ATP Regulations

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in-command required to hold a type rating?. A—When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. B—When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. C—When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

The second-in-command of an aircraft in domestic operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold. A—an airline transport pilot certificate and a first class medical. B—an airline transport pilot certificate with an SIC aircraft type rating. C—a commercial pilot certificate with instrument rating, a second-class medical, and a type rating appropriate for the aircraft being flown.

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?. A—Commercial – B-737; ATP – B-727 and B-747. B—ATP – B-747; Commercial – B-727 and B-737. C—ATP – B-747, B-727, and B-737.

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. A—6 hours. B—8 hours. C—10 hours.

The lowest CAT II minimums are. A—DH 100 and RVR 1200. B—DH 150 and RVR 1600. C—DH 50 and RVR 1200.

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transpor tation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. A—30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. B—7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. C—36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. A—30 days. B—60 days. C—90 days.

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is sched uled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. A—required to have a least a current third-class medical certificate. B—required to have a current first-class medical certificate. C—not required to hold a medical certificate.

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?. A—No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. B—No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. C—Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is. A—required to have a first-class medical certificate. B—required to have a second-class medical certificate. C—not required to have a medical certificate.

Which is a definition of the term “crewmember”?. A—Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B—A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C—Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. A—required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B—not required to have a medical certificate. C—required to have a first-class medical certificate.

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. A—a first-class medical certificate. B—at least a current third-class medical certificate. C—a second-class medical certificate.

When a type rating is to be added to an air line transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. A—required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B—is not required to have a medical certificate. C—required to have a first-class medical certificate.

The “age 65 rule” of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to. A—any required pilot crewmember. B—any flight crewmember. C—the pilot in command only.

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations?. A—If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B—If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C—If required by the airplane’s type certificate.

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engi neer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,. A—at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B—one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C—one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. A—80,000 pounds. B—more than 80,000 pounds. C—300,000 pounds.

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. A—one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B—the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C—at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

8. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer’s duties?. A—The second in command only. B—Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C—Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.On each flight requiring a flight engineer at least one flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a Flight Engineer’s.

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?. A—Four. B—Three. C—Two.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. A—Five. B—Four. C—Three.

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capac ity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. A—Five. B—Four. C—Three.

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capac ity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. A—Seven. B—Six. C—Five.

A pilot, acting as second-in-command, success fully completes the instrument competency check speci fied in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. A—12 months. B—90 days. C—6 months.

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. A—six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/ simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B—six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C—six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as. A—a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier. B—a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a Part 121 SIC. C—an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. A—All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B—One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C—One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. A—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B—Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC. A—in Part 121 operations. B—in Part 91, subpart K operations. C—in Part 135 operations.

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. A—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B—Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C—Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. A—Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B—pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C—Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. A—When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B—When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C—120 days after issue or renewal.

What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. A—100 feet AGL. B—150 feet AGL. C—200 feet AGL.

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. A—upgrade training. B—transition training. C—initial training.

A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

A crewmember who has served as second-in command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. A—Upgrade training. B—Recurrent training. C—Initial training.

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. A—difference training. B—transition training. C—upgrade training.

What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?. A—The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B—The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C—The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. A—November 2010. B—December 2011. C—January 2011.

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?. A—At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B—At least one full stop landing must be made. C—At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. A—At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B—At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C—At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

When a pilot’s flight time consists of 80 hours’ pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. A—Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. B—Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. C—Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. A—logged 90 hours’ flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B—made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C—logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of. A—15 or more. B—19 or more. C—20 or more.

Fatigue can be evident in others if they. A—talk more than usual. B—yawn excessively. C—are overly helpful.

You did not get a good night’s rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is. A—improved dexterity. B—decreased short term memory. C—mental acuteness.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?. A—48. B—52. C—32.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. A—190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. B—180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. C—170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month period?. A—120. B—100. C—80.

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to. A—180 hours in any 28 consecutive days. B—190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. C—170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is. A—considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. B—considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. C—not considered to be part of a rest period.

“Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between. A—0100 – 0500. B—1200 – 0459. C—0200 – 0559.

For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed. A—12 hours. B—14 hours. C—16 hours.

If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder?. A—No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest. B—No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 8 hours rest. C—Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours free from duty.

Each flightcrew member must report. A—in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish all assignments. B—to the airport on time and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duty. C—for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.

You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven’t slept well. What is a warning sign that you are fatigued?. A—Improved dexterity. B—Head bobbing. C—Mental acuteness.

“Airport standby reserve” means. A—a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. B—being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hours duration. C—a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given. A—10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. B—12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. C—8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.

You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment?. A—At any time during your required rest period. B—At the end of your required rest period. C—No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.

“Physiological night’s rest” means. A—9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. B—10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. C—12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or disturbed rest.

“Rest period” means. A—an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. B—a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. C—a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report. A—on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. B—to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties. C—for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.

“Theater” means. A—a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 90 degrees longitude. B—a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 75 degrees longitude. C—a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training. A—with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. B—annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. C—annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew members and dispatchers.

For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is. A—13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. B—13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight segments. C—10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight segments.

In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight crew of two, your flight time may not exceed. A—9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. B—9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. C—9 hours if assigned to report at 2030.

In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is. A—17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a Class 3 rest facility available. B—16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a Class 1 rest facility available. C—15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a Class 2 rest facility available.

Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be. A—given before the next to last flight segment. B—given before the beginning of the flight duty period. C—provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.

If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the. A—maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. B—flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location. C—minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.

The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least. A—3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. B—4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. C—4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.

The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as. A—2 hours. B—1 hour. C—30 minutes.

After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as. A—2 hours. B—necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport. C—necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is. A—not part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period. B—part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period. C—part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.

“Unforeseen operational circumstance” means an. A—unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules. B—unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. C—event of sufficient duration to create increased flight times for the certificate holder’s operation.

Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include. A—instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and flying for any certificate holder. B—any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. C—flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager and any other commercial flight time.

For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if. A—immediately followed by 11 hours of rest. B—unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff. C—known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.

Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to. A—60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. B—70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. C—60 hours in any 7 days.

A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of. A—24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the past 7 consecutive calendar days. B—36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. C—30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours.

Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than. A—10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours. B—8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours. C—10 consecutive hours of duty.

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for. A—more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low. B—more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period. C—consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time.

What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period?. A—8 consecutive hours rest. B—10 consecutive hours rest. C—12 consecutive hours rest.

“Operational control” of a flight refers to. A—the specific duties of any required crewmember. B—exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C—exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?. A—Operations Specifications. B—Operating Certificate. C—Dispatch Release.

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft. A—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator’s manual available. B—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. C—for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. A—obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B—having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C—providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A—destination airport. B—provisional airport. C—alternate airport.

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued. A—an Air Carrier Certificate. B—a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. C—an Operating Certificate.

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. A—certificate holder’s operations specifications. B—application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C—Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report. A—accident and incident data annually. B—noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway. C—declared distances for each runway.

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?. A—Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B—Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C—Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supple mental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. A—pilot in command and chief pilot. B—pilot in command and director of operations. C—pilot in command and the flight follower.

Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. A—Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. B—Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. C—Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. A—Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. B—Minimum fuel supply and trip number. C—Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it. A—minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B—trip number and weight and balance data. C—weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?. A—Any company dispatch facility. B—Notices To Airmen publication. C—Chart Supplements U.S.

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services?. A—The aircraft dispatcher. B—Air route traffic control center. C—Director of operations.

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. A—Company meteorologist. B—Aircraft dispatcher. C—Director of operations.

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. A—Not more than 1 hour. B—Not more than 2 hours. C—More than 6 hours.

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. A—1945Z. B—1915Z. C—1845Z.

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. A—1945Z. B—2015Z. C—0045Z.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is. A—2005Z. B—1905Z. C—0005Z.

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. A—Cargo and passenger distribution information. B—Copy of the flight plan. C—Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. A—1922Z. B—1952Z. C—0022Z.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?. A—Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B—Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C—Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. A—3 months. B—6 months. C—30 days.

The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. A—supplemental and commercial. B—supplemental and domestic. C—flag and commercial.

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. A—Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B—Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. C—Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. A—1 month. B—3 months. C—12 months.

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. A—weather reports and forecasts. B—names of all crewmembers. C—minimum fuel supply.

An ETOPS entry point means. A—the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. B—the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 200 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. C—the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS. A—preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. B—pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. C—pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.

For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport. A—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. B—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. C—for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.

What is considered “north polar”?. A—north of 60° N latitude. B—north of 68° N latitude. C—north of 78° N latitude.

What is considered “south polar”?. A—south of 60° S latitude. B—south of 68° S latitude. C—south of 78° S latitude.

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. A—Aircraft dispatcher. B—Pilot in command. C—Director of operations or flight follower.

Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. A—Aircraft dispatcher. B—Director of operations or flight follower. C—Pilot in command.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. A—30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B—45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C—45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. A—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B—2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. A—at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B—for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—back to the departure airport.

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. A—2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B—2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C—30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

An alternate airport is not required for a supple mental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered air plane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel. A—is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B—is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is. A—30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B—30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C—2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. A—30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. B—to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. A—90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B—45 minutes at holding altitude. C—30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is. A—45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B—the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. . C—3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. A—3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. B—3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C—2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?. A—Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator. B—A minimum of 1 hour. C—A minimum of 2 hours.

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?. A—The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. B—The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. C—The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?. A—The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. B—No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. C—The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

What is meant by “sterile cockpit”?. A—All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. B—Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. C—Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations.

Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight?. A—Clearly explain the location of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits. B—Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated. C—Passengers are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off.

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?. A—They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. B—They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. C—They shall board and depart before the other passengers.

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. A—FL 200. B—FL 240. C—FL 250.

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. A—When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. B—Only during the en route flight. C—During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. A—The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B—The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C—Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. A—except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B—in the interest of safety. C—except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?. A—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. B—The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. C—The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. A—7 days. B—5 days. C—48 hours.

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin. A—may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. B—must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. C—must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?. A—All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. B—All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. C—Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for what period of time?. A—1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the Administrator. B—30 days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and approved by the Administrator. C—30 days, at the flight’s destination.

Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?. A—It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. B—All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft. C—Cargo carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers.

Which is NOT a required item on the load manifest?. A—List of passenger names and the weight of each. B—Aircraft registration number or flight number. C—Identification of crewmembers and their crew position.

Who is responsible for the preparation of a required load manifest?. A—PIC or the Dispatcher. B—Company official designated by the Administrator. C—The certificate holder.

A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an approved training program established by the certificate holder within the previous. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

Which is a requirement governing the carriage of cargo, on a scheduled passenger flight?. A—Cargo must be carried in an approved rack, bin, or compartment. B—Cargo not stowed in an approved bin must be secured by a safety belt or approved tiedown device. C—All cargo carried in the passenger compartment must be packaged and stowed ahead of the foremost seated passenger.

In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded. A—so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments. B—in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all occupants. C—in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs.

Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage?. A—All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence. B—Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner. C—Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.

The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for. A—any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more. B—any aircraft with more than one engine. C—all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.

If carry-on baggage or cargo is carried in the passenger compartment, it must be. A—stowed ahead of the foremost seated passengers and secured by approved means. B—placed in an approved rack, bin, or compartment installed in the aircraft. C—so located that it does not obstruct the access to, or the use of, any required emergency or regular exit.

(Refer to Legend 12.) Newport News/Williamsburg Intl is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. The Chart Supplements U.S. (previously A/FD) contains the following entry: ARFF Index A. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. A—Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. B—One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. C—One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. A—To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. B—To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. C—Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. A—When priority has been given. B—Anytime an emergency occurs. C—When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

(Refer to Legend 12 and Figure 185A.) McCar ran Intl (LAS) is a 14 CFR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have?. A—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or HALON 1211, or 450 pounds of DC and 100 gallons of water plus 6,000 gallons of water. B—Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water. C—Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. A—All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. B—Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. C—Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. A—Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. B—Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C—Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?. A—Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. B—Number of passenger cabin occupants. C—Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

How many portable battery-powered mega phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?. A—Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. B—Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C—Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. A—The most forward location in the passenger cabin. B—In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. C—The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during. A—taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. B—taxiing, takeoff, and landing. C—takeoff, cruise, and landing.

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must. A—operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. B—be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. C—be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A—A large airplane. B—A turbojet airplane. C—An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. A—For taxi, takeoff, and landing. B—Only for takeoff and landing. C—During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. A—has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. B—has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. C—weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. A—unlocked during takeoff and landing. B—locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. C—latched open during takeoff and landing.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a. A—key to the flight deck door. B—certificate holder’s manual. C—flashlight in good working order.

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A—A minimum of 2-hours’ supply. B—Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. C—Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. A—and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. B—shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. C—must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. A—of FL 260. B—of FL 250. C—above FL 250.

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. A—FL 200. B—FL 300. C—FL 250.

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. A—5 seconds. B—10 seconds. C—15 seconds.

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. A—FL 240. B—FL 250. C—Above FL 250.

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. A—30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. B—10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. C—each passenger for 30 minutes.

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. A—each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. B—30 percent of the passengers. C—10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

The supplemental oxygen requirements for pas sengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. A—10,000 feet within 4 minutes. B—14,000 feet within 4 minutes. C—12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?. A—15,000 feet. B—16,000 feet. C—14,000 feet.

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. A—Two. B—Four. C—Three.

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A—A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. B—An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. C—A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. A—within easy reach of each passenger. B—under each occupant seat. C—within easy reach of each seated occupant.

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. A—all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. B—all aircraft occupants. C—all passenger seats.

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. A—aircraft occupant. B—seat on the aircraft. C—passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. A—One for each passenger seat. B—One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. C—One for each occupant of the aircraft.

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A—Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. B—Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. C—Survival kit for each passenger.

An airplane operated by a supplemental air car rier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A—Survival kit for each passenger. B—Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. C—Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should. A—take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. B—comply with the company’s lost aircraft plan. C—phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A—A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. B—Survival kit for each passenger. C—An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. A—Airplane Flight Manual. B—Certificate holder’s manual. C—Pilot’s Emergency Procedures Handbook.

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. A—6 calendar months. B—12 calendar months. C—24 calendar months.

If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. A—appropriate ground radio station. B—nearest FAA district office. C—operations manager (or director of operations).

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. A—pilot in command. B—air carrier’s chief pilot. C—certificate holder.

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. A—must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B—may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C—may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. A—FL 180. B—FL 200. C—FL 250.

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. A—Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B—Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C—Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. A—Pilot in command. B—Dispatcher. C—Person who declares the emergency.

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the. A—dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. B—certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. C—pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is. A—encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. B—required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. C—required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the. A—nearest state or federal wildlife office on company letterhead. B—FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. C—nearest FSS via telephone.

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. A—10 days after the deviation. B—10 days after returning home. C—10 days after returning to home base.

Which is a requirement for flightcrew use of oxygen masks in a pressurized cabin airplane?. A—Both pilots at the controls shall use oxygen masks above FL 350. B—At altitudes above 25,000 feet MSL, if one pilot leaves the pilot duty station, the remaining pilot at the controls shall use an oxygen mask. C—At altitudes above FL 250, one of the two pilots at the controls shall use an oxygen mask continuously.

The two pilot stations of a pressurized aircraft are equipped with approved quick-donning oxygen masks. What is the maximum altitude authorized if one pilot is not wearing an oxygen mask and breathing oxygen?. A—41,000 feet MSL. B—35,000 feet MSL. C—25,000 feet MSL.

Which is a requirement for pilot use of oxygen in a pressurized airplane?. A—The pilot at the controls shall use oxygen continuously any time the cabin pressure altitude is more than 12,000 feet MSL. B—At FL 250 and above, each pilot shall have an approved quick-donning oxygen mask. C—At FL 250 and above, the pilot at the controls must have an approved oxygen mask any time the other pilot is away from the duty station.

At altitudes above 10,000 feet through 12,000 feet MSL, each pilot of an unpressurized airplane must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of a duration of more than. A—20 minutes. B—30 minutes. C—45 minutes.

A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?. A—60 minutes. B—45 minutes. C—30 minutes.

The oxygen requirements for occupants of a pressurized airplane operated at altitudes above FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to descend safely to an altitude of. A—10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes. B—12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min. C—15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes.

At what altitude, in an unpressurized airplane, must all passengers be supplied oxygen?. A—Above 12,000 feet MSL. feet MSL. B—Above 14,000. C—Above 15,000 feet MSL.

Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?. A—FL 300. B—FL 350. C—FL 250.

Between what altitudes must oxygen be available to at least 10 percent of the occupants, in an unpres surized airplane, other than the pilots?. A—Above 12,000 feet through 16,000 feet MSL, for any time period. B—Above 10,000 feet through 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration. C—10,000 feet to 15,000 feet MSL, if flight at those altitudes is of more than a 30-minute duration.

Which is a pilot requirement for oxygen?. A—Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft operating at FL 180 and above shall have an approved quick donning type oxygen mask. B—On pressurized aircraft requiring a flightcrew of two pilots, both shall continuously wear oxygen masks whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet MSL. C—On unpressurized aircraft, flying above 12,000 feet MSL, pilots shall use oxygen continuously.