Air conditioning packs are installed Both in the left landing gear faring Both in the RH landing gear faring One in each landing gear faring.
Wich PACK is the primary supplier of cockpit air? Left Right There is no priority.
What happens to excess air from the left pack? It is vented overboard. It is used to supply the cabin. It is used for cargo ventilation.
The OVBD valve override CTL Switch on auto, the OVBD valve function of: The exhaust mode PB position. The aircraft condition (flight or ground, ENG 1 running or not). All of the above is correct.
When the avionics vent system extract fan should stop? For 120 seconds during a start sequence and when OVBD is selected on EXHAUST MODE PUSH-BUTTOM. For 60 seconds during a start sequence and when OVBD is selected on EXHAUST MODE PUSH-BUTTOM. For 90 seconds during a start sequence and when OVBD is selected on EXHAUST MODE PUSH-BUTTOM.
Aircraft in flight, or on ground two engines running, waht are the normal positions of the OVBD and under floor valves? OVBD fully closed, UNDERFLOOR fully closed. OVBD fully closed, UNDERFLOOR fully open. OVBD fully open, UNDERFLOOR fully closed.
The CCAS system is activated when the cabin altitudes reaches: 6740 ft. 11000 ft. 10000 ft.
When is the DUMP function available? On ground only, MAN or AUTO PRESS mode. It only works in AUTO PRESS mode. It only works in AUTO PRESS mode, if differential pressure is below 1 PSI.
The air conditioning air bleed valves are: Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated. Electrically operated. Pneumatically controlled.
The air conditioning bleed air is supplied by: Always by engine LP stage Always by engine HP stage. Generally supplied by LP stage, but if the air is not sufficient air surge is automatically switched to the engine HP stage (descent flight idle, ground operation).
To extinguish MASTER WARNING or MASTER CAUTION it´s necessary: To press corresponding light. To perform the necesary corrective action. To press CLR push buttom on the CAP.
Can you extinguish all CAP lights by presing CLR push bottom? Yes. Yes, only for the amber lights. Yes, for the red and amber lights, except PRKG BRK, GPWS FAULT, CCAS and MAINT PNL. Yes, for the amber lights, except PRKG BRK, GPWS FAULT, CCAS and MAINT PNL.
The MFC is operative as soon as: Battery is switched ON. Battery is switched ON and the modules self test is completed. DC BUS 1 or 2 are powered. None of them are correct.
Once the starter generator has started the engine, it operates in the generator mode when passing: NH 35% NH 61.5% NH 70%.
What is the nominal voltage of the DC generators? 115 Volt 26 Volt 28.5 Volt.
A/C on ground, engines running DC EXT PWR available on line: DC EXT PWR has no priority over ENG DC GEN. DC EXT PWR has priority over ENG DC GEN. The first on line has priority.
Wich push buttom must be pushed on the AFCS control panel to intercept and track VOR radial? APP NAV BC.
In APP mode (LOC and GS arm), wich push buttom must be pushed on the AFCS Control Panel to intercept and follow the GS? The GS will be captured automatically in any case. The GS will be captured automatically after LOC capture. After LOC capture you have to press APP PB again.
What is the function of the BANK push bottom on the AFCS control panel? The alternate selections of the bank angle in the HDG SEL or in VOR and LOC capture mode. The alternate selections of HI bank angle limit (27 max) or a LO bank limit (15 max) in the HDG SEL only. The manual control of the bank angle, in the HDG SEL only through the touch control steering (TCS).
Nacelle overheat monitoring: Is provided for both engines on the ground. Includes automatic shutdown. Includes automatic extinguishing. Is provided for the right engine on the ground.
The fire bottle squibs are armed: When the associated fire handle is pulled. At all times electrical power is available. By the fire detection control unit automatically whenever a fire is detected. If the DISCH lights are illuminated when fire is detected.
When the ENG 2 FIRE handle has been pulled, in what order would the white SQUIB lights illuminate in the related AGENT push buttons? AGENT 1 push button first followed by AGENT 2 push button after agent 1 has been discharged. AGENT 2 push button first followed by AGENT 1 push button after agent 2 has been discharged. Both SQUIB lights illuminate simultaneusly until the selected bottle has been discharged. They will not illuminate until they are discharged.
Following failure of the normal TAS input to AHRS 1, TAS information from the opposite ADC is feed to the AHRS automatically by ASCB True. False.
Failure of TAS inputs from which of the following sources should cause an AUTO ERECT FAIL push button to illuminate? ADC 1 ADC 2 Both ADCs.
AHRS 1 normally supplies SGU 1 and AHRS 2 normally supplies SGU 2. Since pitch, roll and heading information from the two AHRS units are constantly compared, what happens if the data is found to be in disagreement? PIT, ROL, ATT and/or HDG is displayed on the EADI. EFIS COMP light illuminates on the CAP. Autopilot disengages for any detected error except HDG. Autopilot disengages for any AHRS malfunction. The aircraft will roll and/or pitch randomly.
An ADC 1 failure is detected by: Red flags on CPT flight instruments and MASTER CAUTION. Red flags on CPT flight instruments, lost of information on TAS/TAT SAT indicator. Red flags on CPT flight instruments, AHRS 1 failure and lost of information on TAS/TAT SAT indicator.
Aircraft on ground on external power, flight recorder operations: FLIGHT RECORDER is OFF until one engine is started. FLIGHT RECORDER can be energized by selecting ON the RCDR PB and de-energized by pushing the reset PB. FLIGHT RECORDER is OFF until two engines are started. FLIGHT RECORDER is OFF until AC is available.
SPLR lights illuminates to indicate: Associated spoiler has failed. Associated spoiler is in the retracted position. Associated spoiler in not in the retracted position.
In flight control is achieved by: Two ailerons. Two ailerons each one with an automatic tab. Two ailerons each one with an automatic tab and two spoilers.
If one control column is jammed: Pitch uncoupling procedure allows the other channel to operate one elevator. Pitch uncoupling procedure allows the other channel to operate the two elevators. An automatic pitch uncoupling allows the other channel to operate the two elevators.
The electric pump and the jet pump are located: Both in a feeder compartment to protect against uncovering the pumps in case of vertical or lateral loads. Both in each main wing tank lower position. Electrical pump in lower position, jet pump in upper position of the main wing tank.
When does the jet's "motive flow valve" open? Anytime the related PUMP PUSH-BUTTON is IN (depressed). Anytime the related PUMP PUSH-BUTTON is IN (depressed), and pressure from the HMU is sufficient to open it. Whenever the electric pump is weak.
At take off power, how many engines can one electric pump supply? Only one. Both engines. Jet pump supply is necessary for take-off.
The hydraulic fluis is contained in: Two separated tanks (BLUE in the LH landing gear fairing, GREEN in the RH landing gear fairing). A single common pressurized tank located in the hydraulic bay (LH landing gear fairing). A single common not pressurized tank, divided in two compartments BLUE and GREEN, located in the hydraulic bay (LH landing gear fairing).
What is the normal accumulator pre-charge pressure on the three gauges near the left main gear bay: 800 PSI 1500 PSI 3000 PSI.
Each hydraulic system is mainly pressurized by means of: An engine driven pump. An ACW electrical pump. An alternate pump.
Landing gear normal operations: The main gear wheels are braked automatically as soon as the lever is selected up. As soon as the gear is locked at its selected position, hydraulic pressure is released. All of the above are correct.
To consider the gear down, 3 green lights must be illuminated on: Both, overhead and central instrument panels. Either, overhead or central instrument panel. One panel only, the central instrument panel only.
Anti-Skid touch down protection (all brakes released even with pedals depressed) is available during wheel spin-up up to many knots or number of seconds, whichever occurs first. 20 KTS or 3 seconds. 35 KTS or 5 seconds. 28 KTS or 6 seconds. 31 KTS or 7 seconds.
The EEC function is: To provide up trim in case of engine failure during take-off, and ensure, at a given engine rating, a constant PL position. To control, at low thrust level, and low speed, a constant propeller speed (for instance on ground). All of the above is correct.
The ITT alert light illuminate Amber and the CCAS is activated when ITT exceeds: 800ºC 820ºC 840ºC.
During go around with two engines operating, the ATPCS: Is armed because torque is above 53%. Is armed, provided that the PWR MGT selector is set at TO position, but only for auto feathering. Is not armed.
When selecting CRANK on the engine panel, the igniters are energized: With CL at fuel shut-off position. With CL at a position different than fuel shut-off. Never.
How do you shut-off, normally, the engine fuel supply? By the PL. By the CL. By the HP fuel pump.
What happens if the blue HYD pressure is lost during hotel mode operation? Propeller brake remains engaged. Propeller brake is released. Propeller brake is unsafe and PROP BRK UNLK WARNING is activated.
Is it possible to use propeller brake in flight? Yes, always. No. Yes, but only in case of over-speed.
Aircraft ice protection is provided by: Pneumatic system only. Electrical system only. Electrical heating and pneumatic system.
Anti icing electrical heating is provided mainly by ACW current for: Propeller blades, windshields and probes only. Propeller blades, windshields, probes and flight controls horns. Propeller blades, windshields, probes, engine air intakes.
On the de-icing panel, the airframe air bleed PB. Must be IN, no OFF light, in order to operate engine and wing stabilizer boots. Can be OFF, OFF light on, in order to operate engine boots (engine de-icing selected ON). A+B are correct.
The purpose of "airframe air bleed" PB: To control DE-ICE and ISOLATION VALVES normal operation, PB pressed both DE-ICE and ISOLATION VALVES are open. To permit a detection of an ENGINE or AIRFRAME DE-ICE SYSTEM failures. A+B are correct.
The selection of airflow NORMAL/HIGH from packs is: Automatic, depending of PL position. Automatic, depending of cabin air temperature. Manual, in any case.
What happens when the PACK FLOW push-button is IN, HIGH illuminates? The re-circulation fans start (if the buttons are IN). The re-circulation fans continue to run, but a higher speed. Both pack valves are controlled to allow approximately twice the normally regulated pressure (30 instead 17 PSI).
The temperature control valve is: Controlled in automatic mode by the electronic temperature controller. Controlled in manual mode by the COMP TEMP SELECTOR. Controlled in automatic mode by the COMP TEMP SELECTOR. Controlled in manual mode by the electronic temperature controller. Controlled in automatic mode by the pneumatic temperature controller. Controlled in manual mode by COMP TEMP SELECTOR.
Exhaust mode FAULT push button is illuminated in case of OVBD valve position dissagreement with associated control. Fan failure of over temperature and CCAS is activated. U/F valve position disagrees with associated control.
When should the exhaust mode push/button be set on OVBD In case of an extract fan failure on ground. In case of an extract fan failure in flight. For all ground operations.
In flight with an extract fan failure, avionics ventilation can be performed by selecting OVBD exhaust mode push-button. This assertion is correct, regardless the OVRD valve position Correct assertion, provided the OVBD valve is on auto position. Correct assertion, provided diff. Pressure is below 1 PSI.
How high above the take-off elevation cab the aircraft be operated without cancelling the automatic return feature? 1500 ft 2500 ft 3500 ft.
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure? 6.35 -0.5 1.
What happens, in absence of air pressure, with engine bleed selected ON? Bleed valve stays open. Bleed valve closed automatically. Bleed valve must be closed manually.
To provide conditioning to the cabin in hotel mode operation, you normally use: Right ENG AIR BLEED plus right PACK VALVE only. Right ENG AIR BLEED plus right PACK VALVE and, if you open the CROSS-FEED BLEED VALVE, the left PACK VALVE. Right ENG AIR BLEED plus right PACK VALVE and via the CROSS-FEED BLEED VALVE (automatically opened) the left PACK VALVE.
Annunciator lights test runs as soon as: ANN LT switch is in test position. ANN LT is in test position; DC electrical PWR available, provided DC SVC BUS is not shed on OVHD panel or hostess panel. ANN LT switch is in test position and engines running. ANN LT switch is in test position and engines stopped.
MAINT PANEL amber light on CAP means that? The CCAS rotary selector on left maintenance panel is not in "NORM FLT" position. The cockpit voice recorder is full at 80% A magnetic indicator has turned to amber on one of the maintenance panels. One of the maintenance panel protective covers is not properly closed.
T.O. CONFIG test is used before take off to check: PWR MGT selector in TO position. Pitch trim in green sector, TLU LO SPD. Flaps 15 degrees, AIL LOCK LIGHT not illuminate. All of the above.
When a module failure is detected by its internal monitoring system: Fault light only, on "MFC" panel, illuminates. Single chime aural alert is triggered, MASTER CAUTION light flashes, MFC illuminates on CAP and associated amber fault light on overhead panel. Single chime sound is not triggered, MASTER CAUTION light illuminates steady and MFC illuminates on CAP.
Following warnings are not processed by "MFC": Engine fire, smoke, engine oil low press, excess cab altitude and pitch disconnect. Engine fire, excess cab diff press cab altitude, smoke and flaps unlock. Engine fire, excess Cab. Diff. Press, excess Cab. Altitude, Nac Overheat and smoke.
What are the capacities of the batteries? MAIN BAT 24 V / 27 or 43 Ah, EMER BAT 24 V / 15 Ah. MAIN BAT 28.5 V / 43 Ah, EMER BAT 28.5 V / 15 Ah. Both batteries 24 V / 43 Ah.
The ALT select mode is automatically armed when the aircraft climbs (or descends) toward the selected altitude. This assertion is correct. Incorrect, the ALT SEL mode must be armed, then engaged before selecting a new altitude. Incorrect, the STBY mode PB must be pushed to enable new altitude to be selected.
When the pilot uses the touch control steering (TCS) it allows him: To control manually and temporarily the aircraft without disengaging the active FD and/or AP mode. To control manually and temporarily the aircraft, and return in BASIC mode. To disconnect the AP but maintains YD.
In the go around phase, antion on either go around push button will: Disengage AP and FD bars disappear. Disengage AP and the AFCS provides FD commands only to manually acquire and maintain predetermined minimum safe pitch attitude (flaps function) and heading followed at GA engagement. The GA PB when depressed, automatically moves the PL to the require power setting, but the pilot should manually maintain the speed.
Failure of a smoke detector fan: Results in automatic switching to the remaining fan. Results in the ALTN light illuminating in the EXHAUST MODE push button. Requires the crew to manually turn off the failed fan and activate the remaining.
Which of the following agent is used in the two engine fire bottles? Freon or halon, pressurized by nitrogen. co2 Chemical powder.
How many engine fire extinguisher bottles are there? One for each engine. Two for each engine. Two common for both engines.
What corrective action should be performed if an AHRS comparison fault occurs? Pull the circuit breakers on the incorrect AHRS. Pilot on side of incorrect AHRS should select opposite ATT/HDG reference. Pilot on side of incorrect AHRS should select opposite SGU. Compare both ADI's to the standby attitude indicator, then perform both items in A and B.
What happens if AHRS 2 fails completely? PIT, ROL ATT and/or HDG is displayed on the EADI. ATT FAIL appears on a blue sphere on the EADI. Autopilot disengages.
What is the indication of a failure in section A or B of an SGU? Both CRTs on the failed side go black. Both CRTs on the failed side display a red X. If the autopilot is engaged on the side of the failed SGU, all upper modes are lost.
In case of ADC failure: Select the other ADC. Compare valid ADC with the STBY INSTRUMENTS. Reset the MASTER CAUTION and select the other ADC.
Crew voice recorder operations: The last 30 minutes of recording are retained. All recording may be erased by pressing ERASE PB provided that the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set ON The last 30 minutes of recording are retained. All recording may be erased by pressing ERASE PB provided that the aircraft is on ground. The last 60 minutes of recording are retained. All recording may be erased by pressing ERASE PB provided that the aircraft is on ground.
Roll control operation is achieved by actuating: Mechanically the ailerons and hydraulically the spoilers. Mechanically the spoilers and hydraulically the ailerons. Mechanically the ailerons and spoilers.
An aural whooler alert is generated by CCAS in case of: Pitch trim rocket use for more than 1 second. 1º Movement on pitch trim position indicator. 1º Movement on yaw trim position indicator.
The gust lock system acts on: Roll control, pitch control and rudder control. Roll control and pitch control. Roll control and rudder control.
At take-off power, how many engines can on electric pump supply? Only one. Both engines. Jet pump supply is necessary for take-off.
A jet pump failure is detected by: Illumination of FEED LO PR and CCAS activation. Illumination of RUN green light in the related electric fuel pump PUSH-BUTTON. The flowmeter indication "0". A + B are correct.
During fuel cross feed operation after cross feed "OPEN" and pump push-button "OFF" in the side with least fuel, how many pumps are running? One, the jet pump in the side with most fuel. Two, both elect and jet pumps on the side with the most fuel. Three, both electrical pumps and the jet pump on the side with most fuel.
An auxiliary DC electrical pump is located: In the BLUE HYD system. In the GREEN HYD system. In both HYD system.
The users of the BLUE hydraulic system are: Flaps, normal brake, emergency brake and nose wheel steering. Spoilers, flaps, nose wheel steering. Parking and emergency brake and prop brake. B + C are correct.
On ground pushing AUX PUMP push button on the pedestal, allows: To energize the AUX PUMP, providing the battery switch is in the ON position. To energize the AUX PUMP, which pressurizes the BLUE hydraulic system, regardless of whether the battery switch is in the ON or OFF position. To pressurize the GREEN HYD SYST.
On the landing gear panels, UNLK light illuminates to indicate: Up-lock device has failed. Down-lock device has failed. Respective gear not seen locked in lever selected position, or on ground up-lock box not in the right position.
A red light incorporated in the landing gear lever will illuminate and CCAS will be activated whenever any gear is not seen down and locked by the detection system 2 and: Flaps 30º and Zra below 500 ft. At least on PL at FI and Zra below 500 ft. All of the above.
Anti-Skid protection is not available at speeds below: 10 KTS. 16 KTS. 23 KTS. 35 KTS.
The hydro mechanical unit (HMU) functions are: To meter the fuel flow delivery to the engine. To provide the motive flow to the fuel tank jet pump. To provide the fuel shut-off function (controlled by CL). All the above is correct.
The propeller brake is powered by: Hydraulic blue pressure. Hydraulic green pressure. A separate accumulator.
What is the logic to engage the propeller brake? Gear shock absorber compressed and gust lever engaged. Blue hydraulic pressure available (READY LT illuminates green). Condition lever (CL) in fuel shut off or feather. All of the above is correct.
Are the TORQUE, ITT, NP, NH, FUEL FLOW/FUEL USED and OIL PRESS/OIL TEMP gauges all available on a battery start? Yes, all. No, FUEL FLOW/FUEL USED and OIL PRESS/OIL TEMP require DC1 or DC2; they become "alive" at 61.58% NH during engine start. ITT and NH only.
During start sequence, the cross-start system: Makes use of the opposite DC GEN to start. Makes use of the MAIN BAT until 10% NH. Makes use of the MAIN BAT until 10% NH, then uses MAIN BAT and opposite DC GEN (on ground only).
Which ATPCS functions are available when it has been armed for take-off? Up-trim only. Auto-feather only. Up-trim and Auto-feather.
The purpose of "Air Frame Air Bleed" is: To control DE ICE and ISOLATION VALVES normal operation, PB pressed both DE ICE and ISOLATION VALVES are open. To permit a detection of an ENGINE or AIR FRAME DE ICE SYSTEM failures. A + B are correct.
Both, airframe and engine de icing selected ON, they are: De iced simultaneously. De iced sequentially. Totally independent one from each other.
De icing light illuminates on memo panel when: Air frame de icing is selected ON. Ice is detected by ICE DETECTOR system. Window and probe heat are ON.
Mode SEL AUTO in "MAN" on the icing panel, when should the "MODE SEL PB" be "ON"? If SAT above -20ºC; causes a cycle length of 60 sec. If SAT below -20ºC; causes a cycle length of 60 sec. If SAT below -20ºC; causes a cycle length of 180 sec.
|
