ATPL RAD NAV TEST ASTANA

The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with: Narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width. High power output and large parabolic reflector. Wide beamwidth and large pulse width. Low frequency and small parabolic reflector.

The ILS glide slope transmitter generates false glide paths because of: Reflections from obstacles in the vicinity of the transmitter. Ground returns from the vicinity of the transmitter. Multiple Lobes in the radiation pattern. Back scattering of the signals.

An error applicable to VDF would be: Selective availability. Synchronous transmission. Scalloping. Garbling.

The principle of operation of VOR is: Bearing by searchlight principle. Bearing by Lobe comparison. Bearing by frequency comparison. Bearing by phase comparison.

Which picture shows the MAP display?. Diagram A. Diagram F. Diagram C. Diagram B.

During flight a pilot notices that the aircraft ANP is greater than the RNP. This is an indication that the aircraft accuracy (1) within acceptable limits, as accuracy is the conformance between the required aircraft position and its (2) position. (1) is not; (2) desired. (1) is not; (2) true. (1) is; (2) desired. (1) is; (2) true.

A full MLS system comprises a DME and: 2 elements using 2 frequencies. 2 elements multiplexing on one frequency. 4 elements multiplexing on one frequency. 4 elements multiplexing on 2 frequencies.

The phase difference measured at the aircraft from a VOR is 235°. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is: 145°. 235°. 055°. 325°.

The SSR code to select when the aircraft is being unlawfully interfered with is: 7400. 7600. 7500. 7700.

The definition of a radar display will be best with: Narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth. Wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth. Wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth. Narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth.

A crew is flying a PBN approach using GNSS, and the navigation system shows the Estimated Position Error (EPE). The EPE is... The distance between the GNSS position and calculated actual position. The correction applied to position when using an augmentation system. Calculated in the control segment and broadcast on the navigation message. Calculated by using a statistical model of position error probabilities.

Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on both the localizer and the glide path. The indications the pilot will see are: Fly right and fly down. Fly left and fly down. Fly left and fly up. Fly right and fly up.

A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This radar will be: An area surveillance radar. A terminal area radar. An aerodrome surface movement radar. An aerodrome surveillance radar.

The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft AMSL can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is: 224 NM. 238 NM. 276 NM. 200 NM.

Refer to picture A. What is the deviation from the required track?. 8° left. 8° right. 3 NM right. 3 NM left.

Which of the following PBN approaches is a non-precision instrument approach procedure designed for 2D approach operations?. RNP APCH to LNAV minima. RNP APCH to LNAV / VNAV minima. RNP GLS. RNP LVP.

The model of the earth used for GPS is: PZ90. WGS9 0. PZ84. WGS 84.

An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are: Side lobes removed. 360° scan without any rotation requirement. Higher data rate possible. Less power required.

The principle error in GNSS is: SV ephemeris error. GDOP. Ionospheric propagation. receiver clock error.

Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?. The principle of the return of echoes is not used. Moving target indication is used to suppress the static generated by water droplets. The frequencies are too low to detect water droplets. The frequencies are too high to detect water droplets.

If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look for replies on: 1136 MHz. 1030 MHz. 1090 MHz. 1262 MHz.

Refer to picture C. What is the symbol designated DFC which is coloured cyan?. An available VORTAC. An available NDB. An in-use VORTAC. An in-use NDB.

What can a PBN system NOT be based on?. IRU. DME/DME. GPS. NDB/DME.

Primary radar operates on the principle of: Phase comparison. Pulse technique. Transponder interrogation. Continuous wave emission.

Determine which of the following statements concerning atmospheric ionization are correct 1. The highest levels of ionization will be experienced in Low latitudes 2. Ionization levels increase Linearly with increasing altitude 3. The lowest Levels of ionization occur about midnight 4. The E-layer is higher by night than by day because the ionization levels are lower at night. Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statements 2 and 4 are correct. Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in: Red. Blue. Yellow. Amber.

Refer to picture D. What is the required track?. 157°. 130°. 165°. 173°.

The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on _____ and receives responses on _____: 1030 MHz 1090 MHz. 1030 MHz 1030 MHz. 1090 MHz 1030 MHz. 1090 MHz 1090 MHz.

On an ILS approach you receive more of the 150 Hz modulation than the 90 Hz modulation. The action you should take is: Fly left and down. Fly left and up. Fly right and up. Fly right and down.

A DME recognizes replies to its own interrogating pulses because: Each aircraft has a different time interval within the pulses pairs which is replicated by the transponder. The PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered. The transponder uses a selective reply system to respond to the aircraft interrogation pulses. Each pulse pair has its own unique modulation which is replicated by the transponder.

EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in _____ and broadcasting these errors to receivers using _____. X, Y & Z coordinates pseudolites. SV range pseudolites. X, Y & Z coordinates geostationary satellites. SV range geostationary satellites.

The main advantage of a slotted scanner is: Reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam. Side lobe suppression. Can produce simultaneous map and weather information. Removes the need for azimuth slaving.

The frequency of AWR is: 937.5 MHz. 9375 GHz. 93.75 GHz. 9375 MHz.

The principle of operation of the ILS Localizer transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes on: Different frequencies with different phases. The same frequency with different phases. The same frequency with different amplitude modulations. Different frequencies with different amplitude modulations.

The altitude read-out at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within: 300 ft. 50 ft. 100 ft. 500 ft.

The frequency band of the ILS glide path is: UHF. VHF. SHF. VLF.

The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to: WG584 datum. 1013.25 hPa. QNH unless QFE is in use. QNH.

Refer to picture F. What is the track from BANTU to ZAPPO?. 130°(M). 360° (M). 130° (T). 360 (T).

The best radar for measuring very short ranges is: A continuous wave secondary radar. A pulsed secondary radar. A continuous wave primary radar. A pulsed primary radar.

The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to: All of the above. Pass navigation and system data to the receiver. Identify the satellites. Synchronize the receiver clocks with the SV clocks.

The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is: Ducted wave. Sky wave. Direct wave. Surface wave.

The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are: Space, control, ground. Space, ground, air. Space, control, user. Space, control, air.

The coverage of MLS is _____ either side of the centre line to a distance of _____: ±40° 40-50 NM. ±20° 20-30 NM. ±40° 20-30 NM. ±20° 40-50 NM.

The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is: Under the fuselage. In the fin. On the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver. On top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity.

The PRN codes are used to: Determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and receipt of the signal at the receiver. Synchronize the receiver clocks with the satellites clocks. Determine the range of the satellites from the receiver. Pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers.

The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which: Combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term accuracy of the IRS. Produces a long term accuracy from the short term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS. Produces a long term accuracy from the short term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS. Combines the short term accuracy of the external reference with the long term accuracy of the IRS.

The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is: Close to each wing tip to compensate for manoeuvre errors. On the aircraft as far as possible from other aerials to reduce reflections. On the fuselage close to the centre of gravity. In the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver.

According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is: One which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems or a combination of the two. One which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only. One which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems but not a combination of the two. One which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits of self- contained on-board systems.

The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect: Moderate rain. Snow. Wet hail. Dry hail.

The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are: A phase-compared signal. Omni-directional. A frequency modulated continuous wave (FMCW). A cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation rate.

Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?. Millimetric pulse. Continuous wave primary. Centimetric pulse. Continuous wave secondary.

The azimuth coverage of a 3° glide path is: +/-10° to 25 NM. +/-35° to 17 NM. +1-10° to 8 NM. +/-8° to 10 NM.

A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to: A RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. A RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. A RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. A RVR of 300 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

The VDF term meaning 'true bearing from the station' is: QDR. QUJ. QDM. QTE.

The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from: A coastal beacon at an acute angle. A coastal beacon perpendicular to the coast. An inland beacon at an acute angle. An inland beacon perpendicular to the coast.

In SSR the aircraft replies on _____ MHz and the ground station interrogates on _____ MHz. 1030 1030. 1090 1090. 1030 1090. 1090 1030.

For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying _____ from the beacon: North. East. South. West.

SBAS is required to comply with the PBN specifications for RNP approaches down to: Type B CAT Il minima. Baro-VNAV minima. Baro-VNAV minima. LPV minima.

At a range of 200 NM from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centre line is the aircraft?. 1.75 NM. 1 NM. 7 NM. 0.35 NM.

The coverage of the ILS glide slope with respect to the Localizer centre line is: +/-10° to 8 NM. +/-10° to 25 NM. +/-35° to 17 NM. +/-8° to 10 NM.

The advantages of SSR mode S are: Data link, reduced voice communications. TCAS, no RT communications. Better resolution, selective interrogation. Improved resolution, TCAS.

The number of SVs required to produce a 3D fix is: 6. 4. 5. 3.

If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation. This download will take: 2.5 minutes. 15 minutes. 12.5 minutes. 25 minutes.

The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of _____ SVs. 5. 4. 3. 6.

The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of _____ SVs. 800 ft. 900 ft. 1050 ft. 1500 ft.

An aircraft is 100 NM SW of a VOR heading 080°. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is _____ and the CDI indications will be: 030, TO, Fly Right. 210, FROM, Fly Left. 210, FROM Fly Right. 030, TO, Fly Left.

The Doppler effect is: The change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and receiver. The change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver. The change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter. The change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver.

Which of the following systems use pulse technique? 1. secondary surveillance radar 2. airborne weather radar 3. distance measuring equipment 4. primary radar. 2 only. All the above. 1 and 3 only. 2 and 4 olny.

The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by: PRF. PW. Power. beamwidth.

An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61°N 013°W to 58°N 013°W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on?. 005. 013. 193. 187.

The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs include: Position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error. Satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error. Satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information. Ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z coordinates and corrections, satellite clock time and error.

The AWR operating frequency is: 9375 GHz. 93.75 GHz. 9375 MHz. 937.5 MHz.

Consider PBN operations. One advantage of navigating using computed data, compared to raw data, is that the area navigation system will... Check the validity and in some cases consistency of sensor data before use. Give a more accurate position, regardless of the sensor data that is being used. Provide 3D navigation for the whole route. Only use data from one sensor for navigation.

The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL240 is 250 NM from a VOR at 16 ft AMSL which he selects. He receives no signal from the VOR. This is because: The range of VOR is limited to 200 NM. There are abnormal atmospheric conditions. The aircraft is beyond Line-of-sight range. The VOR is unserviceable.

When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the _____ should be used for VOR and at the _____ for ADF: Station station. Station aircraft. Aircraft station. Aircraft aircraft.

An NDB has emission designator NONA1A this will require the use of the BFO for: Identification. Tuning. Tuning, identification and monitoring. Identification and monitoring.

The ADF error which will cause the needle to 'hunt' (i.e. oscillate around the correct bearing) is: CB static. Night effect. Coastal refraction. Station interference.

The use of the AWR on the ground is: Permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment. Only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions. Permitted provided reduced power is used. Not permitted.

Distance on MLS is measured by: Co-Located DME. Measuring the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver. Phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams. Measuring the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver.

What are the ground components of MLS?. Combined azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers. Separate azimuth and elevation antennae with DME. Combined azimuth and elevation antennae with DME. Separate azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers.

A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of: ± 2°. ±- 5°. ± 10°. ± 1°.

When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on the CDI will be: No localizer signal and in the correct sense for glide path. Erratic on the localizer and in the correct sense on the glide path. In the correct sense for the localizer and no glide path signal. Erratic on both localizer and glide path.

Doppler operates on the principle that _____ between a transmitter and receiver will cause the received frequency to _____ if the transmitter and receiver are moving. Relative motion, decrease, apart. Relative motion, increase, apart. Apparent motion, decrease, together. The distance, increase, at the same speed.

The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is: Secondary CW radar. Primary CW radar. Secondary pulsed radar. Primary pulsed radar.

The AWR frequency is selected because it gives: Good returns from turbulence. Good penetration of cloud. Good returns from water droplets. Good returns from water vapour.

The coverage of the approach azimuth and elevation of a MLS is: +/-40° to 20 NM. +/-20° to 40 NM. +/-40° to 40 NM. +/-20° to 20 NM.

NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by: Regular auto-synchronization with the satellite clocks. Having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver. Adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error. Synchronization with the satellite clocks on initialization.

The navigation database in a PBN approved receiver is usually valid for?. 28 days. 30 days. 56 days. One calendar month.

The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises: 24 satellites in 6 orbits. 24 satellites in 3 orbits. 21 satellites in 6 orbits. 30 satellites in 6 orbits.

RNP 0.3 might be used: In all phases of flight except for the final approach phase. In all phases of flight except for en-route oceanic/remote and en-route continental. In all phases of flight. In all phases of flight except for en-route oceanic/remote and final approach phases.

If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then: The beacons are between 600 m and 6 NM apart. The transmitters are co-located. The transmitters are within 600 m. The transmitters are in excess of 6 NM apart.

MLS has 200 channels available in the frequency band: 329 - 335 MHz. 5031 - 5090 MHz. 108 - 112 MHz. 960 - 1215 MHz.

The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is 925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is: 150 NM. 75 NM. 37.5 NM. 300 NM.

The accuracy of ADF may be affected by: Night effect, tropospheric propagation, quadrantal error. Static interference, siting errors, slant range. Angle of bank, mountain effect, station interference. Angle of bank, static from CB, siting errors.

If the signal from an SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre: The receiver will select another SV with no loss in accuracy. The receiver will go into a DR mode with no loss of accuracy. The receiver will compensate by using the last calculated altitude to maintain positional accuracy. The receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken.

The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is: +/-1°. +/-2°. +/-10°. +/-5°.

In which band does the ILS glide path operate?. Centimetric. Metric. Decimetric. Hectometric.

If two targets happen to be within half pulse width, they will be illuminated simultaneously by the pulse and return only a single echo to the receiver The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is: Permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing. Smaller more compact equipment. More complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy. Removes the minimum range restriction.

The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is _____ and it illuminates the _____ light in the cockpit. 1300 Hz amber. 1300 Hz blue. 400 Hz blue. 400 Hz amber.

Basic Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) of GNSS signals requires (1) satellites with good geometry. For Fault Detection and Exclusion (FDE) (2) satellites are required. (1) five (2) six. (1) six (2) seven. (1) three (2) four. (1) four (2) five.

The navigation database in an FMC: Can only be read by the flight crew. Can be modified every 28 days. Can be modified by the flight crew to meet the route requirements. Cannot be accessed by the flight crew.

The most accurate external reference position will be provided by: VOR/DME. Twin DME. Twin VOR. Suitable combination of VOR and DME.

The middle marker is usually Located at a range of _____ with an audio frequency of _____ and illuminates the _____ light. 4-6 NM 1300 Hz white. 1 km 400 Hz amber. 1 km 400 Hz white. 1 km1300 Hz amber.

For PBN operations, what is the difference between fly-by waypoints and fly-over waypoints?. For fly-by waypoints, the turn is commenced prior to reaching the waypoint, and for fly-over waypoints the turn is commenced when overhead the waypoint. Fly-by waypoints use turn anticipation whereas fly-over waypoints require the pilot to turn 30 seconds before or after reaching the waypoint. For fly-by waypoints, the turn to the next course is commenced when overhead the waypoint, and for fly-over waypoints the turn is commenced prior to reaching the waypoint. Fly-over waypoints use turn anticipation but fly-by waypoints do not.

RNAV 1 and RNP 1 are used?. In all phases of flight except en route oceanic/remote. Only in the departure phase of flight. Only in the arrival phase of flight. In the arrival and departure phases of flight.

RNAV 5 is used in?. The en-route continental and arrival phases of flight. En-route oceanic/remote phases of flight. The departure phase of flight. All phases of flight except approach phases.

ADF quadrantal error is caused by: NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path. Station interference and/or night effect. Static build-up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire. The aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB transmissions.