ATPL 2 Emirates

121. What is the primary system that controls the braking during a rejected take-off (RTO)?. A. Antiskid Brake Control System (ABS). B. Ground spoilers. C. Reversers. D. ABS and ground spoilers.

122. What is the difference between N1 & Thrust in an engine when taken from an airfield at sea level to an airfield that's hot and high?. A. N1 & Thrust increases. B. N1 & Thrust decreases. C. N1 increases & Thrust decreases. D. N1 decreases & Thrust increases.

123. What type of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?. A. Foam. B. Water. C. Dry powder. D. Sand.

124. Instrument approach operations are classified as?. A. Type A, Type B and circling. B. NPA and PA. C. PA, NPA and APV. D. Type A and Type B.

125. Is De-Icing fluid effective in flight?. A. Yes, it is effective both on the ground and in flight. B. Yes, but only when the aircraft is flying at high altitudes. C. No. Designed for ground use only. D. No, it is only effective during taxi and take-off.

126. What are the operating minima for a CAT II approach?. A. DH 200 ft and RVR 800 m. B. DH 200 ft and RVR 550 m. C. DH 100 ft and RVR 300 m. D. DH 100 ft and RVR 175 m.

127. What is approach ban?. A. A restriction on the number of approaches allowed at an airport. B. A minimum altitude at which pilots must start their descent during an approach. C. A minimum RVR/visibility required for pilots to continue the approach below 1,000 ft AAL (or FAF if MDH higher than 1,000 ft AAL). D. A requirement for pilots to fly an instrument approach instead of a visual approach.

128. When should you use Anti-Ice / De-Ice protection?. A. 0°C to 10°C SAT. B. +10°C to −40°C SAT. C. −10°C to −30°C SAT. D. 0°C to −20°C SAT.

129. What is the Holdover Time (HOT)?. A. The maximum time an aircraft can be parked on the ground. B. The minimum time required for de/anti-icing fluid to be effective. C. The maximum time allowed between de/anti-icing and take-off. D. The amount of time an aircraft can be airborne before refuelling.

130. Which denotes the stall speed in the landing configuration?. A. VS1. B. VS. C. VS1G. D. VSO.

131. WHEN NO TRANSPONDER CODE IS ASSIGNED OR PUBLISHED YOU SHOULD SQUAWK CODE: A. 2000. B. 3000. C. 7600. D. 0000.

132. ALL OPERATING SPEEDS IN AN AIRBUS AEROPLANE ARE EXPRESSED AS FUNCTIONS OF WHICH SPEED?. A. VS. B. VSO. C. VS1G. D. VS1.

133. THE REFERENCE STALL SPEED VS IS BASED ON A LOAD FACTOR THAT IS: A. GREATER THAN 1G. B. LESS THAN 1G. C. EQUAL TO 1G. D. NOT APPLICABLE.

134. AN AIRCRAFT IN STATE OF HIJACKED, SHALL SQUAWK?. A. 7700. B. 7600. C. 7500. D. 2000.

135. DURING AN ILS APPROACH, THE REQUIRED RATE OF DESCENT FOR A 3° GLIDE SLOPE CAN BE CALCULATED BY?. A. GS / 5. B. 5 x GS. C. 3 x GS. D. 5 x TAS.

136. WHAT IS TCAS?. A. CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROL SYSTEM. B. WEATHER INFORMATION SYSTEM. C. TRAFFIC ALERTING SYSTEM. D. ENGINE MONITORING SYSTEM.

137. MSA IS THE LOWEST ALTITUDE THAT PROVIDES AT LEAST ___ FT CLEARANCE ABOVE TERRAIN WITHIN ___ NM: A. 1500FT & 20NM. B. 1000FT & 25NM. C. 1000FT & 20NM. D. 1200FT & 25NM.

138. WHAT ARE THE CONSEQUENCES OF USING A DRY V1 ON A WET RUNWAY FOR ASD?. A. INCREASES AND RUNWAY BECOMES UNBALANCED. B. DECREASES DUE TO DRAG. C. REMAINS SAME WITH REVERSERS. D. INCREASES AND REMAINS BALANCED.

139. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM TIME PERMITTED FOR A JET ENGINE TO SPOOL UP FROM IDLE TO FULL THRUST?. A. 5SEC. B. 5–10SEC. C. 10SEC. D. 10–15SEC.

140. MIN CLIMB GRADIENT FOR A 4 ENGINE AEROPLANE IN TAKE-OFF FLIGHT IS FROM?. A. FROM GEAR RETRACTION. B. FROM VR. C. FROM SCREEN HEIGHT. D. WHEN FLAPS FULLY RETRACTED.

141. What is the purpose of the V1 speed?. The speed at which rotation begins. The speed below which take-off can be safely rejected. The minimum speed for lift-off. The maximum crosswind speed.

142. What does balanced field length mean?. Accelerate-stop distance equals accelerate-go distance. Take-off distance equals landing distance. Runway length equals TODA. ASDA equals LDA.

143. Which factor most affects take-off distance?. Wind component. Runway slope. Aircraft mass. All of the above.

144. What is the definition of VMCG?. Minimum control speed on the ground. Minimum climb speed. Minimum control speed in flight. Minimum control speed in flight.

145. What happens to stall speed when weight increases?. It decreases. It remains unchanged. It increases. It becomes unpredictable.

146. What does TODA consist of?. TORA + clearway. TORA + stopway. ASDA + clearway. LDA + clearway.

147. What is the function of slats?. Increase drag only. Increase lift at low speed. Reduce stall warning. Increase cruise efficiency.

148. Which speed is limited by structural loads?. VA. VLO. VNE. VREF.

149. What happens to engine thrust with increased temperature?. Increases. Remains constant. Decreases. Fluctuates.

150. What is the purpose of anti-skid braking?. Increase braking distance. Prevent wheel lock. Improve taxi steering. Assist thrust reversers.

151. When is braking action reported as POOR?. A. When deceleration is noticeably reduced. B. When stopping distance is increased. C. When directional control is significantly reduced. D. When braking effectiveness is unreliable.

152. What does QNH represent?. A. Altitude above sea level. B. Height above threshold. C. Pressure setting to read elevation on the ground. D. Pressure at flight level.

153. What is the standard altimeter setting in the transition layer?. A. QFE. B. QNH. C. Standard pressure 1013.25 hPa. D. Local pressure.

154. What is the purpose of anti ice systems?. A. Remove ice already formed. B. Prevent ice formation. C. Improve lift. D. Increase thrust.

155. Which condition favours carburettor icing?. A. High temperature and low humidity. B. Low temperature and low humidity. C. Moderate temperature and high humidity. D. High temperature and high pressure.

156. What does Mach number represent?. A. Aircraft speed relative to ground. B. Aircraft speed relative to air. C. Ratio of TAS to local speed of sound. D. Ratio of IAS to TAS.

157. What is the primary function of spoilers?. A. Increase lift. B. Reduce drag. C. Increase drag and reduce lift. D. Improve engine performance.

158. What is VLO?. A. Max landing gear extended speed. B. Max landing gear operating speed. C. Min control speed. D. Max flap speed.

159. What happens to stall speed when weight increases?. A. Decreases. B. Remains constant. C. Increases. D. Becomes zero.

160. Which instrument indicates aircraft pitch and bank?. A. Altimeter. B. Turn coordinator. C. Attitude indicator. D. VSI.

161. The indicated range from a DME station is?. A. Ground range. B. Zero when passing overhead the station. C. Ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR. D. Slant range.

162. What is the bypass ratio of a jet engine?. A. The ratio of the air that bypasses the engine to the air that goes through it. B. The ratio of fuel bypassing the engine. C. Ratio of thrust from bypass air. D. Pressure ratio in bypass duct.

163. What is the squawk code for loss of communications?. A. 7700. B. 7600. C. 7500. D. 7000.

164. A key difference between EGPWS and GPWS is that EGPWS: A. Is less advanced. B. Uses radio altimeter only. C. Uses terrain database and GPS. D. Is obsolete.

165. An advantage of a swept wing compared to a straight wing is: A. Lower manufacturing cost. B. Lower stall speed. C. Reduced drag at high speed. D. Better low speed handling.

166. Compared to a low tailplane, a T-tail is: A. Less affected by wing downwash. B. More affected by wing downwash. C. Always less stable. D. Always more stable.

167. The main difference between fog and mist is: A. Fog is thicker. B. Mist occurs at altitude. C. Fog forms differently. D. Fog visibility < 1000 m.

168. Thrust reversers on high bypass engines are usually: A. Clamshell type. B. Target type. C. Cold stream reversers. D. Coanda type.

169. Stable air is typically associated with: A. Stratiform clouds. B. Cumulonimbus clouds. C. Towering cumulus. D. Lenticular clouds.

170. When runway centreline lights turn solid red, runway remaining is: A. 600 m. B. 700 m. C. 300 m. D. 900 m.

171. What does the flashing white runway edge lights indicate?. A. Threshold lights. B. Runway centerline lights. C. Taxiway edge lights. D. Runway end lights.

172. What is the purpose of the clearway?. A. Reduce landing distance. B. Increase climb gradient. C. Increase accelerate-go distance. D. Reduce V1.

173. Which speed is affected by aircraft mass?. A. VMO. B. VNE. C. VA. D. VLO.

174. What is the function of a yaw damper?. A. Reduce Dutch roll. B. Reduce roll rate. C. Improve pitch stability. D. Increase stall margin.

175. What happens to stall speed when bank angle increases?. A. Decreases. B. Remains constant. C. Increases. D. Becomes zero.

176. What does a flashing red aerodrome beacon indicate?. A. Military aerodrome. B. Heliport. C. Civil land aerodrome. D. Water aerodrome.

177. Which cloud type is most likely to produce icing?. A. Cirrus. B. Cumulonimbus. C. Stratus. D. Altostratus.

178. What does squawk 7500 indicate?. A. Radio failure. B. Hijacking. C. Emergency. D. Unlawful interference resolved.

179. What happens to TAS when climbing at constant IAS?. A. Decreases. B. Remains constant. C. Increases. D. Becomes Mach limited.

180. Which document defines aircraft limitations?. A. AIP. B. MEL. C. AFM. D. OM-A.

181. What is included in payload?. A. Passenger, cargo, baggage and mail. B. Cargo and passenger. C. Baggage and cargo. D. Passenger, cargo, baggage and special equipment.

182. In a gas turbine engine, the Inlet Guide Vanes (IGV): A. Direct the airflow at the optimal angle to the compressor’s first stage. B. Increase the velocity of the air entering the compressor. C. Direct the airflow at the optimal angle into the diffuser. D. Reduce the velocity of the air entering the combustion section.

183. The difference between IAS and TAS will: A. Increase at decreasing temperature. B. Increase at increasing air density. C. Decrease at increasing speed. D. Decrease at decreasing altitude.

184. The critical speed where the speed is too low and too high at the same time is called: A. Coffin Corner. B. High Speed Buffet. C. MCRT. D. Supersonic.

185. What determines the maximum operating altitude of an aircraft?. A. Aerodynamic performance. B. Engine performance. C. Structural considerations. D. The lowest of aerodynamic ceiling, thrust limited ceiling, and absolute ceiling.

186. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?. A. Reduce spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent lock-out. B. Reduce spin-up time and accuracy not adversely affected by g. C. Increase accuracy and a dither motor to prevent lock-out. D. Insensitivity to g and reduced wander of the gyroscope.

187. An aircraft that is assessed as TA would be indicated on a TCAS system as: A. White triangle. B. Open diamond. C. Filled diamond. D. Yellow circle.

188. The GPWS uses inputs from: A. The radio altimeter and the ILS receiver. B. The radio altimeter, the ILS receiver, the Air Data Computers and the landing gear position indicators. C. The radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators. D. The radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the Captain's ILS receiver, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators.

189. When holding below FL180 with no turbulence, unless specifically notified, the correct speed would be: A. 220 kts. B. 265 kts. C. 230 kts. D. 240 kts.

190. What is the effect of engine bleed air for air conditioning and anti-ice on takeoff performance?. A. Take-off performance is improved. B. Take-off performance remains unchanged. C. Take-off performance is reduced. D. Take-off performance is unaffected.

191. What happens to specific fuel consumption with altitude?. A. It remains constant. B. It increases. C. It decreases. D. It fluctuates unpredictably.

192. If True Airspeed (TAS) is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots, what is the Mach number?. A. Mach 0.72. B. Mach 0.80. C. Mach 0.96. D. Mach 1.25.

193. If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: A. Require increased tailplane force which increases aerodynamic drag. B. Require reduced tailplane force which reduces aerodynamic drag. C. Require less power for a given airspeed. D. Tend to over rotate during take-off.

194. How does temperature affect the LSS?. A. As temperature decreases, LSS increases. B. As temperature decreases, LSS decreases. C. As temperature increases, LSS decreases. D. Temperature has no effect on LSS.

195. Where is the transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?. A. 45 N. B. North Pole. C. 45 S. D. Equator.

196. The errors of an INS fall into 3 categories: A. Bounded, unbounded and inherent. B. Bounded, unbounded and velocity. C. Coriolis, unbounded and inherent. D. Bounded, unbounded and accelerometer.

197. What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?. A. Reduced spin-up time and insensitivity to 'g'. B. Increased accuracy and a dither motor to prevent 'lock-out'. C. Insensitivity to 'g' and reduced wander of the gyroscopes. D. Reduced spin-up time and a dither motor to prevent 'lock-out'.

198. Why does the Airbus have a tail tank?. A. To store additional cargo during flights. B. To manage the aircraft's CG. C. To provide extra fuel for emergency situation. D. To manage the aircraft's CP.

199. MSA is the lowest altitude that provides at least ____ ft clearance above terrain within ____ NM from an airport or a radio fix?. A. 700 ft / 45 NM. B. 1000 ft / 45 NM. C. 1200 ft / 25 NM. D. 1000 ft / 25 NM.

200. What is MORA?. A. Minimum Obstacle Rescue Altitude. B. Maximum Operating Runway Altitude. C. Minimum Off-route Altitude. D. Maximum Operational Range Altitude.

201. On a flight from Athens to Madrid, a correct flight level would be?. A. Odd FL. B. Even FL. C. Any FL. D. Initially odd and then even FL.

202. The distance A to B is 90 NM in a straight line. You are 60 NM from A when you fix your position 4 NM to the left of track. What correction do you need to make to arrive at B?. A. 4°. B. 8°. C. 12°. D. 10°.

203. If the maximum fuel of the Airbus 310 is 48.8 tonnes at a fuel specific gravity of 0.80, what will be the capacity at a fuel SG of 0.75?. A. 52.0 T. B. 29.2 T. C. 47.7 T. D. 36.6 T.

204. What is the difference between ASDA and TODA?. A. The LDA. B. The TORR. C. A clearway. D. A stopway.

205. Adding a clearway will: A. Increase MTOW & increase V1. B. Decrease MTOW & decrease V1. C. Increase MTOW & decrease V1. D. Decrease MTOW & increase V1.

206. What are the engines on an Emirates A380?. A. GE GE90-115B. B. GP7270. C. RR Trent 972. D. GP7270 and RR Trent 972.

207. What are the engines on an Emirates B777?. A. GE GE90-115B. B. GP7270. C. RR Trent 972. D. GP7270 and RR Trent 972.

208. An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft above mean sea level. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?. A. 222 nm. B. 175 nm. C. 198 nm. D. 210 nm.

209. An aircraft flying at FL350 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 0 ft above mean sea level. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?. A. 222 nm. B. 229 nm. C. 198 nm. D. 210 nm.

210. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: A. 45 minutes at cruising speed. B. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1 500 ft. C. 30 minutes at cruising speed. D. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1 500 ft.

211. What is the correct response to a TCAS RA?. A. Follow ATC instructions as these override TCAS RAs. B. Request permission to manoeuvre from ATC. C. Smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands and inform ATC. D. Inform ATC and smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands.

212. What is taken into account in choosing the optimal level of cruise?. A. Temperature, weight, wind, fuel, cost index, CG position. B. Weight, wind, fuel, cost index, CG position. C. Temperature, weight, wind, fuel, CG position. D. Temperature, weight, wind, fuel, cost index.

213. INS navigation is with reference to: A. Inertial Mass. B. Inertial Space. C. Inertial Motion. D. Inertial Momentum.

214. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: A. It is dark. B. The runway is wet. C. Obstacles are present close to the end of the runway. D. The runway is contaminated.

215. The second segment begins?. A. When landing gear is fully retracted. B. When flap retraction begins. C. When flaps are selected up. D. When acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

216. The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet: A. Decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude. B. Narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude. C. Increases with increasing mass. D. Is only limiting at low altitudes.

217. Which speed limit is most likely to be exceeded first as a jet aeroplane descends with a constant Mach number?. A. Maximum Operational Mach Number. B. Maximum Operational Speed. C. Never Exceed speed. D. High Speed Buffet Limit.

218. Which factor will reduce V1?. A. Failure of the flight management system. B. Higher outside air temperature. C. Failure of the anti-skid system. D. Increased take-off weight.

219. Assuming ISA conditions, descending at a constant Mach number: A. TAS needs to be increased. B. TAS will initially increase, then decrease. C. TAS needs to be reduced. D. TAS needs to be constant.

220. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?. A. When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines. B. The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative. C. VR may not be lower than V1. D. V1 may not be higher than Vmcg.

221. The symptoms of windshear may include: A. Loss of altitude, airframe buffet, a high rate of descent combined with excessive pitch attitudes. B. A significant change of airspeed, divergence from the required flight path, normal control inputs insufficient to maintain the flight path. C. Loss of airspeed, increasing rate of descent and pre-stall buffet. D. None of the above.

222. After landing on a dry runway which is the most effective retardation device?. A. The airbrakes / spoilers. B. Reverse thrust. C. The antiskid brakes. D. All of the above.

223. Fuel Jettison when required can be carried out?. A. At 10,000 feet AGL and preferably over the sea. B. At 7,000 feet AGL in winter and 4,000 feet AGL in summer. C. All of the above.

224. When the planned route is via an ADIZ you are required to?. A. In some cases call ATC prior to entry and obtain an Air Defence Clearance number. B. Call ATC on entering ADIZ. C. Comply with the specific conditions and instructions as prescribed by the relevant state. D. All of the above.

225. At 900 feet on a manually flown ILS approach you notice the aircraft has dropped below the glidepath. Would you?. A. Verbally warn the handling pilot, monitor the response and look for a correction. B. Verbally warn the handling pilot and take control immediately. C. Verbally warn the handling pilot, increase thrust and lightly cover the controls. D. Say my controls and fly the ILS approach.

226. Optimum altitude normally provides a buffet margin of?. A. 1.45 g. B. 1.3 g. C. 1.35 g. D. 2.0 g.

227. When flying in RVSM airspace utilising the semi-circular rule what is the lowest RVSM flight level on a track of 270°?. A. FL 250. B. FL 290. C. FL 300. D. FL 180.

228. Which of the following masses are considered to be part of the payload of an aircraft?. A. Passengers, cargo, mail, catering, reserve and contingency fuel. B. Passengers, cargo, mail, reserve fuel and baggage. C. Passengers, baggage, cargo, and mail. D. Only passengers and fuel.

229. After landing in rain on a runway promulgated as slippery when wet your aircraft starts to diverge from the runway centreline. What action do you take to stop the drift?. A. Cancel reverse thrust. B. Use full opposite rudder to control the drift. C. Use differential reverse thrust until nosewheel steering becomes effective. D. Use maximum braking.

230. Taxiway lighting consists of?. A. Green centre line lights with blue edge lighting. B. Green centre line lights with green edge lights on corners. C. White centre line lights with red edge lights on corners.

231. To accelerate from idle to full thrust a typical turbofan engine will take about?. A. 4 seconds. B. 8 seconds. C. 12 seconds. D. 13 seconds.

232. On the runway taking off in a strong crosswind from the right a swept wing jet airliner will tend to?. A. Yaw (weather vane) to the right. B. Yaw (weather vane) to the left. C. Drift off the centreline downwind. D. Aircraft will remain on centreline.

233. An aircraft flies through the base of an active cumulonimbus cloud. The pilot might expect it to experience?. A. A strong updraught only under the cloud base. B. A downdraft followed by an updraught and then another downdraft. C. An updraught followed by a downdraft and then another updraught. D. None of the above.

234. Engine icing is most likely to occur: A. At any time when the OAT is 1°C or below. B. When flying in visible moisture. C. When visible moisture is present and TAT is 10°C or below. D. When visible moisture is present and TAT is 15°C or below.

235. Ice contamination of the wing upper and lower surface may cause?. A. A reduction in stall margins and possible poor lateral control on take-off. B. A loss of lift and pitch control on the ground. C. An increase in calculated thrust setting. D. All of the above.

236. In calm winter conditions in NW Europe dense fog is cleared most effectively by?. A. A change of airmass. B. Solar radiation. C. An increase in wind speed. D. A decrease in wind speed.

237. While holding you notice fuel has fallen below company minimum reserve. What action would you take?. A. Declare fuel emergency and set transponder 7600. B. Declare an emergency and request assistance from ATC. C. Advise ATC and divert immediately. D. All of the above.

238. Speed / Airbrakes are most effective?. A. On the runway after touchdown. B. In landing configuration. C. In a rapid descent from high altitude. D. In a shallow descent.

239. When dealing with a complex emergency the first officer should?. A. Carry out all Captain’s orders without discussion. B. Carry out only SOP-compliant orders. C. Discuss any unclear or confusing orders with the Captain. D. Fly the aircraft and let Captain decide.

240. Approximately how far will a jet airliner travel descending clean from FL370 to FL070?. A. 100 nm / 176 km. B. 75 nm / 132 km. C. 50 nm / 88 km. D. 120 nm / 220 km.