ATP Flight Operations

(Refer to Figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport is. 1,126 feet. 1,135 feet. 1,458 feet.

What terms or values should be used when providing a quality of braking action report to ATC?. Good, Medium, Poor, and Nil. Good, Good to Medium, Medium, Medium to Poor, Poor, and Nil. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

An alternate airport for departure is required. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?. 10,000 feet. 14,500 feet. FL 180.

(Refer to Figure 201A.) What type of weather information would normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-Hinckley?. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds, and any pertinent remarks. Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of the precipitation. Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, wind data, and density altitude.

Fig. 123 A You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Direct only. Parallel only.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class A airspace?. FL 600. FL 450. FL 500.

Fig. 127 What is the base of the Class A airspace?. 12,000 feet AGL. 14,500 feet MSL. FL 180.

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?. Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-top clearance during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 horizontal. 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2000horizontal. 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and horizontal.

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain "VFR on Top"?. Maintain IFR flight plan but comply with visual flight rules while in VFR conditions. Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules. Maintain IFR altitudes, VFR cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SID's, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgment is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain "VFR on Top"?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?. Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing. Taxi into position and hold prior to requesting clearence. Start engines, perform pretakeoff check, and request.

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?. They are given preference for departure over other aircraft. They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup block. They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.

Fig. 123 You receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel only. Direct only. Teardrop only.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class C airspace?. 3,000 feet AGL. 4,000 feet AGL. 3,500 feet AGL.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class E airspace)?. 14,000 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL. 18,000 feet MSL.

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s?. Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning. Airport or primary runway closings, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages. Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI.

(Refer to Figure 257A.) At what point does the flight enter the final approach phase of the ILS RWY 25L at LAX?. FUELR INT. HUNDA INT. Intercept of glide slope.

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

In what airspace will ATC not authorize "VFR on Top"?. Class C airspace. Class B airspace. Class A airspace.

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?. Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. Simplify clearance delivery procedures. Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports.

(Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would you initiate the missed approach?. anytime after the FAF. 4.5 NM after JOLTE. IAH DME 1.0.

Fig. 127 Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?. 700 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?. 700 or 2,500 feet AGL. 500 or 2,000 feet AGL. 700 or 1,200 feet AGL.

Fig. 126 What is the normal radius from the airport of the outer area, B? (See figure 126). 10 miles. 20 miles. 25 miles.

Fig. 126 What is the radius from the airport of the outer circle, A?. 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.

Fig. 126 Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer circles?. 3,000 feet AGL. 3,000 feet above airport. 4,000 feet above airport.

(Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio represent?. Displaced threshold. Final approach fix. Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?. No specific certification but a two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate and two-way radio. At least a Private Pilot Certificate, two-way radio, and TSO-C74b transponder.

Fig. 126 Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle? (See figure 126). 700 feet AGL. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL.

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?. 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the hour. Between weather broadcasts on the hour. Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearence?. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. When an IFR clearence is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Immediately climb to 9,000. Report climbing to 9,000. Report maintaining 8,000.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. Only where specifically requested by CORPAC Flight Planning. When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by. stating "Have numbers". stating "Have Weather". repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

When does ATC issue a STAR?. Only when ATC deems it appropriate. Only to high priority flights. Only upon request of the pilot.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine- powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?. 156 knots. 180 knots. 200 knots.

(Refer to Figure 257B.) The radio altimeter indication for the DH at the inner marker on the ILS RWY 24R approach at LAX is. 120. 115. 126.

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?. 230 knots. 250 knots. 275 knots.

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Read the clearance back in its entirety. Request a clarification from ATC. Do not accept the clearance.

What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?. 265 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

With a speed of 140 knots, what is the mínimum rate of climb after taking off from Rwy 3 at TUS to reach 9,900 feet? Interpolation required. 963 FPM. 1,065 FPM. 930 FPM.

(Refer to Figure 373.) Inbound to DEN from Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably were assigned. 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 132.35. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3.

(Refer to Figure 373.) Inbound to DEN from Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably were assigned. 119.3 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 132.35. 120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airports should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

An ATC "instruction". is the same as an ATC "clearance.". is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. must be "read back" in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will receive taxi instruction with clearance. Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup. Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM. 7/8 SM.

(Refer to Figure 293.) For landing on RWY 13R at JFK, how much RWY is available?. 12,468 feet. 14,511 feet. 9,095.

(Refer to Figures 256 and 257A.) How should the IFR flight plan be closed upon landing at LAX?. Contact UNICOM on 122.95. Phone ASOS on 310-568-2486. LAX tower will close it automatically.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?. 3/8 SM. 5/8 SM. 3/4 SM.

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when celared for an ILS approach? The pilot. may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude. must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes. may descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course.

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized "VFR on Top?. The same afforded all IFR flights. 3 miles horizontally instead of 5. Traffic advisories only.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from the FAF to the MAP for the VOR or GPS RWY 13L/13R approach is. 6.2 NM. 3.2 NM. 2.6 NM.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?. 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?. At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible. At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT", the pilot should. advise ATC that a procedure turn will not be executed. not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC. execute a holding-pattern type procedure turn.

When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?. 1 SM. 1/2 SM. 300 feet and 1/2 SM.

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be inititiated upon. arrival at the DH on the glide slope. arrival at the visual descent point. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM. 1/2 SM.

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include?. Clearance limit and en route altitude. Clearance limit, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate. Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

What is the minimun flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR -on Top clearence during daylight hours?. 3 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?. Assume lost communications and continue as planned. Plan to hold at cruising speed until further clearance is received. Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport civil/navy between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 200 knots.

When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern?. 3° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less. 3° per second or 30° bank, whicheever is less. 1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whicheever is less.

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, whichever occurs first. At the end of a 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage. When abeam the holding fix.

Refer figure 99-101 C Which frecuency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?. 123.775 MHz. 122.95 MHz. 135.95 MHz.

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phase of flight"?. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised immediately?. Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers. If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired. If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the. aircraft dispatcher. flight navigator. pilot in command.

When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for operations, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?. List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use. List at least one additional alternate airport.

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport. for a period 1 hours before or after the ETA. during the entire flight. when the flight arrives.

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is. 210 knots. 230 knots. 265 knots.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The minimum crossing altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is. 7,500 feet. 9,100 feet. 11,500 feet.

(Refer to Figure 114.) What is the minimum altitude southwest bound on V8 at LUCER intersection?. 9,300 feet. 9,000 feet. 10,500 feet.

(Refer to Runway Incursion Figure.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: “N123, Taxi to runway 16.” Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller’s instructions?. 5 (Five). 6 (Six). 9 (Nine).

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1 minute. 1-1/2 minutes. 1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.

Fig. 124 A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Parallel or teardrop. Parallel only. Direct only.

Fig. 124 A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct only.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. As N711JB is approaching ASALT, Approach Control clears the aircraft to fly the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach. What is the distance from ASALT Intersection to RWY 13L?. 11.2 NM. 12.2 NM. 8.6 NM.

What is the distance from ASALT Intersection to the MAP?. 8.6 NM. 2.6 NM. 6 NM.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is normally appropriate for the top of Class D airspace?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL. 3,000 feet AGL.

Fig. 126 What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle, C?. 5 miles. 7 miles. 10 miles.

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?. Two-way communications. Two-way communications and transponder. Transponder and DME.

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi. File at least 1 hour prior to departure and request the clearance at least 10 minutes prior to taxi.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?. 180 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?. 188 knots. 210 knots. 230 knots.

If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?. Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible. Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC. Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

While airborne and belolw the MEA, the pilot accepts an IFR clearance. Sole responsability for terrain and obstruction clearance remains with the pilot unless. The flight continues in clouds or above a ceiling and ATC transmits “RADAR CONTACT”. An appropiate mínimum IFR altitude providing obstruction clearance is attained. The pilot advises ATC that he or she is unable to maintain terrain/obstrction clearance.

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. entering controlled airspace. entering IFR weather conditions.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?. 288 knots. 250 knots. 230 knots.

(Refer to Figure 185A.) The threshold of RWY 07L at McCarran Intl is displaced. 878 feet, due to a pole. 2,138 feet, due to a hangar. 1,659 feet, due to a pole.

(Refer to Figure 145.) The minimums for the nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4-mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR data?. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requirements. No, they do not meet the minimum visibility requirements. No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?. When cleared for an IFR approach. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

When executing a stabilized approach, you should use. no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non-precision or precision approach from 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE. no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach or 1200 FPM for a non- precision approach. no more than 800 FPM for a non-precision approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.

(Refer to Figures 360 and 388.) N60JB desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather foreCast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB to list it as an alternate?. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 800-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 600-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision approach 600-2.

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What distance is available for takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?. 6,998 feet. 8,408 feet. 10,996 feet.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?. Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold. Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway slope to the SE. Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent upslope of the runway.

(Refer to Figure 348.) Determine the DEP CON frequency for the TUS3.GBN SID after takeoff from RWY 11R at Tucson Intl. 125.1 MHz. 118.5 MHz. 128.5 MHz.

GBAS approaches are. flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified. flown the same as an LDA with glide slope tuning and identification. automatically tuned and displayed after selection of the three character procedure identifier.

(Refer to Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to turn left heading 030 and proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What should you do if you are in IMC?. Enter holding at LAHAB on the 185 degree radial until reaching 15,000 feet. Advise departure control you cannot make the clearance and request radar vectors. Turn toward the Long Beach Airport temporarily and continue the climb until you can cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet.

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is. 800-2, 1,100-1, or 900-1-1/2. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/4, or 800-2. 1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2.

(Refer to Figure 257A and Legend 38.) What approach lights are available for the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX?. ALSF-2 with sequenced flashing lights. MALSR with a displayed threshold. HIRL and TDZ/CL.

(Refer to Figure 259.) Which approach lighting is available for RWY 33R?. MALSR and RAIL. MIRL. TDZ and CL.

(Refer to Figure 257A.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?. Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated. Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 feet to the DH. Immediately start the missed approach left turn to CATLY INT.

(Refer to Figures 255A and 255B). Which approach control frequency is indicated for the TNP. DOWNE4 Arrival with LAX as the destination?. 128.5 MHz. 124.9 MHz. 124.05 MHz.

An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?. 800-2. 900-1. 1000-1/2.

(Refer to Figure 279 and Legend 72.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots?. 637 ft/min. 478 ft/min. 558 ft/min.

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person. shall correctly annotate the flight plan. must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan. should file for odd altitudes only.

(Refer to Figure 192.) On the airway J10 between OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is the MAA on J197 between FSD and OBH?. 43,000 feet. 45,000 feet. 60,000 feet.

9409. In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?. Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

9424. Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff. from a runway intersection. from a runway intersection, only at night. from a runway intersection, only during instrument conditions.

9780. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is. 200 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

8890. Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, classified as Warning Areas?. To inform pilots of participating aircraft to maintain extreme vigilance while conducting flight within the area. To warn all aircraft pilots that flying within the area may be extremely hazardous to aircraft and occupants. To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a potential danger within the area.

What is the purpose of MOAs?. To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft. To separate military training activities from IFR traffic. To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.

Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an MOA?. Military controllers. ATC controllers. Each pilot.

(Refer to Figure 263.) In a turbojet airplane, when assigned the RIICE THREE arrival, at what speed would ATC expect you to cross RIICE intersection when landing EAST at IAH?. 200 knots. 220 knots. 250 knots.

(Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane with no MEL items?. Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. Ceiling 300 feet minimum. Visibility 1800 RVR.

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?. IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart. IFR High Altitude En Route Chart. IFR Planning Chart.

What is the maximum acceptable position tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over land?. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

What is the maximum acceptable position tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over water?. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called. Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA). Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA). Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA).

Where does the final approach segment begin on the ILS RWY 32R at ORD?. Glide slope intercept, 2,700 feet MSL. INDDY OM, 2,663 feet MSL. MUNDAY ORD, 4,000 feet MSL.

Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?. The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight visibility. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility. The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.

At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, ¿required to enter Class D airspace?. 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.

A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?. 1,000 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL. 5,000 feet AGL.

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is. 200 knots. 230 knots. 250 knots.

What are FDC NOTAMs?. Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. Time critical aeronautical information of a temporary nature from distant centers. Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normally published charts.

How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used. A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on the IFR flight plan?. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude. List the initial and final fix with at least one waypoint each 200 NM. Begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

(Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS (near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is an example of a. LF/MF Airway. LF/MF Oceanic Route. Military Training Route.

9027. What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. The entire route must be within radar environment. The waypoints may only be defined by degreedistance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?. Upon approval of ATC. Upon approval of the owner. Upon signing a waiver of responsibility.

To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word “LIFEGUARD” should be entered in which section of the flight plan?. Aircraft type/special equipment block. Pilot’s name and address block. Remarks block.

When planning to use RNAV equipment with GPS input for an instrument approach at a destination airport, any required alternate airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has a WAAS input. require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has an IRU input. require the use of GPS except when dual, independent GPS receivers are installed.

Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight?. No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles. An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA. An alternate airport is required.

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be. 2 miles or greater. at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. 3 miles.

When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?. When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route.

(Refer to Figure 348.) How can the pilot receive the latest NOTAMs for the TUS LAX flight?. Monitor ATIS on 123.8 MHz. Contact the RCO on 122.2 MHz. Request ADCUS on any FSS or Tower frequency.

(Refer to Figure 335.) At San Francisco Intl (SFO), the runway hold position signs are. all on the left-hand side of the taxiways. all on the right-hand side of the taxiways. on either side of the taxiways.

As required by Part 121, an airport may be listed as an alternate in the flight reléase only if the weather forecast indicates that conditions will be at or above the. Alternate weather minima specified in the operation specifications at the time of arrival. Lowest available IAP minima at the time of arrival. Lowest available IAP minima for 1 hour before to 1 hour after the time of arrival.

A runway condition code (RwyCC) not be issued by ATC if all three segments of a runway are reporting values of. 0. 5. 6.

What information does a FICON NOTAM provide for a paved runway?. Contaminant measurements. Braking action. Contaminant measurements and braking action.

When ATC assigns a speed adjustment to an aircraft operating at FL270, it will be at a speed not less than. 250 knots. 210 knots. 200 knots.

A runway condition code (RwyCC) of 0 is used to delineate a braking action report of. Good. Nil. Poor.

Arriving at Ryan Field at 1600Z under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) in a turbine-powered airplane, at what altitude should you enter the traffic pattern and remain at that altitude until further descent is required for a safe landing?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2.500 feet AGL. 1,500 feet AGL.

Under what condition does a pilot receive a “void time” specified in the clearance?. On an uncontrolled airport. When “gate hold” procedures are in effect. If the clearance is received prior to starting engines.

Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?. Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from FARs. Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC. Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

As you call for taxi instructions, the key words to understand are. cleared to runway. hold short of or “cross.”. taxi to and “expedite.

You received these ATC taxi instructions: “Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L”. Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route. requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima. involves transiting HS 4. requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.

As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242), you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you. exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. exited onto Taxiway G. exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.

(Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70?. 475 feet per minute. 585 feet per minute. 690 feet per minute.

When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT?. No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from Canarsie (CRI) to RWY 13R at JFK is. 5.2 NM. 6.2 NM. 8.6 NM.

The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are. 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1. 800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2. 800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3.

When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is. 800-1-1/2. 600-2. 900-1-1/2.

An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from a domestic airport which is not listed in the carrier’s operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums prescribed for the airport, and the weather is currently reporting a 900-foot overcast ceiling and 1-mile visibility in mist. The flight may. not depart until the weather improves. depart if an alternate departure airport is filed. depart without an alternate departure airport.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you approach V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you pass V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you receive a master caution light after VR. What action should you take?. Reject the takeoff. Hold the nose down to takeoff speed. Continue the takeoff.

(Refer to Figure 185A.) The maximum gross weight that an L1011 can be operated on RWY 07R/25L at McCarran Intl is. 496,000 pounds. 833,000 pounds. 620,000 pounds.

(Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?. DME or radar. LDIN and VOR. VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. On approach control frequency. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published DH. At the MDA published or a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.

What action should be taken when a pilot is “cleared for approach” while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?. Descend to minimum vector altitude. Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment. Descend to initial approach fix altitude.

(Refer to Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) and Humble (IAH)?. 24 miles from IAH. 18 miles from IAH. Halfway between TNV and IAH.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is. 180 knots IAS. 200 knots TAS. 200 knots IAS.

When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?. Anytime at the pilot’s discretion. Only at the MAP. Only when advised by the controller.

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is. an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways. a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways. a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.

Precision runway monitoring requires. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios. pilot responsibility to monitor 2 ILS receivers. detailed performance during the “decision region”: 1/3 dot localizer and 1/2 dot glideslope.

(Refer to Figures 241 and 242.) You land on Runway 12 at LGB and plan to exit the runway to the right on Taxiway J. What potential risk should you be aware of on the airport diagram?. Convergence of Taxiways D and J. Convergence of Taxiways C and J. Convergence of Runways 16R-34L and 07R-25L.

(Refer to Figure 348.) The airport diagram of Bradley Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located close to the approach end of RWY 19. What does this symbol indicate?. Runway Radar Reflectors. Practice hover area for the Army National Guard helicopters. Two course lights, back to back, which flash beams of light along the course of an airway.

When is the pilot responsable to se and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles?. ATC maintains responsibility if the pilot is operating under IFR. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of flight rules. When they have accepted an instruction to “maintain visual separation”.

To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with. a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM supplement. a GPS (TSO-129) receiver certified for IFR operations. an IFR approach-certified system with required navigation performance (RNP) of 0.5.

Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from. the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint in the correct sequence. the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint and verified by the pilot(s). the aircraft navigation database.

Pilots are responsible for knowing. if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed. if the RNP missed approach is normal or reduced. if the RNP registration is complete.

(Refer to Figure 273) Straight-in minimums for a Category B aircraft on the LOC RWL 25L approach are. 1,326 - 1/2. 1,520 – 1/2. 1,740 – 1.

You are in IMC and descending below 1,000 feet above the TDZE on a straight-in instrument approach in a turbojet. The approach is considered stabilized when the airplane is. fully configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of less than 1,000 FPM. fully configured with the engines spooled up and a descent rate of no more than 500 FPM. at least partially configured and on the correct speed with a descent rate of no more than 1,200 FPM.

When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency. When aligned on the final approach course. When cleared for the approach.

When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in. 7%. 21%. 33%.

(Refer to Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, your GPS changes from “armed” to “active,” and the CDI needle begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no increase in cross track. In this situation, you. should immediately execute the missed approach. know that the sensitivity of the CDI has increased. would turn to the right to center the CDI needle.

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in a landing distance increase of approximately. 7%. 10%. 15%.

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. Time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.

While holding short for an intersection takeoff runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to “line up and wait runway 36.” You should. line up and wait for takeoff on taxiway C. line up and wait on runway 36 at intersection C for departure. hold short and advise tower that you are at intersection C short of runway 36.

The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.

In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?. “Vectors” provided for navigational guidance or “Pilot NAV” with courses the pilot is responsible to follow. “Vectors” and “Pilot NAV” for pilots to use at their discretion. Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes and instructions.

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be. RNAV equipped. in compliance with ICAO Annex 10. FMS/EFIS equipped.

The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than. GPS or VOR. ILS or GPS. GPS.

Fig. 124 A pilot receives this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?. Teardrop only. Parallel only. Direct.

(Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on V8 southwest bound between HEC VORTAC and PDZ VORTAC is. halfway. 27 DME miles from HEC VORTAC. 31 DME miles from the HEC VORTAC.

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established. Radar vectors to and from secondary airports within the outer area. Basic radar service only when communications and radar contact is established.

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspace?. Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories. Sequencing of arriving aircraft (except VFR aircraft), separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories. Sequencing of all arriving aircraft, separation between all aircraft, and traffic advisories.

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.