ATP review

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Freezing rain. Clear air turbulence. Embedded thunderstorms.

Where do squall lines most often develop?. In an occluded front. Ahead of a cold front. Behind a stationary front.

Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?. Arctic only. Arctic and subtropical. Subtropical only.

The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is. 18 knots or less. greater than 18 knots. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.

(Refer to Figure 148.) Which system in the Convective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing the most severe storm?. The storms in Texas and Oklahoma. The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma. The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of Memphis (MEM).

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, 'pitch to airspeed, and apply maximum power. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.

What weather difference is found on each side of a 'dry line'?. Extreme temperature difference. Dewpoint difference. Stratus versus cumulus clouds.

(Refer to Figure 149A Area 10.) What is the forecast wind direction, speed, and temperature over ELY at 30,000 feet?. 330 degrees, 35 knots, 33 degrees C. 040 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degrees C. 220 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degrees C.

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by. the height of the tropopause. measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate. cloud types and the type of precipitation.

What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?. Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid. Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid. Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.

Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is. 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet. 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet. greater than 8 knots per 1,000 feet.

The most likely condition in which to experience severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below 0 degrees C is. rain. visible moisture. fog.

Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?. Cumulonimbus mammatus. Standing lenticular. Stratocumulus.

A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is. 58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.

Precipitation induced fog. results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling through cooler air. results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling through warmer air. is usually of short duration.

Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?. It is more complicated. The holding time is increased. More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots, to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute. A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer. Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?. The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. There is an inversion with colder air below.

A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering river of maximum winds extending around the globe in a wavelike pattern with speeds of. 50 knots or greater. 71 knots or greater. 100 knots or greater.

Which weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to a hurricane?. Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more. A clear area or hurricane eye has formed. Sustained winds of 65 knots or more.

Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?. The parcel of air resists convection. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.

Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?. Clear ice. Frost ice. Rime ice.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.

What type turbulence should be reported when it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?. Continuous severe chop. Continuous moderate turbulence. Intermittent moderate turbulence.

(Refer to Figure 146.) What was the ceiling at Walnut Ridge (KARG)?. 1,000 feet AGL. 2,400 feet AGL. 1,000 feet MSL.

Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause. Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.

Which is a definition of 'severe wind shear'?. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min. Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min.

Where are jetstreams normally located?. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere. In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between the equatorial and polar tropopause.

You are planning a flight to the West Coast of the United States, which is currently below the published weather minimums for an ILS approach to that airport. Winds are forecast to increase to above 20 knots from the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather conditions should you expect?. Visual meteorological conditions. Advection fog will deepen with winds above 20 knots. A layer of low stratus or stratocumulus is expected.

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 3?. Decreasing headwind. Increasing tailwind. Strong downdraft.

Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?. Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity. Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface. Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.

What is a feature of a stationary front?. The warm front surface moves about half the speed of the cold front surface. Weather conditions are a combination of strong cold front and strong warm front weather. Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be. 100 kts. 110 kts. 120 kts.

Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms and some contain isotachs. The contours depict. ridges, lows, troughs and highs aloft. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.

Data that may be added (manual weather augmentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) report is limited to. the precipitation accumulation report, an automated variable visibility, and wind direction remark. thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less). density Altitude, NOTAMS, and reported slant range visibility.

Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?. The jetstream is located north of the surface systems. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.

Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?. Katabatic. Advection. Adiabatic.

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?. Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.

Where is the usual location of a thermal low?. Over the arctic region. Over the eye of a hurricane. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?. 4,000 feet thick. 2,000 feet thick. A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.

Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10°C. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.

All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will describe the intensity as. light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, or severe. light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe. light, moderate, heavy, extreme.

Where is a common location for an inversion?. At the tropopause. In the stratosphere. At the base of cumulus clouds.

Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly. Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued. every morning at 0400. two times a day. hourly.

(Refer to Figure 146.) What method was used to obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753Z?. Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), having a precipitation discriminator. Automatic Meteorological Observing Station (AMOS), with a precipitation discriminator. Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), without a precipitation discriminator.

Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?. Land breeze. Valley wind. Katabatic wind.

A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of. thunderstorms or other precipitation. precipitation or low visibility. thunderstorms or high wind.

What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?. Occasional light chop. Moderate chop. Intermittent light turbulence.

The rate of decrease in wind speed from the jet stream core is considerably greater on the. equatorial side. polar side. acute angle side.

Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?. Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog. Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog. Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.

Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with. fast moving warm front. fast moving cold front. dry lines.

Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids. need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft. must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.

(Refer to Figure 145.) What type of report is listed for Lubbock (KLBB) at 1818Z?. An Aviation selected special weather report. A special report concerning very low station pressure. A Special METAR weather observation, concerning significant weather changes.

Volcanic Ash Advisory charts are updated every. 4 hours. 6 hours. 12 hours.

If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front. the front can be expected to move with the upper winds. the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the frontal boundary. the front moves slowly if at all.

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?. In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core. Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located. On the equatorial side of the jetstream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.

Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,. ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD. ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it. ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.

Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?. Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases. Wind direction shifts to the left. Atmospheric pressure increases.

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 150 NM apart. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases. at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.

A strong wind shear can be expected. on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core. where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal to 2.5° longitude. if the 5°C isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer together.

A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of. 24 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute. 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?. Cold front and warm front. Warm front. Occluded front.

What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?. Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADATS, and the Area Forecast. PIREPS, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart. AIRMET Zulu.

In this METAR excerpt, "SLP993 SNINCR 1/10" means. 0.1 inch snow on the runway land zone during the last hour. 1" of snow in the last 10 hours. there is 10" of snow on the ground with a 1" increase in the last hour.

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?. On clear nights with stable air and light winds. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise. incoming terrestrial radiation peaking at noon. temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset.

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?. 30 percent. 50 percent. 80 percent.

Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?. Upper winds blowing across the front. Upper low located directly over the surface low. The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?. It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours. It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours. It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 mb).

Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is. closer to the runway than it actually is. farther from the runway than it actually is. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft. above the horizon and increasing in size. on the horizon with little relative movement. on the horizon and increasing in size.

CRM error management includes. effective use of all available resources: human resources, hardware, and information. error callout and error guidance training. error prevention, error detection, and recovery from the error.

Operations at and above FL180 require the use of what onboard avionics equipment?. Flight Information Services - Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast. Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast. Traffic Information Services - Broadcast and Flight Information Services - Broadcast.

Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

When flying an aircraft with electronic flight displays (EFDs), risk increases. if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance flight safety and remove pilot error. when the pilot expects the equipment to malfunction on occasion. if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for lack of skill and knowledge.

Missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires. that the GPS receiver be sequenced to the missed approach portion of the procedure. manual Intervention by the pilot, but will not be required, if RAIM is available. additional action by the operator to set the course.

(Refer to Figure 251). You are cleared to HNL and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you. should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums. must know ahead of time whether or not your FMS/GPS has GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability, the accuracy of the GPS derived. altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. position is not affected. velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed,.

Why does the FAA maintain a VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON)?. To provide VOR navigation service in the Westem mountainous United States below GPS signal coverage. To maintain the enroute Victor airway structure on overwater routes in the Gulf of Mexico. To support navigation of non-DME/DME equipped RNAV aircraft in the event of GPS outage.

(Refer to Figure 227.) The "taxiway ending" marker. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. indicates taxiway does not continue. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

If the missed approach is not activated, the GPS receiver will display. an extension of the outbound final approach course, and the ATD will increase from the MAWP. an extension of the outbound final approach course. an extension of the inbound final approach course.

When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped?. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. For lights at or above FL 180.

What does "UNREL" indicate in the following GPS and WAAS NOTAM: BOS WAAS LPV AND LNAV/VNAV MNM UNREL WEF 0305231700-0305231815?. Satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches to the Boston airport. The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, may not support LPV approaches. The predicted level of service, within the time parameters of the NOTAM, will not support LNAV/VNAV and MLS approaches.

'Unreliable', as indicated in the following GPS NOTAMS: SFO 12/051 SFO WAAS LNAV/VNAV AND LPV MNM UNREL WEF0512182025-0512182049 means. within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support LPV approaches. satellite signals are currently unavailable to support LPV and LNAV/VNAV approaches. within the time parameters of the NOTAM, the predicted level of service will not support RNAV and MLS approaches.

If flying a published GPS departure,. the data base will contain all of the transition or departures from all runways. and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required. the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity.

A GPS missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver. over the MAWP. after the MAWP. just prior to the MAWP.

Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

What is the purpose of a control tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control farces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

What effect, if any, does altitude have on V(MC) for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?. None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude.

What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces,. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Swept wings causes a significant. increase in effectiveness of flaps. reduction in effectiveness of flaps. flap actuation reliability issue.

What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?. Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease. Rate and radius will increase.

When piloting a turbojet transport airplane, what is a possible result when operating at speeds 5 to 10 percent above the critical Mach number?. Increased aerodynamic efficiency. Decreased control surface effectiveness. Occasional low speed Mach buffet warmings.

How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?. It varies directly with a change in altitude. It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb. It varies indirectly with a change in altitude.

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

When are inboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

Generally, the turning performance of an airplane is defined by. structural and power limits at high altitude. aerodynamic and structural limits at low altitude. control and structural limits at high altitude.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability. Neutral dynamic stability.

Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative static stability. Positive static stability. Negative dynamic stability.

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. L/D(MAX). lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.

Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at low speeds. Breaks the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

(Refer to Figure 273.) Straight-in minimums for a Category B aircraft on the LOC RWL 25L approach are. 1,326-1/2. 1,520-1/2. 1,740-1.

What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?. Must not exceed 200 knots within Class B airspace. Must operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace. Must operate in accordance with IFR procedures regardless of weather conditions.

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be. 2 miles or greater. at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. 3 miles.

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/ min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

What is the purpose of the term 'hold for release' when included in an IFR clearance?. A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions. When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released. Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released.

Pilots are responsible for knowing. if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed. if the RNP missed approach is normal or reduced. if the RNP registration is complete.

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport. for a period 1 hour before or after the ETA. during the entire flight. when the flight arrives.

(Refer to Figure 257A.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take?. Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated. Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 feet to the DH. Immediately start the missed approach left turn to CATLY INT.

Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from. the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint in the correct sequence. the aircraft navigation database, or manually loaded with each individual waypoint and verified by the pilot(s). the aircraft navigation database.

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. All radio fixes over which the flight will pass. The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.

You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you approach V1. You should. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency. promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust. abort the takeoff and plan for a maximum reverse thrust for deceleration.

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain 'VFR on Top'?. May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers. Must maintain VFR clearance above or below. May maintain VFR clearance above or below, but not between layers.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?. 200 knots. 210 knots. 250 knots.

(Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS (near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is an example of a. LF/MF Airway. LF/MF Oceanic Route. Military Training Route.

(Refer to Figures 360 and 388.) N60JB desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather forecast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB to list it as an alternate?. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 800-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 600-2. Nonprecision approach 800-2 1/4, precision approach 600-2.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

A runway condition code (RwyCC) will not be issued by ATC if all three segments of a runway are reporting values of. 0. 5. 6.

The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is. 265 knots. 230 knots. 156 knots.

(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl?. Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold. Takeoff run shortened by 0.7 percent runway slope to the SE. Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent upslope of the runway.

(Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS Rwy 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane with no MEL items?. Ceiling at least 200 feet and RVR 2400. Ceiling 300 feet minimum. Visibility 1800 RVR.

What information does a FICON NOTAM provide for a paved runway?. Contaminant measurements. Braking action. Contaminant measurements and braking action.

In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?. 'Vectors' provided for navigational guidance or 'Pilot NAV' with courses the pilot is responsible to follow. 'Vectors' and 'Pilot NAV' for pilots to use at their discretion. Combined textual and graphic form which are mandatory routes and instructions.

When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?. 230 knots. 188 knots. 210 knots.

What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SIDs, acknowledge altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors. If the clearance or instruction is understood, an acknowledgement is sufficient. Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.

What is the maximum acceptable position tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over water?. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized 'VFR on Top'?. The same afforded all IFR flights. 3 miles horizontally instead of 5. Traffic advisories only.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?. 1,500 feet AGL. 2,000 feet AGL. 2,500 feet AGL.

When executing a stabilized approach, you should use. no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non-precision or precision approach from 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE. no more than 1000 FPM for a precision approach or 1200 FPM for a non-precision approach. no more than 800 FPM for a nonprecision approach or 1000 FPM for a precision approach.

What are FDC NOTAMs?. Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. Time critical aeronautical information of a temporary nature from distant centers. Regulatory amendments to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normally published charts.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

(Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would you initiate the missed approach?. anytime after the FAF. 4.5 NM after JOLTE. IAH DME 1.0.

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM (D)s?. Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning. Airport or primary runway closings, runway and taxiway conditions, and airport lighting aids outages. Temporary flight restrictions, changes in status in navigational aids, and updates on equipment such as VASI.

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?. 1/4 SM. 3/4 SM. 1/2 SM.

Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airport should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?. 250 knots. 260 knots. 230 knots.

(Refer to Figures 201 and 201A.) What type of weather information would normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-Hinckley?. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds, and any pertinent remarks. Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation, and the intensity of the precipitation. Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, wind data, and density altitude.

(Refer to Legend 72 and Figure 361.) With a speed of 140 knots, what is the minimum rate of climb after taking off from Rwy 3 at TUS to reach 9,900 feet? Interpolation required. 963 FPM. 1,065 FPM. 930 FPM.

(Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?. DME or radar. LDIN and VOR. VOR, LDIN, and DME or radar.

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?. The waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. The entire route must be within radar environment. The waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids.

How are random RNAV routes below FL 390 defined on the IFR flight plan?. Define route waypoints using degree-distance fixes based on appropriate navigational aids for the route and altitude. List the initial and final fix with at least one waypoint each 200 NM. Begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random route waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?. Anytime at the pilot's discretion. Only at the MAP. Only when advised by the controller.

GBAS approaches are. flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified. flown the same as an LDA with glide slope tuning and identification. automatically tuned and displayed after selection of the three character procedure identifier.

When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT?. No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No later than 5 minutes before and no earlier than 5 minutes after the EDCT. No earlier than 15 minutes before and no later than 15 minutes after the EDCT.

The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is. 250 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, classified as Warning Areas?. To inform pilots of participating aircraft to maintain extreme vigilance while conducting flight within the area. To warn all aircraft pilots that flying within the area may be extremely hazardous to aircraft and occupants. To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a potential danger within the area.

How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?. A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions. A route via airways or jet routes with VORS and fixes used. A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting points.

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?. Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.