Warm water. A brush or a squeegee.

What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present?. Injector ice. Carburetor ice. Inlet ice.

What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immo­bile because of ice?. Anti icing fluid. Deicing fluid. Hot air.

What is used as a temperatura sensing ele­ment in an electrically heated windshield?. Thermometer. Thermistor. Thermocouple.

Which section of a turbine engine provides high pressure bleed air to an air cycle machine for pressurization and air-condi­ tioning?. C-D inlet compressor duct. Inlet compressor. Turbine compressor.

The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at the selected altitude by. controlling the air inflow rate. controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin. inflating door seals and recirculating conditioned cabin air.

What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?. Cabin altitude. Bleed air pressure. Compression air pressure.

The purpose of the dump valve in a pres­surized aircraft is to relieve. a negative pressure differential. pressure in excess of the maximum differential. all positive pressure from the cabin.

How often should standard weight high pressure oxygen cylinders be hydrostati­cally tested?. Every 4 years. Every 3 years. Every 5 years.

To be eligible for recharging, a DOT 3HT oxygen cylinder must have been hydro­ statically tested every three years and be retired from service after. 15 years or 10,000 filling cycles. 24 years or 4,380 filling cycles. 10 years or 5,000 filling cycles.

What type of oxygen system uses the re­breather bag-type mask?. Demand. Diluter demand. Continuous flow.

The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulation of the. outflow valve. safety valve. safety and outflow valves.

For use in pressurized aircraft, which is generally the least complicated and re­quires the least maintenance?. High-pressure oxygen systems. Low-pressure oxygen systems. Chemical oxygen generator systems.

The main cause of contamination in gas­eous oxygen systems is. moisture. dust and other airborne particulates. other atmospheric gases.

How is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?. By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set. By a pressure sensitiva valve that controls the output pressure of the. By a pr.essure sensitive switch that causes l}le pressurization pump to turn on or off as required.

On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the. main landing gear operated switch. negative pressure-relief valve. cabin pressure regulator.

The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the. outflow valve opening. pneumatic system pressure. inflow valve opening.

What component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than airplane altitude'?. Negative pressure relief valve. Cabin rate of descent control. Positive pressure relief valve.

Which prevents a sudden loss of pressur­ ization in the event that there is a loss of the pressurization source?. Firewall shutoff valve. Cabin pressure outflow valve. Delivery air duct check valve.

The primary function of the cabin pressur­ ization system outflow valve is to. maintain the same cabin air pressure at all altitudes. maintain the desired cabin pressure. provide protection against over pressurization.

One purpose of a jet pump in a pressuriza­tion and air conditioning system is to. produce a high pressure for operation of the outflow valve. provide for augmentation of airflow in sorne areas of the aircraft. assist in the circulation of Freon.

Which best describes cabin differential pressure?. Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure. Difference between cabin pressure controller setting and actual cabin pressure. Difference between cabin flight altitude pressure and Mean Sea Level pressure.

The cabin pressurization modes of opera­tion are. ambient, u:{lpressurized, and isobaric. differential, unpressurized, and isobaric. isobaric, differential, and maximum differential.

A pressurization controller uses. barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate of change. bleed air pressure, outside air temperatura, and cabin rate of climb. cabin rate of climb, bleed air volume, and cabin pressure.

When an aircraft's oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be. removed and replaced. bubble tested with a special soap solution manufacturad specifically for this purpose. inspected using a special oxygen system dye penetrant.

In the combustion heater, combustion air system, what prevents too much air from entering the heaters as air pressure increas­es?. Only a differential pressure regulator can be used. Either a combustion air relief valve or a differential pressure regulator. Only a combustion air relief valve can be used.

The basic air cycle cooling system consists of. heaters, coolers, and compressors. a source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine. ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds.

What component might possibly be dam­ aged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the low side of a vapor cycle cooling sys­ tem when the pressure is too high or the outside air temperatura is too low?. Compressor. Condenser. Evaporator.

How can it be determinad that a vapor cycle cooling system is charged with the proper amount of Freon?. The compressor loads up and RPM decreases. Air bubbles appear in the sight glass. Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear.

What component in a vapor cycle cooling system would most likely be at fault if a system would not take a Freon charge?. Expansion valve. Condensor. Receiver dryer.

Frost or ice buildup on a vapor cycle cool­ ing system evaporator would most likely be caused by. moisture in the evaporator. the mixing valve sticking closed. inadequate airflow through the evaporator.

Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on sorne turbine aircraft, how is cold air supplied?. By the ram cycle cooling unit. By the flow control unit. By the air cycle machine turbine.

Where does the last stage of cooling in an air cycle air conditioning system occur?. secondary heat exchanger. Refrigeration unit compressor. Expansion turbine.

The point at which Freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system gives up heat and changes from a gas to a liquid is the. expansion valve. evaporator. condenser.

The position of the thermostatic expansion valve in a vapor cycle cooling system is determinad by temperatura and pressure ofthe. Freon entering the evaporator. freon in the outlet of the evaporator. air in the outlet of the condenser.

The function of the condenser in a Freon cooling system is to. transfer heat from the Freon gas to ambient air. change liquid Freon into a gas before it enters the compressor. transfer heat from the cabin air to the liquid Freon.

The function of an expansion valve in a Freon cooling system is to act as a meter­ing device and to. reduce the pressure of the gaseous Freon. increase the pressure of the liquid Freon. reduce the pressure of the liquid Freon.

When servicing an air conditioning system that has lost all of its Freon, it is necessary to. check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, relieve vacuum, and add Freon. check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, and add Freon. check oil and add as necessary, and add Freon.

The air cycle cooling system produces cold air by. passing air through cooling coils that contain a refrigerant. extracting heat energy across a compressor. extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.

A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum take­ off weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the re­ quirements of fuel jettisoning. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25 and CAM4b. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 andCAM 8.

The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in sorne problems not normally associated with aviation gasoline. One of these problems is. microbial contaminants. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature lowers at altitude. higher vapor pressure.

Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes through the filters. What are common methods of preventing this hazard?. Micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater. Anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater. High-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater.

Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more easily suspended. Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility of jet fuels. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasolina.

When installing a rigid fuelline, 1/2 inch in diameter, at what intervals should the line be supported?. 12 inches. 16 inches. 24 inches.

How does temperatura affect fuel weight?. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon. Temperatura has no effect. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.

What mínimum required markings must be placed on or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility category aircraft?. The word "Avgas" and the mínimum fuel grade or designation for the engines, and the usable fuel tank capacity. The word "Avgas" and the mínimum fuel grade, and the total fuel tank capacity. The word "Avgas" and the mínimum fuel grade.

What is one disadvantage of using aromat­ic aviation fuels?. Results in low fuel volatility. A fuel intercooler is required. Deteriorates rubber parts.

According to Part 23, what mínimum required markings must be placed at or near each appropriate fuel filler cover for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?. The word "Avgas" and the mínimum fuel grade. The word "Fuel" and usable fuel capacity. The word "Avgas" and the total fuel capacity.

The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is. lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline. approximately 20 PSI at 100°F. higher than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.

What is the maximum vapor pressure al­ lowable for an aircraft fuel?. 7 PSI. 3 PSI. 5 PSI.

How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be improved?. By adding a knock enhancer. By adding a knock inhibitor. By adding a fungicide agent.

The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a. lower landing weight. reduced fire hazard. balanced fuelload.

Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when jettisoning fuel?. Crossfeed system. Two interconnected systems. Two separate independent systems.

Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jetti­ son systems by. gravity. boost pumps. gravity and engine driven fuel pumps.

Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by. dump limit valves ora low-level circuit. standpipes in the fuel tanks. closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off the fuel dump switch(es).

Normal fuel cross-feed system operation in multiengine aircraft. reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during fueling or defueling operations. provides a means to maintain a balanced fuelload condition. calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct lateral instability.

What is the primary purpose of the cross­ feed system?. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level. To allow the feeding of any engine from anytank. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for defueling.

A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system allows how many of the following? 1. All tanks can be serviced through a single connection. 2. Any engine can be fed from any tank. 3. All engines can be fed from all tanks simultaneously. 4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the fuel system. THREE. TWO. FOUR.

What is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure?. Air fuel separators. Boost pumps. Anti-foaming additives.

How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged, single speed, centrifuga! type fuel pump?. By the first check valve downstream from the pump. By the pump's design and interna! clearances. By the engine driven pump's design and internal clearance.

What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?. To decrease tank interna! air pressure. To decrease fuel vapor pressure. To maintain atmospheric pressure.

An aircraft's integral fuel tank is. a part of the aircraft structure. usually located in the bottom of the fuselage. a self sealing tank.

Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system'?. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be present in the fuel system. IT provides a drain for residual fuel. It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.

The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane type fuel pump is to. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes. vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.

When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should. slightly increase before the engine starts to die. remain the same until the cutoff is effected, then drop rapidly. slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.

What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft?. Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve. Place the valve in the OFF position , drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl. Remove fuel cap(s), turn boost pump(s) on, and watch for bubbling in the tanks.

The capacitance type (electronic) fuel quantity indicator. has no moving parts in the tank. has two tubes separated by a mica dielectric in the tank. utilizas a float operated variable capacitar.

What type of remate reading fuel quan­tity indicating system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?. Direct reading. Electromechanical. Electronic.

Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating sys­ tem incorporates a signal amplifier. Electrical. Sight glass. Electronic.

The electronic type fuel quantity indicat­ing system consists of a bridge circuit,. an amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit. a tank, an amplifier, and an indicator. a tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier.

A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating sys­ tem?. capacitor. Synchro. Selsyn.

One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that. the indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no conversion is necessary. only one transmitter and one indicator are needed regardless of the number of tanks. several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.

A fuel totalizer is a component which indi­cates the. total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines. amount of fuel in any given tank. amount of fuel in all tanks.

When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of gallons, the measurement will be more accurate because fuel volume. increases when temperatura decreases. varíes with temperatura change. varíes with changes in atmospheric pressure.

An electrical type fuel quantity indicat­ ing system consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a. float operated transmitter installed in the tank. float operated receiver installed in the tank. float resting on the surface of the tank.

What is the purpose of a float operated transmitter installed in a fuel tank?. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the tank. It senses the total amount of fuel density.

The probe of a capacitance type fuellevel gauge is essentially a. float actuated variable capacitor. capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate. capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.

A drip gauge may be used to measure. the amount of fuel in the tank. system leakage with the system shutdown. fuel pump diaphragm leakage.

What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure warning limits?. Fuel pressure relief valve. fuel flow meter bypass valve. Pressure sensitive mechanism.

What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure warning system?. Pressure sensitive mechanism. Fuel pressure gauge. Fuel flow meter.

What is the purpose of flapper type check valves in integral fuel tanks?. To allow the engine driven pumps to draw fuel directly from the tank if the boost pump fails. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps. To allow defueling of the tanks by suction.

What method is used on turbine powered aircraft to determine when the condition of the fuel is approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?. Fuel temperatura indicator. Fuel pressure gauge. Fuel pressure warning.

Which of the following would give the first positive indication that a changeover from one fuel tank to another is needed?. Fuel quantity indicator. Fuel pressure gauge. Fuel pressure warning.

A fuel pressure warning switch contacts clase and warning light is turned on when. the fuel flow stops. the fuel pressure drops below specified limits. a measured quantity of fuel has passed through it.

The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a. place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank can collect and be drained. positive system of maintaining the design mínimum fuel supply for safe operation. reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land safely in the event of fuel exhaustion.

Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft?. To facilitate servicing. To reduce weight. To reduce fire hazards.

Integral fuel tanks are. usually constructed of nonmetallic material. readily removed from the aircraft. formed by the aircraft structure.

The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to. resist fuel surging within the fuel tank. provide internal structural integrity. provide an expansion space for the fuel.

Fuel boost pumps are operated. automatically from fuel pressure. primarily for fuel transfer. to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.

Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to. act as check valves. reduce pressure. prevent a negative pressure.

Why are centrifuga! type boost pumps used in fuel systems of aircraft operating at high altitude?. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor. To supply fuel under pressure to engine driven pumps. Because they are positive displacement pumps.

Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?. To ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged boost pump. To exhaust fuel vapors. To limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere.

What type of fuel booster pump requires a pressure relief valve?. Centrifuga!. Sliding vane. Concentric.

To prevent vapor lock in fuellines at high altitude, sorne aircraft are equipped with. vapor separators. booster pumps. direct injection type carburetors.

The type of fuel boost pump that separatas air and vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to the carburetor is the. gear type pump. centrifugal type pump. sliding vane type pump.

When routing a fuelline between two rigidly mounted fittings the line should. have a flexible line added between two metal lines to allow for ease of installation. have at least one bend between such fittings. be a straight length of tubing and clamped to the aircraft structure.

Which procedure must be followed when defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?. Defuel all the tanks at one time. Defuel the outboard wing tanks first. Defuel the inboard wing tanks first.

Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in arder to. retard galvanic corrosion. drain off static charges. prevent stray currents.

Which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified. All electrical switches must be in OFF position. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected from the aircraft.

Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling method , what important precaution should be observed?. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for minimum filter pressure. The aircraft's electrical system must be on to indicate quantity gauge readings. The truck pump pressure must be correct for that refueling system.

What flight safety related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance limitations. Reduces the time required for fueling.

Aircraft pressure fueling systems instruc­ tional procedures are normally placarded on the. lower wing surface adjacent to the access door. fuel control panel access door. aircraft ground connection point.

Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually ac­complished through. at least one single point connection. individual fuel tank over wing and/or fuselage access points. pressure connections on individual fuel tanks.

Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuelleaks on most integral fuel tanks?. Riveting and resealing. Brazing and resealing. Welding and resealing.

When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks, what procedure should be followed?. Pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to locate leaks. Pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy water. Fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and brush with soapy water.

If it is necessary to enter an aircraft's fuel tank, which procedure should be avoided?. Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an air conditioned building. Continue purging the tank during the entire work period. Station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to perform rescue operations if required.

What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?. Steam clean the tank interior. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water. Purge the tank with air.

Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?. Carbon monoxide. Helium or argon. Carbon dioxide.

Fuel leaks are usually classified as a stain,a seep, a heavy seep, ora running leak. As a general rule,. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards. all fuelleaks regardless of location or severity are considerad a hazard to flight. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running leaks) are considerad flight hazards when located in unvented areas of the aircraft.

The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate. clogged fuel nozzle. excessive airflow across the venturi. too much fuel pressure.

What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting repairs?. C02. Steam. Water.

What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank after welded repairs?. Soft brush and warm water. 5 percent solution of nitrie or sulfuric acid. Mild solution of soap and warm water.

What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to read during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?. Zero. Both the total unusable fuel quantity and the unusable fuel quantity in each tank. The total unusable fuel quantity.

Whlch of the following is necessary to effectively troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system?. A set of Federal Aviation Regulations. The manufacturer's maintenance manuals. AC 43.13-1B, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices - Aircraft lnspection and Repair.

Which of the following would be most use­ful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel system?. Illustrated parts manual. Aircraft structure repair manual. A fuel system schematic.

If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or stor­ age tank which is known to be uncontami­ nated with dirt or water, periodic checks of the aircraft's fuel tank sumps and system strainers. are still necessary due to the possibility of contamination from other sources. can be eliminated except for the strainer check befare the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump check during 100-hour or annual inspections. can be sharply reduced since contamination from other sources is relatively unlikely and of little consequence in modern aircraft fuel systems.

Aircraft defueling should be accomplished. with the aircraft's communication equipment on and in contact with the tower in case of fire. in a hangar where activities can be controlled. in the open air for good ventilation.

The location of leaks and defects within the interna! portions of the fuel system can usually be determinad by. observing the pressure gauge and operating the selector valves. visual inspection for evidence of wet spots and stains, and feeling for unusually warm components. perfonning a fuel flow check.

When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all valves located downstream of boost pumps with the pumps. operating. dormant. at idle.

What can be done to eliminate or mini­mize the microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?. Use anti icing and antibacterial additives. Keep the fuel tank topped off. Add C02 as a purgativa.

If a bladder type fuel tank is to be left empty for an extended period of time, the inside of the tank should be coated with a film of. ethylene glycol. engine oil. linseed oil.

Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must. meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43. be at least flame resistant. be fireproof.

In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?. Engine and/or nacelle. Surface combustion heater compartment. Cockpit and/or cabin.

What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically. The test lamp illuminates andan alarm is provided automatically. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.

Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must. meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43. be at least flame resistant. be fireproof.

In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?. Engine and/or nacelle. Surface combustion heater compartment. Cockpit and/or cabin.

What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically. The test lamp illuminates andan alarm is provided automatically. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.

When air samples contain carbon roan­ oxide, portable carbon monoxide detec­ tors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?. Blue. Green. Red.

Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of. detection. construction. maintenance.

Smoke detectors which use a measure­ ment of light transmissibility in the air are called. visual devices. electromechanical devices. photoelectrical devices.

A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test nnit would be returned to service by. installing a new indicating element. evacuating the indicating element with C02. heating the indicating element to 300°F to reactivate the chemical.

Which fue detection system measures temperature rise comparad to a reference temperature?. Lindberg continuous element. Fenwal continuous loop. Thermocouple.

Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage com­ partment of an aircraft is commonly de­ tected by which instrument. Chemical reactor. Photoelectric cell. Sniffer.

Light refraction smoke detectors. sense light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber. use radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke. measure a reduction in the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area.

Why does the Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separata circuits?. A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction. This installation is equal to two systems: a main system anda reserve system.

The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous loop fire detection systems is. dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections. moisture. improper routing or clamping of loops.

A thermocouple in a fire detection sys­tem causes the warning system to operate because. heat decreases its electrical resistance. it expands when heated and forros a ground for the warning system. it generates a small current when heated .

The thermocouple fue warning system is activated by a. certain temperature. core resistance drop. rate of temperature rise.

When used in fue detection systems hav­ ing a single indicator light, thermal switch­ es are wired in. series with each other and parallel with the light. parallel with each other and in series with the light. series with each other and the light.

The thermal switches of a bimetallic ther­ mal switch type fire detection system are heat sensitive nnits that complete circuits ata certain temperature. They are connect­ed in. series with each other, but in parallel with the indicator lights. parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. parallel with each other, and in parallel with the indicator lights.

Maintenance of fire detection systems includes the. removal of excessive loop or element material. repair of damaged sensing elements. replacement of damaged sensing elements.

The types of fire extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are. water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons. water, dry chemical, methyl bromide, and chlorobromomethane. water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical.

A carbon dioxide (C02) hand held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the. horn is nonmagnetic. horn is nonmetallic. handle is insulated.

The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fuel is. dry powder chemical. water. carbon dioxide.

A fire extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by. attaching a remate pressure gauge. weighing the container and its contents. a hydrostatic test.

What is the color code for fire extinguisher lines?. Brown. Yellow. Red and green.

Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with. sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen. carbon dioxide and nitrogen. halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen.

What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built in fire extinguisher system?. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal discharge line. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line. The thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle.

On a periodic check of fíre extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between mínimum and maximum limits. What pro­cedure should be followed?. Release pressure if above limits. Replace the extinguisher container. Increase pressure if below limits.

In some fue extinguishing systems, evi­dence that the system has been intention­ ally discharged is indicated by the absence of a. red disk on the side of the fuselage. yellow disk on the side of the fuselage. green disk on the side of the fuselage.

If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason, it. cannot be used again. must be pressure checked. is recommended that the cartridge be used only on the original discharge valve assembly.

Which fue extinguishing agent is consid­ erad to be the least toxic?. Bromochloromethane (Halon 1011). Carbon dioxide. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).

A squib, as used in a fire protection sys­ tem, is a. temperatura sensing device. probe used for installing frangible disks in extinguisher bottles. device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released.

Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy af­ ter an annual inspection, due to an ítem re­ quiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish the repair)?. An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the aircraft for return to service. Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service, after the major repair. An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the aircraft for return to service.

An aircraft that is required by Section 91.409, to have a 100-hour inspection may be flown beyond the inspection require­ment. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but a special flight permit is necessary. if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 15 flight hours.

The maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is. 10 hours. 10 hours with a special flight permit. 12 hours with a special flight permit.

Which statement is correct when an air­craft has not been approved for return to service after an annual inspection because of severa! items requiring minor repair?. Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service. An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects, but an lA must approve the aircraft for return to servíce. An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft for return tu service.

An aircraft that is past due an annual in­spection may be flown. for the purpose of performing maintenance. for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours. if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.

For an individual (not a repair station) to conducta complete 100-hour inspection on an aircraft and approve it for return to service requires a mechanic certificate with an. airframe rating only. airframe and powerplant ratings with an inspection authorization. airframe and powerplant ratings.

Where would you find the operating con­ ditions that mak.e a 100-hour inspection mandatory'?. 14 CFR part 91. 14 CFR part 43. AC 43.13-2B.

Large airplanes and turbine-powered mul­ tiengine airplanes operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Oper­ ating and Flight Rules, must be inspected. in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (camp program) authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E. in accordance with the progressive inspection requirements of Federal Aviation Regulation Section 91.409(d). in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.

Which statement about Airworthiness Di­rectives (AD's) is true?. Compliance with an AD is not mandatory unlass the aircraft affected is for hire. AD's are information alert bulletins issued by the airframe, power plant, or component manufacturar. Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the maintenance records.

When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be ob­tained from. illustrated parts manual for the aircraft. maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and/or equipment manufacturer. the aircraft maintenance manual.

Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Cer­tificate data require approval for return to service. by an airframe and power plant mechanic. by the holder of an inspection authorization. by a field approval from the FAA.

Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an air­ craft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?. 14 CFR Part 65. 14 CFR Part 43. 14 CFR Part 91.

If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements in which document?. TSOC22. FAR Part 39. STC 1282.