atp "actualizado"

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?. V(S). V(S1). V(S0).

You have just touched down hard in the rain on a narrower-than-usual runway at night. You realize you have just experienced. runway length illusion. an atmospheric height illusion. ground lighting illusion.

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain 'VFR on Top'?. maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. maintain VFR altitudes, clouds clearance, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'E' correspond?. 8 only. 8 and 3. 3 only.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from Canarsie (CRI) to RWY 13R at JFK is. 5.2 NM. 6.2 NM. 8.6 NM.

When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too. high. low. shallow.

When an aircraft pilot takes off as ordered in the afternoon when embedded thunderstorms are indicated on radar and NOAA is broadcasting weather watches, it might be described as an example of. the resigned effect. an anti-authority attitude. an impulsive attitude.

Precise roll control using a rudder on a transport category airplane. can be effective when turbulence is encountered. is difficult and therefore not recommended. should be considered to assist the yaw damper.

What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?. rapid, shallow breathing. pain and cramping of the hands and feet. dizziness.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4?. 4,950 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 5,230 pounds.

Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived. altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircarft altitude. position is not affected. velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed.

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?. commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B737. ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.

What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?. drag increases because of increased induced drag. drag increases because of increased parasite drag. drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

(Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?. V(LE). V(MO) / M(MO). V(LO) / M(LO).

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

When should transponders be operated on the ground while taxiing?. only when ATC specifically request that the transponder to be activated. any time the airport is under IFR. all the time when at an airport with ASDE-X.

During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. to the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. to the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. Five. Four. Three.

METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001. SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC. What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?. The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed. Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour. Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.

(Refer to Figure 249.) You arrive at PILOC. The preflight briefer issued you an "unreliable" advisory on the approach before you took off. Your avionics indicates good signal. You. know you can only fly the approach down to LNAV DA minimum of 459 ft. because of the FSS advisory. can use the LPV minimum of 368'DA and 2400 RVR in your CAT B airplane. can only fly the approach down to the LNAV MDA of 560'.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you pass V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at V(MC)?. Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered. 10 miles from the severe thunderstorm. 15 miles from the severe thunderstorm. 20 miles from the severe thurnderstorm.

Operations at and above FL180 require the use of what onboard avionics equipment?. Flight Information Services - Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast. Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast. Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Flight Information Services - Broadcast.

When piloting a turbojet transport airplane, what is a possible result when operating at speeds 5 to 10 percent above the critical Mach number?. Increased aerodynamic efficiency. Decreased control surface effectiveness. Occasional low speed Mach buffet warnings.

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. back to the departure airport.

A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current weather is rainy but is expected to clear, with temperature/dew point spread forecast to be 10 degrees C/10 degrees C and winds 330 degrees at 5 knots. What weather conditions should you expect?. Visual meteorological conditions until later in the day. These conditions could produce radiation fog. Dense fog that deepens later in the day.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 1,625 pounds. 1,950 pounds. 2,440 pounds.

To use a substitute means of guidance on departure procedures, pilots of aircraft with RNAV systems using DME/DME/IRU without GPS input must. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet at the start point of takeoff roll. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 2,000 feet of the initialization point. ensure their aircraft navigation system position is confirmed within 1,000 feet of pushback.

What is the purpose of a zero fuel weight limitation?. To limit load forces on the wing spars with heavy fuselage loads. To limit load forces on the fuselage with a heavy wing fuel load. To prevent overstressing the landing gear during a hard landing.

All runway hold markings consist of. 2 dashed and 1 solid yellow line. 2 dashed and 2 solid yellow lines. 1 dashed and 1 solid yellow line.

Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. white in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. SDF - offset from runway plus 4° minimum, ILS - aligned with runway. SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. FL410. FL250. Above FL410.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 210 knots and 1.57 EPR. 210 knots and 1.51 EPR. 210 knots and 1.45 EPR.

A cyclone is. a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean. a tropical depression with sustained winds of 63 knots. a tropical depression with a barometric pressure in the center of the feature that is 35 mb lower than pressure outside the weather feature.

You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?. Nimbostratus. Standing lenticular. Cirrocumulus.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. is not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-3?. 95 NM. 79 NM. 57 NM.

In order to achieve the highest level of safety. each crewmember must carefully monitor the aircraft's flight path. the crewmembers must continually monitor their seat dependent tasks. the captain's judgment must not be questioned.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. L/D(MAX). lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What weather improvement was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750 and 1818 UTC?. The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z. The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet. The temperature and dewpoint spread improved.

Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by. structural and power limits at high altitude. aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. control and structural limits at high altitude.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. 45 minutes at holding altitude. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'I' correspond?. 12 only. 9 only. 4 only.

The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR indicates that METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $. the latest information is transmitted over a discrete VHF frequency at KFSM. the latest information is broadcast on the voice portion of a local navaid at KFSM. maintenance is needed on the system.

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?. The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

When are inboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off. prior to the point where the jet touched down. beyond the point where the jet touched down. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?. .50 to .75 Mach. .75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases. at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?. Cloud bases form. Precipitation starts. Stable air changes to unstable air.

Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

The maximum tailwind component of the airplane is 10 knots. The actual tailwind calculated is 11 knots. Other aircraft are continuing to land, so you decide to ignore the limitation and land as well. Which hazardous attitude are you displaying?. Impulsivity. Resignation. Anti-authority.

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 200 knots.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-1?. 4 hours 5 minutes. 4 hours 15 minutes. 4 hours.

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT?. No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A test signal, 'TESTING,' is sent every 30 seconds. Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag would appear. The identifier would be removed.

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by. the height of the tropopause. measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate. cloud types and the type of precipitation.

At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70 PSI?. 85 knots. 80 knots. 75 knots.

Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff?. Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Lower-than-standard air density. Increased headwind component.

The rate of decrease in wind speed from the jet stream core is considerably greater on the. equatorial side. polar side. acute angle side.

At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI?. 90 knots. 99 knots. 110 knots.

What does the term 'minimum fuel' imply to ATC?. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?. No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and a TSO-C74b transponder.

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

(Refer to Figure 144.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?. 4 and 5. 2 and 3. 3 and 4.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D' correspond?. 1. 10. 2.

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

(Refer to Figure 335.) At San Francisco Intl (SFO), the runway hold position signs are. all on the left-hand side of the taxiways. all on the right-hand side of the taxiways. on either side of the taxiways.

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot in command. Director of operations or flight follower.

Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?. The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight visibility. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility. The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?. Rotor cloud. Standing lenticular. Low stratus.

Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff. from a runway intersection. from a runway intersection, only at night. from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.

(Refer to figure 393.) Note: Applicants may request a printed copy of the chart(s) or graph(s) for use while computing the answer. All printed pages must be returned to test proctor. With an OAT of 10 degrees C, inertial separator in bypass and cabin heater, you calculate maximum torque for climb to be. 1795 ft-lbs. 1695 ft-lbs. 1615 ft-lbs.

Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?. Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed.

(Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) What type of weather information would normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-Hinckley?. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds, and any pertinent remarks. Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of the precipitation. Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, wind data, and density altitude.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'F' correspond?. 4. 11. 5.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation. are useful in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. have proven to increase safety in operations. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1?. 4,100 pounds. 3,600 pounds. 4,000 pounds.

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The appearance of an anvil top. The start of rain at the surface. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.

Detailed investigations of runway incursions have identified. 2 major areas of contributing factors. 3 major areas of contributing factors. 4 major areas of contributing factors.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.

Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?. The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.

If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the SIGMET be obtained?. ATC will announce the hazard and advise when information will be provided in the FSS broadcast. By contacting a weather watch station. By contacting the nearest flight service.

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

(Refer to Figures 342 and 450.) With a reported temperature of 40 C, flaps set at 20, and a 3 knot tailwind at a takeoff weight of 84,500, the V1MBE is. 160 knots. 143 knots. 166 knots.

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training. with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew members and dispatchers.

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?. Operations Specifications. Operating Certificate. Dispatch Release.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and sunrise.

Accident-prone pilots tend to. have disdain toward rules. follow methodical information gathering techniques. excessively utilize outside resources.

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

Jet streams are strongest during which season in the Northern Hemisphere?. Spring. Summer. Winter.

When taxiing on an airport with ASDE-X, you should. operate the transponder only when the airport is under IFR or at night during your taxi. operate the transponder with altitude reporting all of the time during taxiing. be ready to activate the transponder upon ATC request while taxing.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. Radar, VOR, ADF, taxiway lead-off lights and RVR. RCLS and REIL. All of the required ground components.

If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. They are both the same, 31,000 feet. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What type of report is listed for Lubbock (KLBB) at 1818Z?. An Aviation selected special weather report. A special report concerning very low station pressure. A Special METAR weather observation, concerning significant weather changes.

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. pilot in command. air carrier's chief pilot. certificate holder.

In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by 'VRB' where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as. 00003KT. VRB00KT. 00000KT.

(Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct only.

If a visual descent point (VDP) is published on a GPS approach, it. will be coded in the waypoint sequence and identified using ATD. will not be included in the sequence of waypoints. must be included in the normal waypoints.

You touchdown long with a speed of 145 knots on a 8,501 foot runway and the braking is not working, so you decide to takeoff and climbout. The engines require 5 seconds to spool up and then the airplane requires 10 seconds of acceleration to lift off again. The 4,000 foot marker flashed by 2 seconds ago. Do you have enough runway to lift off? (Use 143 knots for average ground speed due to the tailwind.). Yes, there will be a margin of about 850 feet which is almost 3 seconds of decision time. Yes, there will be a margin of almost 101 feet which is about 1.5 seconds of decision time. No, the runway is 99 feet too short and my decision was about 0.4 seconds too late.

(Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would you initiate the missed approach?. anytime after the FAF. 4.5 NM after JOLTE. IAH DME 1.0.

Under what condition is V(MC) the highest?. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. CG is at the most rearward allowable position. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. of FL 260. of FL 250. above FL 250.

A pilot making a blood donation in order to help a sick associate should be aware that for several weeks. sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the body. fewer oxygen molecules will be available to the respiratory membranes. the ability of the body tissues to effectively use oxygen is decreased.

When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. corrections for static pressure systems. corrections for instrument error.

You are rolling out after touchdown and decide you really need to abort your landing, and takeoff. Your airplane is at 116 knots and your engines have spooled down to 71% idle. You need a V2 of 142 to safely lift off and climb. The airplane will require 6 seconds to accelerate after the engines spool up to takeoff thrust, which requires 4 seconds. How much runway will you require for a safe landing abort from your decision point? (Use an average of 129 knots ground speed.). 1,738 feet. 2,178 feet. 3,601 feet.

What course of action should the pilot take if encountering freezing rain?. Climb because the temperature is warmer at a higher altitude. Descend because the temperature is warmer at a lower altitude. No change is necessary if all anti-ice/deice equipment is working.

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

(Refer to Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, your GPS changes from "armed" to "active," and the CDI needle begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no increase in cross track. In this situation, you. should immediately execute the missed approach. know that the sensitivity of the CDI has increased. would turn to the right to center the CDI needle.

What is the absolute ceiling of an airplane?. The point where the minimum rate of climb becomes lower than the optimum L/D(MAX) speed. The altitude at which the aircraft is unable to climb at more than 100 feet per minute. When the maximum rate of climb and the maximum angle of climb speeds converge.

You are the pilot-in-command of a 14 CFR Part 121 domestic operation flight. In addition to yourself, who is jointly responsible for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of the flight?. The director of operations. The chief pilot or designed. The aircraft dispatcher.

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word 'LIFEGUARD' should be entered in which section of the flight plan?. Aircraft type/special equipment block. Pilot's name and address block. Remarks block.

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

(Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as. circle, ellipse, or cylinder. circle, ellipse, or square. ellipse, square, or cylinder.

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every ...................... 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'D' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 1,500 feet.

What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as. somatogravic illusion. ground lighting illusion. autokinesis.

What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?. Light and variable. Wind shear. Frontal passage.

(Refer to Figures 340 and 450.) With a reported temperature of 35 C, flaps set at 8, and 5 knots of headwind at a takeoff weight of 82,300 pounds, the V1MBE is. 174 knots. 169 knots. 154 knots.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 x 68.7 inches? Floor load limit - 79 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown devices - 27 lb. 884.1 pounds. 857.1 pounds. 841.1 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'F' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,000 feet.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on V8 southwest bound between HEC VORTAC and PDZ VORTAC is. halfway. 27 DME miles from HEC VORTAC. 31 DME miles from the HEC VORTAC.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-5?. 2 hours 55 minutes. 3 hours 10 minutes. 2 hours 59 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 224.) The ILS critical area markings denote. where you are clear of the runway. where you must be to start your ILS procedure. where you are clear of the ILS critical area.

What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.

(Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2,000 feet short of the end of a 7,500-foot dry runway?. 32,200 pounds. 71,000 pounds. 72,500 pounds.

Approaching the runway 1 degree below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?. 250 feet. 500 feet. 1,000 feet.

Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is. closer to the runway than it actually is. farther from the runway than it actually is. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

Upon landing, spoilers. decrease directional stability on the landing rollout. function by increasing tire to ground friction. should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'F' correspond?. 10. 14. 16.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol. V(2min). V(1). V(LOF).

The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to. raise the eutectic point. decrease the freeze point. increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-4?. 63 NM. 53 NM. 65 NM.

What is a difference between the fowler flap system and split flap system?. Fowler flaps produce the greatest change in pitching moment. Fowler flaps produce more drag. Split flaps cause the greatest change in twisting loads.

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and official sunrise. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing.

(Refer to Figures 297 and 481.) With a reported temperature of 0 C, at 500 feet AGL after takeoff, and airspeed of 145 knots IAS, the radius of turn is. 7,850 feet. 8,150 feet. 8,450 feet.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

An air carrier aircraft flown into the ground while troubleshooting a landing gear fault is an example of. neglect and reliance on memory. loss of situational awareness. lack of aviation experience.

Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?. Altocumulus. Cumulonimbus. Stratocumulus.

Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?. Angle of attack. Altitude. Airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 163A.) Arriving at Ryan Field at 1600Z under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) in a turbine-powered airplane, at what altitude should you enter the traffic pattern and remain at that altitude until further descent is required for a safe landing?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-3?. 36,000 pounds. 34,500 pounds. 33,000 pounds.

When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?. 1 SM. 1/2 SM. 300 feet and 1/2 SM.

If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display. an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP. an extension of the outbound final approach course. an extension of the inbound final approach course.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A large airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?. VOR. VOR and ILS. VOR and DME.

What would authorize an air carrier to conduct a Special Instrument Approach Procedure?. Operations specifications. Compliance statement. Training specifications.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 48.5 x 33.5 inches Pallet weight - 44 lbs. Tiedown devices - 27 lbs. Cargo weight - 786.5 lbs. 79 lbs/sq ft. 76 lbs/sq ft. 73 lbs/sq ft.

The lowest CAT II minimums are. DH 100 and RVR 1200. DH 150 and RVR 1600. DH 50 and RVR 1200.

When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach. altitude may be higher than it appears. altitude may be lower than it appears. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?. 48. 52. 32.

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as. 8,000 ft/min. 7,000 ft/min. 6,000 ft/min.

What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. High - pulsing white, on glidepath - green, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on glidepath - steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on course and on glidepath - steady white, off course but on glidepath - pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red.

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

(Refer to Figure 127.) What is the base of the Class A airspace?. 12,000 feet AGL. 14,500 feet MSL. FL 180.

(Refer to Figures 340, 451, and 452) With a reported temperature of 20 C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds closed and a takeoff weight of 79,500 pounds, the takeoff safety speed is. 154 knots. 160 knots. 162 knots.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl?. Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold. Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway slope to the SE. Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent upslope of the runway.

You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment?. At any time during your required rest period. At the end of your required rest period. No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.

(Refer to Figure 348.) How can the pilot receive the latest NOTAMs for the TUS LAX flight?. Monitor ATIS on 123.8 MHz. Contact the RCO on 122.2 MHz. Request ADCUS on any FSS or Tower frequency.

When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. When aligned on the final approach course. When cleared for the approach.

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb. 13 minutes. 15 minutes. 16 minutes.

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is. 800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2.

Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute. looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning , then repeat. looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.

What are FDC NOTAMs?. Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. Time critical aeronautical information of a temporary nature from distant centers. Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normally published charts.

The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $. less than 1/4 statute mile. measured 1/4 statute mile. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.

What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?. Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the. aircraft dispatcher. first officer. pilot-in-command.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?. 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

Precipitation induced fog. results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling through cooler air. results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling through warmer air. is usually of short duration.

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A minimum of 2-hours' supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.

When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS. preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.

Embedded thunderstorms, which can be hazardous during instrument flight, are most likely to occur. behind a fast-moving cold front. in a warm front occlusion. in a cold front occlusion.

"Rest period" means. an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.

Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?. Military controllers. ATC controllers. Each pilot.

How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?. It varies directly with a change in altitude. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb. It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.

Takeoff hold lights (THL) are a part of the. automatic runway status light system. tower operated runway stop light system. ground controller operated ramp status holding light system.

Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?. Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 42.6 x 48.7 inches? Floor load limit - 117 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 43 lb Tiedown devices - 31 lb. 1,611.6 pounds. 1,654.6 pounds. 1,601.6 pounds.

What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. Strong vibrations and loud roar. Occasional loud 'bang' and flow reversal. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.

What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. 0 DME miles. 2 DME miles. 2.3 DME miles.

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability.

Runway Status Lights (REL) are. an independent light system. automatically activated. ATC tower controlled.

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is. V(2). V(REF). V(1).

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately. by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. to local law enforcement. by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to. -20°F ambient temperature. +32°F outside temperature or below. a freezing point no greater than 20°F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?. Light rain showers. Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour. The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.

In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report. on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies 'NO PT,' the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

At what speed, with reference to L/D(MAX), does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?. A speed greater than that for L/D(MAX). A speed equal to that for L/D(MAX). A speed less than that for L/D(MAX).

What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second identified as a high-pitched tone. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second identified as a low-pitched tone. Alternate dots and dashes identified as an intermediate tone.

(Refer to Figures 241 and 242.) As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB), you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you. exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. exited onto Taxiway G. exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.

When a recently certificated pilot decides to not wait any longer for the fog and low ceilings to burn off, this pilot may be exhibiting the hazardous. resigned attitude. macho attitude. impulsive attitude.

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?. 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots.

Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires. that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the missed approach portion of the procedure. manual intervention by the pilot, but will not be required, if RAIM is available. additional action by the operator to set the course.

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. Low gross weight. High density altitude.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is normally appropriate for the top of Class D airspace?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. 3,000 feet AGL.

Flight operations conducted in Class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with a. Extended Squitter ADS-B operating on radio frequency 1090 MHz. Universal Access Transceiver ADS-B operating on the frequency of 978 MHz. Extended Squitter ADS-B operating on radio frequency 978 MHz.

When instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the pilot should stop. with the nose gear on the hold line. so that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. so the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

(Refer to Figure 185A.) The threshold of RWY 07L at McCarran Intl is displaced. 878 feet, due to a pole. 2,133 feet, due to a hangar. 1,659 feet, due to a pole.

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?. The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

Which of the following weather conditions are conducive to in-flight icing?. Visible rain with temperatures below 0 degrees C. Visible rain with temperatures below 10 degrees C. Visible rain with temperatures below 5 degrees C.

When high level moisture is available, cirrus clouds form on the. polar side of the jet stream. equatorial side of the jet stream. acute angle side of the jet stream.

Human behavior. rarely results in accidents unless deliberate actions are performed. is responsible for three out of four accidents. is well understood, so behavioral induced accidents are exceedingly rare occurrences.

Airborne weather radar is installed to help the crew. penetrate weather between storm cells. avoid severe weather. avoid storm turbulence and hail.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5?. 6-3/4 ANU. 8 ANU. 7-1/2 ANU.

Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move. northeast to southwest in polar easterlies. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow. directly north to south with the low-level polar airflow.

(Refer to Figure 139.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?. R-175. R-165. R-345.

Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Wet snow. Freezing rain. Ice pellets.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?. 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.

What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request ATC clearance for the deviation. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

On which type of wing are flaps most effective?. Thin wing. Thick wing. Sweptback wing.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over TUS at FL 270?. 347° magnetic; 5 knots; ISA -10°C. 350° true; 5 knots; ISA +5°C. 010° true; 5 knots; ISA +13°C.

Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. request a new ATC clearance. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule. can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern. will always err on the side of caution. can fail to perceive operational pitfalls.

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion?. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.

What is the maximum acceptable position tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over water?. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?. Four. Three. Two.

When approaching a holding position sign for a runway approach area you must. obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing. hold only when specifically instructed by ATC. hold only when the weather is below 800 feet and 2-miles visibility.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

(Refer to Figure 257A.) At what point does the flight enter the final approach phase of the ILS RWY 25L at LAX?. FUELR INT. HUNDA INT. Intercept of glide slope.

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

For passenger-carrying operations under 14 CFR Part 121, which situation would be considered part of the required rest period?. Deadheading to home base after the last scheduled flight. Electing to fly as a passenger from home base after the flight duty period ends. Training conducted in a flight simulator.

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L". Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route. requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima. involves transiting HS 4. requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.

Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant headwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

What does the absence of the shaded arrowhead after the VDP on a GPS approach indicate?. Obstacle obstructions between the VDP and the runway. A 20:1 glideslope. A 60:1 glideslope.

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?. The computed takeoff distance to reach V(1) must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. No passengers may be carried.

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. One for each passenger seat. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Absence of wind and turbulence. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

(Refer to Figure Commercial 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions. 5 (Five). 6 (Six). 9 (Nine).

Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?. Air mass thunderstorms. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which HSI presentation does aircraft 8 correspond, if on a back course to the Runway 9 approach?. Figure H. Figure I. Figure E.

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. Five. Four. Three.

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. 3 months. 6 months. 30 days.

What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. Pilots have a choice of glide angles. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

The 'age 65 rule' of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to. any required pilot crewmember. any flight crewmember. the pilot in command only.

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

(Refer to Figures 262 and 263.) In a turbojet airplane, when assigned the RIICE THREE ARRIVAL, at what speed would ATC expect you to cross RIICE intersection when landing EAST at IAH?. 200 knots. 220 knots. 250 knots.

Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?. Clear ice. Frost ice. Rime ice.

Which is a definition of V(2) speed?. Takeoff decision speed. Takeoff safety speed. Minimum takeoff speed.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. the pilot must review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular receiver. procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur.

If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location. minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.

(Refer to Figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the weight is added to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 2?. +17.06 index arm. +14.82 index arm. +12.13 index arm.

Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

(Refer to Figure 192.) On the airway J10 between OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is the MAA on J197 between FSD and OBH?. 43,000 feet. 45,000 feet. 60,000 feet.

(Refer to Figures 342, 451, and 452.) With a reported temperature of -10 C, flaps set at 8, and cowl anti-ice on, and at a takeoff weight off 77,000 lbs, the VR and V2 speeds are. 143 and 153 knots. 153 and 143 knots. 123 and 133 knots.

When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDs, which rule applies?. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.

A hot start in a turbine engine is caused by. failed ignition. the engine's failure to accelerate. too much fuel in the combustion chamber.

What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?. Decreases profile drag. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class A airspace?. FL 600. FL 450. FL 500.

For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is. not part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.

(Refer to Figures 405 through 416). What is the old and new CG if 300 pounds of cargo is moved from Zone 2 to Zone 3 given the following conditions? Basic Empty Weight 5005 lbs Pilot 190 lbs Front Seat Passenger 200 lbs Cargo Zone 1 180 lbs Cargo Zone 2 505 lbs Cargo Zone 3 198 lbs Cargo Zone 4 600 lbs Cargo Zone 5 0 lbs Cargo Zone 6 60 lbs Cargo Pod A 100 lbs Cargo Pod B 80 lbs Cargo Pod C 200 lbs Cargo Zone D 180 lbs Fuel 180 gallons. 200.2 and 198.6. 196.4 and 199.2. 200.4 and 202.

Automation has been found to. create much larger errors at times. improve crew situational awareness skills. substitute for a lack of aviation experience.

Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight?. No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles. An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA. An alternate airport is required.

Which of the following is one of the five traits discovered to be common in pilots who have had accidents in their past?. A low correlation between traffic safety violations and flying safety mishaps. A tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined, especially in decision making. A sense of respect for rules and procedures.

(Refer to Figure 149A Area 10.) What is the forecast wind direction, speed, and temperature over ELY at 30,000 feet?. 330 degrees, 35 knots, 33 degrees C. 040 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degrees C. 220 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degrees C.

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. yellow inscriptions on a black background. white inscriptions on a black background. black inscriptions on a yellow background.

(Refer to Figures 331 and 457.) What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 75,000 pounds on a dry runway with calm winds?. 131 knots and 5,600 feet. 141 knots and 4,600 feet. 141 knots and 5,600 feet.

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

What is indicated by the term 'embedded thunderstorms'?. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

For significant benefit, wing sweep must be at least. 30 to 35 degrees. 45 to 50 degrees. 55 degrees or more to substantially delay compressibility effects.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. The entire route must be within radar environment. The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?. Low-Level Prog Chart. Weather Depiction Charts. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

When flying in the rain and an air temperature of 1 degree C, a pilot should. not expect icing until the air temperature is 0 degrees C or less. Use autopilot in icing to decrease the work load. be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. upgrade training. transition training. initial training.

Swept wings. improve specific fuel consumption. increase the critical Mach number. increase the speed of sound quotient.

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

TCAS I provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

Given the following, what would be the maximum payload? Basic operating weight (BOW): 100,500 lbs. Maximum zero fuel weight: 138,000 lbs. Maximum landing weight: 142,000 lbs. Maximum takeoff weight: 184,200 lbs. Fuel load: 40,000 lbs. Fuel tank capacity: 54,000 lbs. 43,700 lbs. 37,500 lbs. 29,700 lbs.

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

What terms or values should be used when providing a quality of braking action report to ATC?. Good, Medium, Poor, and Nil. Good, Good to Medium, Medium, Medium to Poor, Poor, and Nil. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the normal radius from the airport of the outer area, B?. 10 miles. 20 miles. 25 miles.

Under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning?. When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landings. When departing a grooved runway with less than a thousandth of an inch of water. When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam is rising from the landing surface.

What is an area identified by the term 'stopway'?. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. over the MAWP. after the MAWP. just prior to the MAWP.

"Theater" means. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 90 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 75 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.

Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?. Ruddervator. Upper rudder. Leading-edge flaps.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain 'VFR on Top'?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

Humans are characteristically. disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. disposed to expect automation to fail often. poor monitors of automated systems.

(Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70?. 475 feet per minute. 585 feet per minute. 690 feet per minute.

Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 0000 through 1000. 7200 and 7500 series. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

"Physiological night's rest" means. 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. 12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or disturbed rest.

A runway condition code (RwyCC) will not be issued by ATC if all three segments of a runway are reporting values of. 0. 5. 6.

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. In terminal radar service areas. Above 12,500 feet MSL.

Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at low speeds. Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2?. 1 hour 35 minutes. 1 hour 52 minutes. 1 hour 46 minutes.

Aerodynamic braking is only effective up to approximately. 30% of touchdown speeds. 40 to 50% of touchdown speed. 60 to 70% of touchdown speed.

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. each passenger for 30 minutes.

What is the purpose of a control tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be. RNAV equipped. in compliance with ICAO Annex 10. FMS/EFIS equipped.

Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?. Apply heated Type 2 fluid. Decrease the water content. Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid.

(Refer to Figures 255A and 255B). Which approach control frequency is indicated for the TNP.DOWNE4 Arrival with LAX as the destination?. 128.5 MHz. 124.9 MHz. 124.05 MHz.

Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?. Compressor discharge. Fuel spray nozzles. Turbine inlet.

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. Cargo and passenger distribution information. Copy of the flight plan. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. Advise ATC immediately. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft?. Clearway. Stopway. Obstruction clearance plane.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. As N711JB is approaching ASALT, Approach Control clears the aircraft to fly the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach. What is the distance from ASALT Intersection to Rwy 13L?. 11.2 NM. 12.2 NM. 8.6 NM.

Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights are color coded to warn pilots that. they are within the runway environment or run-up danger critical area. they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area. they are within the taxiway end environment or ILS critical area.

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. Airborne radar. DME.

As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes, what happens to the calibrated airspeed in relation to true airspeed?. It remains equal. It decreases. It increases.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'A' correspond?. 9 and 6. 9 only. 6 only.

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

An experienced pilot mistakes the runway heading for the instructed heading for departure. What kind of error is this?. Experience error. Detection error. Insight detection.

What is load factor?. Lift multiplied by the total weight. Lift subtracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight.

(Refer to Figure 473.) What is the maximum permissible takeoff weight with an airfield altitude of 7,300 feet and an outside air temperature of 24 degrees C?. 65,000 pounds. 62,400 pounds. 63,800 pounds.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

Which 'rule-of-thumb' may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?. Anytime at the pilot's discretion. Only at the MAP. Only when advised by the controller.

"Unforeseen operational circumstance" means an. unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules. unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. event of sufficient duration to create increased flight times for the certificate holder's operation.

GPS instrument approach operations, outside the United States, must be authorized by. the FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement. a sovereign country or governmental unit. the FAA Administrator only.

What is the maximum pallet weight for a floor with a limit of 140 pounds per square foot and the following information? Pallet dimensions: 32.4 inches X 34.9 inches Pallet weight: 45 pounds Tiedown devices: 20 pounds. 1,099 pounds. 1,129 pounds. 1,034 pounds.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. 180 hours in any 28 consecutive days. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

How does Vs (KTAS) speed vary with altitude?. Remains the same at all altitudes. Varies directly with altitude. Varies inversely with altitude.

What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?. could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. It can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 66 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 34 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 744.6 pounds. 681.6 pounds. 663.0 pounds.

An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity aft of the rear CG limit could. make it easier to recover from stalls and spins. make it more difficult to flare for landing. increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.

When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to an aircraft operating at FL270, it will be at a speed not less than. 250 knots. 210 knots. 200 knots.

The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperatures are. between -55degC and -65degC. between -40degC and -55degC. colder than -60degC.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. unlocked during takeoff and landing. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. latched open during takeoff and landing.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?. Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATs, and the Area Forecast. PIREPs, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart. AIRMET Zulu.

What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?. Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack. Advance the throttle slowly to increase airflow and decrease the angle of attack on one or more compressor blades.

What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

How are turbine engines classified?. The type of compressor or combination of compressors they use. The method in which the air/fuel mixture is ignited. The flow of air through the engine and how power is produced.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?. 22,200 feet. 19,800 feet. 21,600 feet.

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?. Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?. 10,270 pounds. 9,660 pounds. 10,165 pounds.

When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?. After sunrise. About 1 hour before sunrise. At midnight.

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. After passing the visual descent point (VDP). When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.

Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The contours depict. ridges, lows, troughs and highs aloft. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.

Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of. pitching up. pitching down. leveling off.

What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine fails?. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. Reduction of climb by 80 to 90%. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-4?. 4-1/4 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 5 ANU.

In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?. While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed or less to avoid overbanking. When operating at any airspeed of Vmc or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60°.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 143 x 125.2 inches? Floor load limit - 209 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 197 lb Tiedown devices - 66 lb. 25,984.9 pounds. 25,787.9 pounds. 25,721.9 pounds.

During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. Increase in indicated airspeed. Decrease in indicated airspeed. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.

A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?. The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. The computed takeoff distance to reach V(1) must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. pilot in command and chief pilot. pilot in command and director of operations. pilot in command and the flight follower.

In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: the published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. the published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. the landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

What is a characteristic of the troposphere?. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.

A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of. 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 2,250 pounds. 2,500 pounds. 3,000 pounds.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?. 230 knots. 250 knots. 275 knots.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class C airspace?. 3,000 feet AGL. 4,000 feet AGL. 3,500 feet MSL.

If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots, to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute. A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

Consumption of alcohol. can severely impair a person for more than 8 hours. is of no concern in aviation after 8 hours regardless of amount consumed. in small amounts has no effect on judgment and decision-making.

The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are. 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1. 800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2. 800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3.

How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. High altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

What is a feature of supercooled water?. The water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0°C until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates.

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?. Decreased stall speed. Decreased pitchup tendencies. Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

Sleep inertia refers to a period of. heightened alertness and visual acuity following a rest period. alignment between a person`s internal biological clock and local external time cues. impaired performance following awakening from a regular sleep cycle or nap.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-3?. 3 ANU. 4-1/2 ANU. 5 ANU.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL.

Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the. nearest state of federal wildlife office on company letterhead. FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. nearest FSS via telephone.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. An off-airway route to the point of departure. The route filed in the flight plan.

If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. appropriate ground radio station. nearest FAA district office. operations manager (or director of operations).

The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?. The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing equipment is operational and is used.

Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC. in Part 121 operations. in Part 91, subpart K operations. in Part 135 operations.

Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?. High RPM and low MAP. Low RPM and high MAP. High RPM and high MAP.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'D' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 500 feet. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

(Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane with no MEL items?. Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. Ceiling 300 feet minimum. Visibility 1800 RVR.

TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. proximity warning. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

(Refer to Legend 72 and Figure 361.) With a speed of 140 knots, what is the minimum rate of climb after taking off from Rwy 3 at TUS to reach 9,900 feet? Interpolation required. 963 FPM. 1,065 FPM. 930 FPM.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-3?. 2 hours 9 minutes. 1 hour 59 minutes. 1 hour 52 minutes.

When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?. When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route.

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?. Apply full main wheel braking only. Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 116.8 x 87.7 inches Pallet weight - 137 lbs. Tiedown devices - 49 lbs. Cargo weight - 12,262.4 lbs. 172 lbs/sq ft. 176 lbs/sq ft. 179 lbs/sq ft.

The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least. 10°F. 20°F. 20°C.

Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing distance?. 800 feet. 1,700 feet. 2,800 feet.

(Refer to Figures 318 and 439.) With a reported temperature of 30 C with packs on and anti-ice off, the Reference B is. 28.2. 29.8. 30.7.

When planning to use RNAV equipment with GPS input for an instrument approach at a destination airport, any required alternate airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has a WAAS input. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has an IRU input. require the use of GPS except when dual, independent GPS receivers are installed.

To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with. a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM. a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR operations. an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.

(Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you. should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums. must know ahead of time whether or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)?. The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet. Temperature/dewpoint spread is 8°F. Altimeter setting is 30.07.

Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature ranges of. -15 to -25 deg C. 0 to -10 deg C. colder than -25 deg C.

Automatic Decision-Making is. a reflexive type of decision-making. an impulsive type of decision-making. an internalized type of decision-making.

What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine?. Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1?. 58.1 minutes. 51.9 minutes. 54.7 minutes.

Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?. The parcel of air resists convection. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

How does an increase in an aircraft's weight affect its climb performance?. The aircraft will climb at a lower angle of attack, which allows for a higher TAS and higher rate of climb. Both parasite and induced drag are increased, which will lower the reserve thrust available to climb. A higher aircraft weight requires that the aircraft is configured for climb earlier in the departure which allows a greater climb gradient.

In the United States, there is an average of. 2 runway incursions every week. 3 runway incursions every day. 4 runway incursions every month.

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will describe the intensity as. light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, or severe. light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe. light, moderate, heavy, extreme.

METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?. Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour. The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL. Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is. V(2). V(1). V(EF).

What is an advantage of a sweptback wing?. It allows shock wave induced flow separation. The design delays the onset of compressibility. The wings tend to stall at the wing root first.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1?. 25,000 pounds. 26,000 pounds. 24,000 pounds.

While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as. autokinesis. Coriolis illusion. the leans.

What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) beyond the published forward limitations. The flight control forces may become very light. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing. It could be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall.

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?. Establish a straight course across the storm area. Climb or descend to a smoother level. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'C' correspond?. 9. 4. 12.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 81 x 83 inches? Floor load limit: 180 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 82 lbs Tiedown devices: 31 lbs. 8,403.7 pounds. 8,321.8 pounds. 8,290.8 pounds.

If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front,. the front can be expected to move with the upper winds. the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the frontal boundary. the front moves slowly if at all.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON)?. To provide VOR navigation service in the western mountainous United States below GPS signal coverage. To maintain the enroute Victor airway structure on overwater routes in the Gulf of Mexico. To support navigation of non-DME/DME equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS outage.

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'?. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

What effect does extending leading edge slats have on an airplane's wing?. Increases the pitch up moment of an airfoil. Increases the camber and CL(MAX). Allows for earlier airflow separation.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a. key to the flight deck door. certificate holder's manual. flashlight in good working order.

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. weather reports and forecasts. names of all crewmembers. minimum fuel supply.

(Refer to Figures 140 and 141.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation 'B' correspond?. 11. 5 and 13. 7 and 11.

Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed?. V(C). V(S). V(A).

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-2?. 2.10. 1.99. 2.02.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?. 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.

(Refer to Figures 348 and 361.) Determine the DEP CON frequency for the TUS7.GBN transition after takeoff from Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl. 125.1 MHz. 118.5 MHz. 119.0 MHz.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM. 1/2 SM.

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. 60 days. 90 days. 30 days.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-4?. 102,900 pounds. 102,600 pounds. 103,100 pounds.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published DH. At the MDA published or a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. 80,000 pounds. more than 80,000 pounds. 300,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figures 331 and 461.) At a weight of 73,500 pounds, the expected landing field length is. 6,700 feet. 5,650 feet. 6,450 feet.

High density altitude can reduce turbojet aircraft performance in which of the following ways?. It reduces the likelihood of maintaining laminar flow over the airfoils as airspeed and altitude increase. It reduces thrust because there is a reduced mass of gases to force out of the exhaust. It reduces thrust because there is an increased mass of gases that inhibits the outflow of exhaust.

Each flightcrew member must report. in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish all assignments. to the airport on time and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duty. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.

A Runway Status Light (RWSL) System at an airport. relies on ASDE-X/Airport Surface Surveillance Capability (ASSC). allows ATC to override any RWSL false indications. does not require pilots to tell ATC when executing a go-around.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-2?. 5-3/4 ANU. 7 ANU. 6-3/4 ANU.

When you see this pavement marking from the cockpit, you. can taxi past this point at your own risk. must hold short until "cleared" to taxi onto or past the runway. may not cross the line until ATC allows you to "enter" or "cross" by instruction.

(Refer to Figures 273 and 475.) With a reported temperature of 32 C, and a weight of 58,000 pounds, the second segment takeoff gross climb gradient is. 0.057%. 0.062%. 0.034%.

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. Seven. Six. Five.

Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?. Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.

Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?. Strong tailwind. Strong updraft. Significant performance increase.

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in. 7% increase in kinetic energy. 21% increase in kinetic energy. 33% increase in kinetic energy.

You are planning a flight to the West Coast of the United States, which is currently below the published weather minimums for an ILS approach to that airport. Winds are forecast to increase to above 20 knots from the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather conditions should you expect?. Visual meteorological conditions. Advection fog will deepen with winds above 20 knots. A layer of low stratus or stratocumulus is expected.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.

What is a feature of a stationary front?. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?. Low speed. High speed. Any speed.

What is the hijack code?. 7200. 7500. 7700.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'A' correspond?. 1. 8. 11.

Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?. Turbulence and structural icing. Jetstream-type winds and icing. Level of the tropopause and turbulence.

(Refer to Figure 225.) What is the purpose of No Entry sign?. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering. Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection. Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least ................................ six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used. A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. Number of passenger cabin occupants. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

(Refer to Figures 329 and 428.) At a reported temperature of 20 C with engine bleeds closed, the takeoff thrust setting is. 92.1%. 92.3%. 88.4%.

Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?. Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog. Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.

(Refer to Figure 459.) With a payload of 20,000 pounds, the still-air range is. 1,350 NM. 1,410 NM. 1,590 NM.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airport should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

CRM is defined as. application of team management in the flight deck environment. the use of human factors principles in the aviation environment. a human error avoidance approach to aviation management in the flight deck.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-2?. 5 hours 5 minutes. 6 hours 15 minutes. 5 hours 55 minutes.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. a first-class medical certificate. at least a current third-class medical certificate. a second-class medical certificate.

Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?. Arctic only. Arctic and subtropical. Subtropical only.

Under 14 CFR Part 91, what are the minimum number of hours that must pass after a person consumes alcohol before they may act as a crewmember. 8. 10. 12.

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

(Refer to Figures 405-416). What is the CG in inches from datum under the following loading conditions? Basic Empty Weight 5005 lbs Pilot 190 lbs Front seat passenger 200 lbs Cargo Zone 1 180 lbs Cargo Zone 2 505 lbs Cargo Zone 3 198 lbs Cargo Zone 4 600 lbs Cargo Zone 5 0 lbs Cargo Zone 6 60 lbs Cargo Pod A 100 lbs Cargo Pod B 80 lbs Cargo Pod C 200 lbs Cargo Pod D 180 lbs Fuel 180 gallons. 196.4 inches aft of datum. 200.4 inches aft of datum. 204.1 inches aft of datum.

With no traffic identified by TCAS when in 10 miles of visibility, you. can rest assured that no other aircraft is near. must continually scan for other traffic. must scan only for hot air balloons and gliders.

Identify taxi leadoff lights associated with the centerline lighting system. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the edge of the taxiway. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centerline of the runway to a point on the exit.

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration takeoff is known as. inversion illusion. autokinesis. somatogravic illusion.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing. provide ice protection during flight. are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.

Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance. Decreased takeoff distance. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?. Immediately. 7 calendar days. 10 days.

Upon landing, thrust reversers. are required to obtain the calculated stopping distances. should be deployed as soon as the nose wheel is in firm contact with the runway. should be deployed immediately upon landing when airspeeds are highest.

Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. red inscriptions on a white background. yellow inscriptions on a red background.

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

Error management evaluation. should recognize not all errors can be prevented. may include error evaluation that should have been prevented. must mark errors as disqualifying.

(Refer to Figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-1?. 8 ANU. 7-5/8 ANU. 7-3/4 ANU.

What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? 'SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.'. A downburst is located at the center of the airport. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range?. 10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. 25,000 feet to the tropopause. The tropopause to 45,000 feet.

What information does a FICON NOTAM provide for a paved runway?. Contaminant measurements. Braking action. Contaminant measurements and braking action.

At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?. 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.

How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.

(Refer to Figures 336, 451, and 452). With a reported temperature of 5 C, flaps set at 8, engine bleeds closed, and a takeoff weight off 82,000 pounds, the VR is. 150 knots. 147 knots. 158 knots.

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

Over the contiguous U.S., the VOR MON assures that a MON airport will be available within how many miles of the aircrafts position. 80 NM. 100 NM. 120 NM.

Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters 'V(C).' When V(C) appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of. a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport. a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.

Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately. 15 knots. 25 knots. 45 knots.

(Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio represent?. Displaced threshold. Final approach fix. Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of flight'?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued. an Air Carrier Certificate. a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. an Operating Certificate.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over MKC at FL 260?. 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10°C. 260° true; 45 knots; ISA -10°C. 260° magnetic; 42 knots; ISA +9°C.

After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as. 2 hours. necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport. necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

If flying a published GPS departure,. the data base will contain all of the transition or departures from all runways. and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required. the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity.

Clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream. most commonly found in temperatures between -40 and -50 degrees C. most commonly found in the vicinity of the tropopause. similar to that associated with a tropical maritime front.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 3?. 29.2 percent MAC. 33.0 percent MAC. 28.6 percent MAC.

(Refer to Legend 12.) Newport News/Williamsburg Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously Airport/Facility Directory) contains the following entry: ARFF Index A. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?. Increases takeoff distance. Decreases takeoff speed. Decreases takeoff distance.

Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is. developing lift. operating at high airspeeds. using high power settings.

Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?. Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs. Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC. Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, a required alternate airport must have. an approved instrument approach procedure, besides GPS, that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. a GPS approach that is expected to be operational and available at the ETA. authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics.

To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly. below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.

What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?. Trough. Ridge. Hurricane or typhoon.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-5?. 70 NM. 52 NM. 61 NM.

What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

With no traffic identified by TCAS, you. can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area. must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. must scan only for hot air balloons.

At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. decreases pressure gradient force. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.

(Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer circles?. 3,000 feet AGL. 3,000 feet above airport. 4,000 feet above airport.

(Refer to Figures 99, 101, 101A.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?. 123.775 MHz. 122.95 MHz. 135.95 MHz.

Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. Coded identification T-E-S-T. Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag might appear. An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.

The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.

Under what condition does a pilot receive a 'void time' specified in the clearance?. On an uncontrolled airport. When 'gate hold' procedures are in effect. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

A turbojet airplane has an increase in specific range with altitude, which can be attributed to three factors. One of those factors is. an increase in altitude in the troposphere results in higher energy air flow. an increase in proportion of velocity versus thrust required. decreased engine turbine speeds.

Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

(Refer to Figures 405 through 416). What is the CG in inches from datum under the following loading conditions? Basic Empty Weight 5005 lbs Pilot 185 lbs Cargo Zone 1 200 lbs Cargo Zone 2 240 lbs Cargo Zone 3 500 lbs Cargo Zone 4 400 lbs Cargo Zone 5 200 lbs Cargo Zone 6 50 lbs Cargo Pod A-D 0 lbs Fuel 275 gallons. Station 202.6. Station 198.5. Station 205.6.

Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mammatus. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) beyond the published aft limitations?. The flight control forces may become very heavy. It could be difficult to flare for landing. It could be impossible to recover from a stall.

What type of stressor can lead to poor decision making?. Lack of sleep. Lack of high workload. Lack of motivation.

Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?. Slats. Elevator. Dorsal fin.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-5?. 73,000 pounds. 72,900 pounds. 72,800 pounds.

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent record.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds (at 2,350 lbs/min)? Initial weight: 175,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 138,000 lb. 9 minutes. 10 minutes. 8 minutes.

(See Figure 8206.) You see the indication in the figure on your PFD, but your standby indicator reads 120 knots and the power is set for 120-knot cruise in level flight. You decide the. pitot tube may be plugged with ice or a bug. standby indicator is defective because there is no red "X" on the speed tape display. airspeed means attitude is incorrect.

"Airport standby reserve" means. a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hours duration. a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.

(Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS (near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is an example of a. LF/MF Airway. LF/MF Oceanic Route. Military Training Route.

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4?. 2.20. 2.07. 2.06.

Clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of. a dry adiabatic lapse rate. a stable air mass. an unstable air mass.

Overriding an automatically selected sensitivity during a GPS approach will. cancel the approach mode annunciation. require flying point-to-point on the approach to comply with the published approach procedure. have no affect if the approach is flown manually.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is added to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 3?. 11.4 percent MAC. 14.3 percent MAC. 14.5 percent MAC.

It is important for a pilot to ask for site-specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS for your destination airport before a flight because. Air Traffic Control will not advise pilots of site-specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMS. Air Traffic Control will confirm that you have site-specific information from a preflight briefing. this provides for a second level of safety in the National Airspace System.

Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

(Refer to Figure 250.) You arrive at DUMBB for the RNAV (GPS) at CHA. The preflight briefer issued an unreliable advisory before takeoff. Your avionics are good and you have full GPS service. You. can descend to the LNAV MDA of 1,200 feet and 2,400 RVR due to the FSS advisory. descend to the LPV minima of 882 feet and 2,400 RVR in your CAT B aircraft. can descend to the LNAV MDA of 518 feet due to the FSS advisory.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by ARTCC. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. Critical engine failure speed. Rotation speed. Accelerate-stop distance.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 33.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 76 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown devices - 27 lb. 857.4 pounds. 830.4 pounds. 786.5 pounds.

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?. The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to. use a faster than normal approach and landing speed. approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect. fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the 'wind chill' effect and break up the ice.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 39 x 37 inches. Pallet weight - 37 lbs. Tiedown devices - 21 lbs Cargo weight - 1,094.3 lbs. 115 lbs/sq ft. 112 lbs/sq ft. 109 lbs/sq ft.

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?. The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: destination airport. provisional airport. alternate airport.

Your airline recently initiated a new safety partnership with the FAA utilizing the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) for all pilots, flight attendants, dispatchers, and mechanics. What does ASAP encourage?. Encourages an employee to utilize an ASAP report after receiving a criminal substance abuse conviction so they do not face additional FAA enforcement. Encourages operational situations in which risk is increased in order to enable early corrective action before that risk results in an incident or accident. Encourages airline management to utilize ASAP reports and voluntarily report safety information to derive synergies and cost savings for the airline.

A pilot should be aware the alcohol in one beer can be detected for as long as. minimum of 60 minutes. 2 hours. 3 hours.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DEN ICT OKC flight at 11,000 feet?. Temperature decrease. Windspeed increase slightly. Wind shift from calm to a westerly direction.

(Refer to Figure 145.) The minimums for the nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4-mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR data?. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requirements. No, they do not meet the minimum visibility requirements. No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.

(Refer to Figure 273.) Straight-in minimums for a Category B aircraft on the LOC RWL 25L approach are. 1,326 - 1/2. 1,520 - 1/2. 1,740 - 1.

An experienced, current, and proficient pilot fails to notice the landing gear is not extended for landing. This is an example of. systems training. problem detection. procedures knowledge.

(Refer to Figure 251.) In the RNAV (RNP) RWL 26L at HNL profile, what does the shaded triangle below the DA indicate?. The visual segment below the DA is not clear of obstacles. The approach does not have a visual glide slope landing aid. The visual segment is clear.

An aircraft not equipped with DME/DME experiences a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) disruption while enroute. The flight crew will need to navigate using. RNAV. VOR MON. GPS.

Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?. Reverted rubber hydroplaning. Dynamic hydroplaning. Viscous hydroplaning.

During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the. aircraft is in an unusual attitude. gyroscopic instruments have failed. pitot static system has malfunctioned.

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 144.) On final approach to the airport, airplane in position 5 would experience. decreased ground speed. downdraft. poor performance.

(Refer to Figures 327 and 457.) With a weight of 69,000 pounds, flaps 45, calm winds, the VREF is. 136 knots. 133 knots. 129 knots.

What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?. The air is unstable. A temperature inversion exists. The air is stable.

Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions where pilotage is not used. What radio navigation equipment is required?. single VOR and DME installed. dual approved independent navigation systems. dual VOR, ILSs, and DME.

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?. 4,000 feet thick. 2,000 feet thick. A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 24.6 x 68.7 inches? Floor load limit - 85 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 44 lb Tiedown devices - 29 lb. 924.5 pounds. 968.6 pounds. 953.6 pounds.

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

REL is the acronym for. Runway exit lights. Runway entrance lights. Ramp entry lights.

According to 14 CFR Part 121, what requirements must the second-in-command possess?. ATP certificate with appropriate type rating. ATP certificate with appropriate second-in-command type rating. ATP certificate and Third Class Medical Certificate.

SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB1757 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?. Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21. Precipitation started at 1757. 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should. lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

(Refer to Figure 129.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'A' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?. V(MU). V(MD). V(FC).

(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over OKC at FL 370?. 265° true; 27 knots; ISA +1°C. 260° true; 27 knots; ISA +6°C. 260° magnetic; 27 knots; ISA +10°C.

The stall speed of an airplane. is constant regardless of weight or airfoil configuration. is affected by weight, and bank angle. is not affected by dynamic pressures and lift co-efficient.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-2?. 33,000 pounds. 28,000 pounds. 35,000 pounds.

The most likely condition in which to experience severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below 0 degrees C is. rain. visible moisture. fog.

What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) for FL390 - '750649'?. 350° at 64 knots. 250° at 106 knots. 150° at 6 knots.

If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. plus or minus 6°. plus 6° or minus 4°. plus or minus 4°.

Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?. With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended.

(Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?. 5.0 NM. 7.5 NM. 10.0 NM.

En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. 585 feet. 1,300 feet. Sea level.

Large areas of land. tend to increase temperature variations. do not influence the troposhere. minimize temperature variations.

What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?. Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic index.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The minimum crossing altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is. 7,500 feet. 9,100 feet. 11,500 feet.

Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 month. 3 month. 12 month.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?. A stressful situation causing anxiety. The excessive consumption of alcohol. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

(Refer to Figure 419.) With the following conditions, would the airplane be in the approved weight and CG envelope for landing? CG location: 25% MAC Aircraft Weight: 74,000 lbs. No, the airplane is over the maximum approved landing weight. Yes, the airplane is within the approved weight and CG envelope. No, the airplane is below the maximum landing weight, but the CG is aft of limits.

(Refer to Figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb. 15 minutes. 14 minutes. 13 minutes.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-3?. 12,300 pounds. 11,300 pounds. 13,990 pounds.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?. Beginning of rain at the surface. Frequent lightning. Continuous updraft.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-4?. 27,900 feet. 22,200 feet. 24,400 feet.

What minimum floor load limit must an aircraft have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions - 78.9 wide and 98.7 long Pallet weight - 161 lb Tiedown devices - 54 lb Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lb. 182 lb/sq ft. 180 lb/sq ft. 183 lb/sq ft.

What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?. A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. A severe moment or 'Mach tuck.'. Severe porpoising.

When compared to plain flaps, split flaps. produce more lift with less drag. produce only slightly more lift, but much more drag. enhance takeoff performance in high density conditions.

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause. Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established. Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area. Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

A Runway Condition Code (RwyCC) of 0 is used to delineate a braking action report of. Good. Nil. Poor.

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2?. 84 NM. 65 NM. 69 NM.

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'?. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

Risk is increased when flightcrew members. fail to monitor automated navigation systems. allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems. question the performance of each other's duties.

How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?. The same angle of attack. A lower angle of attack. A higher angle of attack.

Low pressure air decreases aircraft performance because. the air is denser than higher pressure air. the air is less dense than high pressure air. air expands in the engine during the combustion process.

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?. Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering river of maximum winds extending around the globe in a wavelike pattern with speeds of. 50 knots or greater. 71 knots or greater. 100 knots or greater.

Which of the following meets the requirements of a 'serious injury' as defined by the NTSB?. A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body.

Automated flight decks or cockpits. improve basic flight skills. decrease the workload in terminal areas. sometimes hide errors.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. required to have a least a current third-class medical certificate. required to have a current first-class medical certificate. not required to hold a medical certificate.

If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should. first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice. operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an STL MEM MSY flight at FL 330?. Windspeed decrease. Wind shift from west to north. Temperature increase 5°C.

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. entering controlled airspace. entering IFR weather conditions.

If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only. when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. in VFR conditions. in day VFR conditions.

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.

What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years of age?. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?. When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. not considered to be part of a rest period.

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is. 200 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

As required by Part 121, an airport may be listed as an alternate in the flight release only if the weather forecast indicates that conditions will be at or above the. alternate weather minima specified in the operation specifications at the time of arrival. lowest available IAP minima at the time of arrival. lowest available IAP minima for 1 hour before to 1 hour after the time of arrival.

For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is. 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight segments. 10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight segments.

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. all aircraft occupants. all passenger seats.

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

Fatigue can be evident in others if they. talk more than usual. yawn excessively. are overly helpful.

(Refer to Figures 321 and 458.) With a reported temperature of 15 C, a 0.8% upslope, and calm winds, the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing weight is. 81,000 pounds. 81,600 pounds. 82,000 pounds.

CRM training refers to. the two components of flight safety and resource management, combined with mentor feedback. the three components of initial indoctrination awareness, recurrent practice and feedback, and continual reinforcement. the five components of initial indoctrination awareness, communication principles, recurrent practice and feedback, coordination drills, and continual reinforcement.

The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is. limiting compressor speed. limiting exhaust gas temperature. limiting torque.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 2,950 pounds. 2,870 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

(Refer to Figure 139.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 166. 346. 354.

(Refer to Figures 273 and 457). What is the landing field length on a wet runway with a headwind of 7 knots and an aircraft weight of 83,000 pounds?. 6,600 feet. 7,200 feet. 5,900 feet.

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000 feet?. Windspeed decrease. Temperature decrease. Wind direction shift from northwest to southeast.

One purpose of crew resource management is to give crews the tools to. recognize and mitigate hazards. maintain currency with regulations. reduce the need for outside resources.

Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the. Airplane Flight Manual. International Aeronautical Information Manual. Air Carrier's holder's Operations Specifications.

(Refer to Figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor International airport is. 1,126 feet. 1,135 feet. 1,458 feet.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'E' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be. 2 miles or greater. at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. 3 miles.

If the middle marker for a Category I ILS approach is inoperative,. the RVR required to begin the approach is increased by 20%. the DA/DH is increased by 50 feet. the inoperative middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.

What is considered "north polar"?. north of 60 degrees N latitude. north of 68 degrees N latitude. north of 78 degrees N latitude.

What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.

METAR KFSO 030856Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 6///// T01500139 56012 In the above METAR, the SLP993 6//// indicates. sea-level pressure 993.6 hectopascals that has dropped .4 hectopascals in the last 6 hours. sea-level pressure 993.6 hectopascals and that an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours. sea-level pressure 993.6 hectopascals and that four-tenths of an inch of precipitation has fallen in the last 6 hours.

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?. Maximum range and distance glide. Best angle of climb. Maximum endurance.

For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn. increases with an increase in airspeed. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes. decreases with an increase in airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 459.) For a supplemental charter, a still-air range of 2,250 NM is required. The payload for this nonstop trip is. 5,100 pounds. 5,900 pounds. 6,100 pounds.

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR-on-top clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be. 2 Gs. 3 Gs. 9 Gs.

What adverse flight characteristics could result from operating an aircraft with the center of gravity (CG) beyond the published forward limitations?. The flight control forces may become very light. It could be difficult or impossible to flare for landing. It could be difficult or impossible to recover from a stall.

Ground spoilers used after landing are. more effective at low speed. equally effective at any speed. more effective at high speed.

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. November 2010. December 2011. January 2011.

A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL. 5,000 feet AGL.

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot. will have impaired motor and mental responses. is no longer under the influence of alcohol. may experience discomfort, but no impairment.

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?. Within 7 days. Within 10 days. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with. fast moving warm front. fast moving cold front. dry lines.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given. 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. 12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. 8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. International Flight Information Manual. Airplane Flight Manual.

The crew monitoring function is essential,. particularly during high altitude cruise flight modes to prevent CAT issues. particularly during approach and landing to prevent CFIT. during RNAV departures in class B airspace.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you approach V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

(Refer to Figures 273 and 474.) With a reported temperature of 45 C, and a weight of 52,000 pounds, the first segment takeoff gross climb gradient is. 0.048%. 0.044%. 0.0419%.

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 150 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

What action should be taken when a pilot is 'cleared for approach' while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative static stability. Positive static stability. Negative dynamic stability.

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?. In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates. the absence of clouds in the area. an area of no convective turbulence. an area where precipitation drops are not detected.

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. Two. Four. Three.

(Refer to Figure 145.) The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots,. which occurred at 1743Z. with gusts to 43 knots. with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the last report.

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?. The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.

Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may. increase takeoff performance. hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will be impossible. decrease takeoff ground run.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What distance is available for takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl. 6,998 feet. 8,408 feet. 10,996 feet.

An alternate airport for departure is required. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. trip number and weight and balance data. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. who was responsible for any accident or incident. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. possible causes of accidents or incidents.

When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should. fly to an area with liquid precipitation. fly to a lower altitude. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.

If you notice ATC is unusually quiet and one of your VHF transmit lights is illuminated, then you should suspect. your VHF receiver is inoperative. your VHF transmitter is keyed and you probably have a stuck microphone. the radio is performing a self-test function.

The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

(Refer to Figure 146.) What method was used to obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753Z?. Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), having a precipitation discriminator. Automatic Meteorological Observing Station (AMOS), with a precipitation discriminator. Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), without a precipitation discriminator.

You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is. fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM. fully configured with the engines spooled up and a descent rate of no more than 500 FPM. at least partially configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of no more than 1,200 FPM.

Requests for deviations for inoperable ADS-B equipment may be made to. the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at any time. the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace at least 1-hour prior. the Federal Aviation Administration 24 hours before the scheduled operation.

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Supercooled water drops. Water vapor. Visible water.

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise. incoming terrestrial radiation peaking at noon. temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class E airspace?. 14,000 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL. 18,000 feet MSL.

Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?. A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

(Refer to Figure 465.) At a weight of 60,000 pounds with 35 flaps, the Reference Stall Speed is. 96 knots. 93 knots. 89 knots.

Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a. 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed. 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed. 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.

Stress distraction can interfere with judgment to the extent that. unwarranted risks are taken. physical response rates to stimuli are impaired. perceptions are clouded.

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?. 3°C per 1,000 feet. 2°C per 1,000 feet. 4°C per 1,000 feet.

(Refer to Figure 343.) The airport diagram of Bradley Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located close to the approach end of RWY 19. What does this symbol indicate?. Runway Radar Reflectors. Practice hover area for the Army National Guard helicopters. Two course lights, back to back, which flash beams of light along the course of an airway.

Crew resource management (CRM) is. a dilution of the captain's authority. the only method of accident avoidance and error prevention. one way to make good decisions.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 87.7 x 116.8 inches? Floor load limit - 175 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 137 lb Tiedown devices - 49 lb. 12,262.4 pounds. 12,448.4 pounds. 12,311.4 pounds.

What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?. Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. in the interest of safety. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?. ARINC. Any FSS. Appropriate dispatch office.

A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.

Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?. Upper winds blowing across the front. Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on a VFR runway as compared to an IFR Runway?. Yellow lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet or half of the runway length. Lights are spaced closer together. Runway edge lights are white.

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?. Maintain a constant altitude. Maintain a constant attitude. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

(Refer to Figure 256 and 257A.) How should the IFR flight plan be closed upon landing at LAX?. Contact UNICOM on 122.95. Phone ASOS on 310-568-2486. LAX tower will close it automatically.

When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft. above the horizon and increasing in size. on the horizon with little relative movement. on the horizon and increasing in size.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'E' correspond?. 5. 6. 15.

Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids. need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.

Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure. at the surface. reduced to sea level. at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.

When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. For flights at or above FL 180.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-1?. 19,400 feet. 18,000 feet. 20,200 feet.

When are outboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

What action should the pilot take when 'gate hold' procedures are in effect?. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing. Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearance. Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request clearance prior to leaving the parking area.

What functions are provided by ILS?. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information.

A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is. 58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.

How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

When is the pilot responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles?. ATC maintains responsibility if the pilot is operating under IFR. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of flight rules. When they have accepted an instruction to "maintain visual separation.".

Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?. Intermittent 'backfire' stall. Transient 'backfire' stall. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.

Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is. 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet. greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of. 40 knots. 80 knots. 90 knots.

For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.

Reliance on automation can translate to. decreased cockpit workload. increased error awareness. lack of manual handling skills.

What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance?. As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you receive a master caution light after V(R). What action should you take?. Reject the takeoff. Hold the nose down to takeoff speed. Continue the takeoff.

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle, C?. 5 miles. 7 miles. 10 miles.

Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces?. Increasing speed or altitude. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is. 180 knots IAS. 200 knots TAS. 200 knots IAS.

Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as. convective turbulence. high altitude turbulence. clear air turbulence.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades. can increase performance and cause stalls or surges. could cause FDP vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power. can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

(Refer to Figure 226.) What does the outbound destination sign identify?. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature -51°C at FL390. How would this data be encoded in the FB?. 7800-51. 789951. 280051.

What is considered "south polar"?. south of 60 degrees S latitude. south of 68 degrees S latitude. south of 78 degrees S latitude.

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier's Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is. 800-1-1/2. 600-2. 900-1-1/2.

How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance 'cleared as filed' include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36.5 x 48.5 inches? Floor load limit - 107 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 37 lb Tiedown devices - 33 lb ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,. 1,295.3 pounds. 1,212.3 pounds. 1,245.3 pounds.

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

(Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?. DME or radar. LDIN and VOR. VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes. One microburst may continue for as long as an hour. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 219 knots and 1.28 EPR. 214 knots and 1.26 EPR. 218 knots and 1.27 EPR.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?. Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

(Refer to Figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5?. 2.00. 2.04. 1.96.

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

Adiabatic warming is also described as. chronographic warming. expansional heating. compressional heating.

Penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the illusion of. pitching up. flying at a lower altitude. constant turning.

(Refer to Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to turn left heading 030 and proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What should you do if you are in IMC?. Enter holding at LAHAB on the 185 degree radial until reaching 15,000 feet. Advise departure control you cannot make the clearance and request radar vectors. Turn toward the Long Beach Airport temporarily and continue the climb until you can cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet.

(Refer to Figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,800 feet.

During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356° with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and subtracted from all VOR courses. be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/FROM should read TO.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-4?. 33,000 pounds. 31,500 pounds. 34,000 pounds.

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. 1922Z. 1952Z. 0022Z.

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route?. A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. Original dispatch release. Certificate holder's manual.

A definition of the term 'viscous hydroplaning' is where. the airplane rides on standing water. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.

Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?. Increase speed for a headwind. Increase speed for a tailwind. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind.

Precision runway monitoring requires. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers. detailed performance during the "decision region": 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.

(Refer to Figure 139.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?. 1°. 2°. 4°.

What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico region?. Northwesterly curving to northeasterly. Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly. Counterclockwise over open water, then dissipating outward over land.

(Refer to Figures 241 and 242.) You land on Runway 12 at LGB and plan to exit the runway to the right on Taxiway J. What potential risk should you be aware of on the airport diagram?. Convergence of Taxiways D and J. Convergence of Taxiways C and J. Convergence of Runways 16R-34Land 07R-25L.

At what speed, with reference to L/D(MAX), does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?. A speed less than that for L/D(MAX). A speed equal to that for L/D(MAX). A speed greater than that for L/D(MAX).

What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines?. Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.

Which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET?. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.

A steady state thunderstorm is associated with. surface heating. weather systems. mature stage.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 36 x 48 inches? Floor load limit: 169 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 47 lbs Tiedown devices: 33 lbs. 1,948.0 pounds. 1,995.0 pounds. 1,981.0 pounds.

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. 4° on the ground and in flight. 6° on the ground and in flight. 6° in flight and 4° on the ground.

While holding short for an intersection takeoff runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to "line up and wait runway 36." You should. line up and wait for takeoff on taxiway C. line up and wait on runway 36 at intersection C for departure. hold short and advise tower that you are at intersection C short of runway 36.

(Refer to Figures 257A and Legend 38.) What approach lights are available for the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX?. ALSF-2 with sequenced flashing lights. MALSR with a displayed threshold. HIRL and TDZ/CL.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 217 knots and 1.50 EPR. 215 knots and 1.44 EPR. 216 knots and 1.40 EPR.

(Refer to Figure 227.) The "taxiway ending" marker. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. indicates taxiway does not continue. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.

The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.

Cumulus clouds often indicate. possible turbulence. a temperature inversion. a dry adiabatic lapse rate.

Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. the pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. the equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.

(Refer to Legend 12 and Figure 185A.) McCarran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or HALON 1211 or 450 pounds of DC and 100 gallons of water plus 6000 gallons of water. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water. Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.

Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by. prescribed and over-the-counter medications. prescription medications only. over-the-counter medications only.

What hazard should you expect for a morning departure from KPDX, based on this METAR? KPDX 271154Z 00000KT 9SM CLR -10/-10 A2979. Wind shear. Frost on the aircraft. Sea breeze.

(Refer to Figure 465.) What is the reference stall speed if you will be landing the aircraft at 55,000 pounds with 35 degrees of flaps?. 92 knots. 97 knots. 102 knots.

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. Intermittent 'bang,' as backfires and flow reversals take place.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-3?. 4 hours 15 minutes. 3 hours 40 minutes. 4 hours.

(Refer to Figure 474.) What is the gross climb gradient with the following conditions? Outside air temperature: 0 degrees C Airfield altitude: 4,000 feet Weight: 55,000 pounds. 0.052%. 0.020%. 0.074%.

What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?. Inward and aft. Inward and forward. Outward and forward.

What is the minimum floor load limit that an aircraft must have to carry the following pallet of cargo? Pallet dimensions are 78.9 x 98.7 inches Pallet weight - 161 lbs. Tiedown devices - 54 lbs. Cargo weight - 9,681.5 lbs. 180 lbs/sq ft. 186 lbs/sq ft. 183 lbs/sq ft.

(Refer to Figure 130.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'B' for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. 500 feet or less to another aircraft. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is shifted from the aft to the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 2?. 26.1 percent MAC. 20.5 percent MAC. 22.8 percent MAC.

(Refer to Figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 223 knots and 1.33 EPR. 225 knots and 1.33 EPR. 220 knots and 1.28 EPR.

How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. Immediately after ground contact. Immediately prior to touchdown. After applying maximum wheel braking.

Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

(Refer to Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) and Humble (IAH)?. 24 miles from IAH. 18 miles from IAH. Halfway between TNV and IAH.

Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: of an intersecting taxiway only. of some designated point on the runway. only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

(Refer to Figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?. 5,230 pounds. 5,970 pounds. 5,550 pounds.

Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness?. When wing lift has been reduced. At high groundspeeds. When the wheels are locked and skidding.

(Refer to Figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-5?. 8,800 feet. 9,600 feet. 13,000 feet.

What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body. Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. Alcohol has little effect if followed by an ounce of black coffee for every ounce of alcohol.

(Refer to Figure 148.) Which system in the Convective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing the most severe storm?. The storms in Texas and Oklahoma. The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma. The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of Memphis (MEM).

(Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1?. 145 NM. 137 NM. 134 NM.

The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as. a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier. a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a Part 121 SIC. an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?. Tingling sensations. Visual acuity. Decreased breathing rate.

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment. to be inpoerative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. to be inoperative anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed. to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.

Runway centerline lights as seen from the flight deck begin to alternate white and red in the last. 1,000 feet of runway distance remaining. 2,000 feet of runway distance remaining. 3,000 feet of runway distance remaining.

When does the National Weather Service release an Aviation Notification Watch Message (SAW)?. At 0000 (UTC). At 0000 and 1200 (UTC). Unscheduled and issued as required.

What is the purpose of a servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. taxiing, takeoff, and landing. takeoff, cruise, and landing.

(Refer to Figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D' correspond?. 4. 15. 17.

As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will. increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. decrease due to higher density altitude.

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should. continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory. select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid.

Airport "hot spots" are. Reserved for contaminated aircraft. Parking spots for military aircraft. Known hazardous runway intersections.

(Refer to Figure 279.) Where does the final approach segment begin on the ILS RWY 32R at ORD?. Glide slope intercept, 2,700 feet MSL. INDDY OM, 2,663 feet MSL. MUNDAY ORD, 4,000 feet MSL.

Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition?. Significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitude. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

(Refer to Figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.

(Refer to Figures 360 and 388.) N60JB desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather forecast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB to list it as an alternate?. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 800-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 600-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision approach 600-2.

(Refer to Figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-5?. 15,000 pounds. 20,000 pounds. 19,000 pounds.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 76 x 74 inches? Floor load limit: 176 lbs/sq ft Pallet weight: 77 lbs Tiedown devices: 29 lbs. 6,767.8 pounds. 6,873.7 pounds. 6,796.8 pounds.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?. 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.

Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?. Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind.

All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report. accident and incident data annually. noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway. declared distances for each runway.

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. 10,000 feet within 4 minutes. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be. 100 kts. 110 kts. 120 kts.

The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than. GPS or VOR. ILS or GPS. GPS.

(Refer to Figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct.

When executing a stabilized approach, you should use. no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non-precision or precision approach from 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE. no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach or 1200 FPM for a non-precision approach. no more than 800 FPM for a nonprecision approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.

What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.

What is the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimensions of 34.6 x 46.4 inches? Floor load limit - 88 lb/sq ft Pallet weight - 41 lb Tiedown devices - 26 lb. 914.1 pounds. 940.1 pounds. 981.1 pounds.