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If the alternate VMO/MMO switch is in the “ALTN” position then the: (Page 126). a) The Air Data & Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) adjust the VMO/MMO curve to compensate for a flight with the landing gear down. b) The Air Data & Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) use the alternate static ports as input in order to calculate the VMO/MMO curve, for normal flight. c) The Air Data & Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) use the alternate pitot probe and static ports as input to calculate the VMO/MMO curve, for a flight with flaps/slats down.

Are the pitot probes protected, for ice formation? (Page 22). a) No, due to their location on the aircraft, there is no need for an anti-icing system. b) Yes, with the use of hot air from the aircraft’s bleed system. c) Yes, with the use of electrical heaters.

Where is the explanation of the maintenance codes, of an Air Data & Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU), shown? (Page 48). a) On the Navigation Display (ND) after proper selection on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU). b) On the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU). c) On the Control Display Unit (CDU), after proper ADIRS BITE selection.

When does the amber FAULT annunciator on the ADIRS Mode Select Unit (MSU) illuminate? (Page 50). a) In the ADR function of the associated ADIRU fail. b) When the DC power source for the associated ADIRU is less than 18v DC. c) When the IR Function of the associated ADIRU fail.

Air Data & Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) mode selector is moved from the “OFF” position to “NAV” and the “ON DC” light illuminates for five seconds. What does it mean? (Page 50, 70). a) It is normal as the ADIRU does a check of its DC power source. b) It is normal because a fast alignment using both the AC and DC power source was started. c) It is not normal, because a short AC power interruption was detected during the ADIRU alignment phase.

ILS data is shown on the navigation displays (ND) by setting the mode on the EFIS control panel to the: (Page 60). a) APP or PLN position. b) APP position only. c) PLN or MAP position.

To which pitot and static source, is the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator, connected? (Page 86). a) To the captain’s pitot probe and the alternate static ports. b) Either to the captain’s pitot probe and the captain’s static ports or to the alternate pitot probe and the alternate static ports, after selection from the cockpit. c) to the auxiliary pitot probe and the alternate static ports.

What is the purpose of the radio magnetic indicator? (Page 96). a) Is to show airplane magnetic heading. b) Is to show relative bearing to VOR and ADF stations. c) All of the above.

Which changes occur on the standby attitude indicator, when “B/CRS” (back course) is selected? (Page 100). a) The localizer deviation bar goes out of view and the glideslope deviation bar reverses polarity. b) The localizer deviation bar reverses polarity and the glideslope deviation bar goes out of view. c) The localizer and glideslope deviation bars go out of view.

How can align to vertical the standby attitude indicator gyro? (Page 100). a) In the automatic mode, application of power causes the gyro to align to vertical at a rate of three degrees per minute. b) In the manual mode, let the gyro spin for thirty seconds. After thirty seconds, pull the cage knob. The cage knob aligns the gyro to vertical and makes the altitude ball stable at zero degrees pitch and roll. c) We can do it with both way describe above.

What is the electrical power supplier of the integrated standby flight display (ISFD)? (Page 104). a) The ISFD battery/charger or Hot battery bus. b) The ISFD battery/charger only. c) The ISFD battery/charger or Battery bus.

From which device ISFD receives localizer and glideslope deviation? (Page 106). a) Multi-mode receiver (MMR) 1 only page 106. b) Multi-mode receiver (MMR) 1 or 2. c) From the inertial sensor in the ISFD.

In accordance with the over speed warning, how many is the airplane maximum operating limit speed (VMO)? (Page 120). a) Is 140 Kts when the airplane is at or between an altitude of 27,968 ft. b) Is 240 Kts when the airplane is at or above an altitude of 26,968 ft. c) Is 340 Kts when the airplane is at or below an altitude of 25,968 ft.

What the radio altimeter (RA) system measures? (Page 132). a) The vertical distance from the airplane to the ground. b) The horizontal distance between airplanes. c) The vertical distance between airplanes.

How may the self-test of the Radio Altimeter (RA) system be initiated? (Page 142, 143). a) Via any Control Display Unit (CDU), in order to start the self-test routine. b) Using a test switch on the front of the RA receiver/transmitter. c) Using a maintenance diagnostic function of the Flight Management System (FMS).

When is Radio Height displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)? (Page 146). a) When the LOC or APPR p/b is pressed. b) When a Decision Height is selected. c) Below 2500 feet.

On an EFIS/MAP mode instrument display, when ALT shows in white on the above the radio altitude display? (Page 148). a) When the airplane climbs above 1000 feet radio altitude. b) When the airplane descent below the height alert altitude of 1000 feet. c) When Radio Minimums Alert function fails.

What is the radio of transmit area of the weather radar (WXR) system? (Page 156). a) The WXR system transmits radio frequency (RF) pulses in a 180 degree area forward of the airplane. b) The WXR system transmits radio frequency (RF) pulses in a 360 degree area forward of the airplane. c) The WXR system transmits radio frequency (RF) pulses in a 90 degree area forward of the airplane.

Which component controls WXR antenna stabilization? (Page 160). a) ADIRU. b) WXR receiver/transceiver. c) WXR antenna.

How many antennas there are installed on the aircraft? (Page 175). a) 3. b) 2. c) 1.

Which data is sent to the Primary Flight Displays (PFD), from the Weather Radar (WXR) system? (Page 178). a) Cautions, warnings and malfunctions of the system. b) The turbulence alert warning. c) a red “WINDSHEAR” message.

What position data provides the instrument landing system (ILS)? (Page 230). a) Provides lateral and vertical position data necessary to put the airplane on the runway for approach. b) Provides lateral and transversal position data necessary to put the airplane on the runway for approach.

Which of the following statements, is the correct one about Instrument Landing System (ILS) No.1 BITE? (Page 232). a) It may be performed from the Control Display Unit (CDU) in the flight deck. b) In order to performed, a test set is required. c) It is performed from the front panel of the Multi-Mode Receiver (MMR) No.1.

Where is located the VOR/LOC antenna? (Page 236). a) Is at the top of the vertical stabilizer. b) Is at the upper fuselage. c) Is at the lower fuselage.

Both the active and the standby windows of the navigation control panel, indicate “188.88” for two second on, then one second off, repeatedly. This an indication that: (Page 242). a) The master dim and test system, is under test. b) The same Instrument Landing System (ILS) frequency was selected on both windows. c) An instrument Landing System (ILS) frequency selection that is out of the normal range, was initiated.

What is frequency range where the DME can be tunes? (Page 242). a) Of 8MHz to 20MHz. b) Of 108MHz to 117.95MHz. c) Of 50MHz to 70.95MHz.

Where can the ILS data be displayed? (Page 246). a) On the RMI. b) On both NDs and Primary Flight Display (PFD). c) Only in both NDs.

How does the Marker Beacon (MB) function operate…? (Page 274). a) Only in VOR/MB receiver No.1 using one antenna. b) In both VOR/MB No.1 & 2 receivers, using two antennas. c) In both VOR/MB No.1 & 2 receivers, using a single antenna.

What kind of indications supplies the marker beacon system when the airplane flies over airport runway marker beacon transmitters? (Page 304). a) Only aural indications. b) Visual and aural indications. c) Only visual indications.

Which is the purpose of the “TONE” selector on the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) control panel? (Page 362). a) To turn on the antenna/tone modulators circuit in the ADF receiver. b) To adjust the tone of the output signals (station audio tone). c) To turn on the Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) in the ADF receiver page 362.

What use the global positioning system (GPS) to the navigation? (Page 376). a) Airplanes. b) Satellites. c) Air traffic control.

When does the GPS fail light on the IRS mode select unit come on? (Page 378). a) When 2 GPS receivers have a failure. b) When at least one GPS receiver has a failure. c) When GPS is not switched.

What kind of data is used by FMCS in order to calculate present position? (Page 378). a) MMR or navigation radio position data. b) Inertial reference data only. c) GPS or navigation radio position with inertial reference data.

How a single Global Positioning System (GPS) failure is indicated in the flight deck? (Page 388). a) The associated “GPS” amber indicator will be illuminated, on the IRS Mode Select Unit (MSU) page 50. b) A “GPS INOPERATIVE” message appears in scratch pad of the Control Display Unit (CDU). c) There is no annunciation, until the system status annunciator panel assembly of the Master Caution system, is pushed (recall action).

From which ADIRU can the Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) receive heading data? (Page 404). a) ADIRU 2 only. b) ADIRU 1 or 2. c) ADIRU 1 only.

The TCAS/ATC control panel controls: (Page 404). a) ATC transponders and TCAS computer directly. b) ATC transponder directly and TCAS computer through the ATC transponder. c) TCAS computer directly and ATC transponders through the TCAS computer.

What code does not set with the selected ATC system? (Page 404). a) 0000. b) 7777. c) 7500.

What is true about the traffic alert and collision avoidance system TCAS? (Page 412). a) Helps the flight crew maintain safe air traffic separation from other ATC transponder equipped airlines. b) The TCAS transmits to and receives signals from other airplanes to get altitude, range, and bearing data. c) All of the above are true.

What are the purposes of the ground proximity warning (GPWS)? (Page 440). a) Alert the flight crew of an unsafe condition when the airplane is near the terrain. b) Supplies a warning for windshear conditions. c) All of the above.

What happens when the flap inhibit switch is selected in not NORMAL position on the GPWS control panel? (Page 452). a) Only warning TOO LOW FLAP mode is valid. b) The warning TOO LOW FLAP is inhibited. c) The self test sequence in initiated.

What happened when FMC sends commands to the digital flight control system and the autothrottle? (Page 472). a) The DFCS and the A/T use these signals to control the airplane in vertical (VNAV) mode of flight. b) The DFCS and the A/T use these signals to control the airplane in the lateral (LNAV) and vertical (VNAV) modes of flight. c) The DFCS and the A/T use these signals to control the airplane in the lateral (LNAV) mode of flight.

What is the main function of the static and total air pressure system?. a) To measure pitot and static air pressure. b) To calculate flight parameters (such as airspeed and altitude). c) To calculate navigation parameters (such as present position and ground speed).

What unit is not static and total air pressure system component?. a) Drain fitting. b) Flexible horse. c) Transfer valve.

What are air pressure sources for the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator?. a) Alternate pitot probe and alternate static ports. b) Captain’s pitot probe and alternate static ports. c) Alternate pitot probe and first officer’s static ports.

What is the function of zero adjust screw on the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator?. a) Zero adjust screw lets you adjust residual altimeter/airspeed error. b) Zero adjust screw lets you adjust the altitude without changing the barometric reference settings. c) Zero adjust screw lets you adjust barometric reference settings without changing the altitude.

What kind of signals gives an overspeed warning system to the flight crew?. a) An aural warning that tells the flight crew when the airspeed is out limit. b) An aural warning that tells the flight crew when the airspeed is more than mach or airspeed limit. c) An aural and visual warning that tells the flight crew when the airspeed is more than mach or airspeed limit.

What unit supplies the signal to the mach airspeed overspeed warning system?. a) Mach/airspeed indictor. b) Standby altimeter/airspeed indicator. c) Air data inertial reference unit (ADIRU).

What parameters does calculate the air data reference (ADR) part of ADIRS?. a) The ADR calculates airspeed and barometric altitude. b) The ADR calculates track, relative bearing and distance. c) The ADR calculates altitude, present position, ground speed, heading.

What is the main function of the air data modules (ADMs)?. a) The ADMs send the air pressures to the air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs). b) The ADMs change the air pressures to electrical signals and send them to the air data instruments (such as mach/airspeed indicator and altimeter). c) The ADMs change the air pressures to electrical signals and send them to the air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) on ARINC 429 data buses.

What information does display the radio magnetic indicator (RMI)?. a) VOR and ADF bearing and magnetic heading. b) VOR or ADF bearing and distance to VOR station. c) VOR or ADF bearing and heading data.

What unit does supply the heading data to the RMI when the IRS transfer switch is in normal position?. a) Standby magnetic compass. b) Left ADIRU. c) Right ADIRU.

What is the main function of the standby magnetic compass?. a) The standby magnetic compass is a main magnetic heading reference. b) The standby magnetic compass is a backup magnetic heading reference. c) The standby magnetic compass is a backup true heading reference.

What procedures must be done after the standby magnetic compass replacement?. a) Compass alignment. b) Compass calibration. c) Compass swing.

What is source of altitude data for the Standby altitude indicator?. a) Internal gyro only. b) Left ADIRU or internal gyro. c) Left ADIRU or right ADIRU.

What unit does supply instrument landing system (ILS) localizer and glideslope deviation data to the standby altitude reference system?. a) Multi-mode receiver (MMR) 1 only. b) Multi-mode receiver (MMR) 2 only. c) Multi-mode receivers (MMR) 1 or 2.

Which system does not receive ILS deviation output from MMR?. a) GPWS. b) ISFD. c) SMYD.

Which antennas does use Instrument landing system (ILS) for calculation of localizer deviation?. a) Inly forward LOC antenna. b) Forward or upper antennas. c) Two antennas on the forward bulkhead.

What kind of signal supplies the marker beacon system to the flight crew?. a) Visual and audio indications when the airplane flies over marker beacon station. b) Visual indication when the airplane flies over marker beacon station only. c) Audio indications when the airplane flies over marker beacon station only.

How be can tested the marker beacon system?. a) Marker beacon system tests by test button on the navigation control panel. b) Marker beacon system tests by BITE features on the front panel of VOR/MB receiver only. c) Marker beacon system has no features for operational test carrying.

What unit does not receive radio altitude output from the Radio altimeter?. a) FMC. b) TCAS computer. c) WXR receiver/transmitter.

Choose the correct statement concerning Radio altimeter (RA). a) The radio altimeter transmit and receive antennas are the same and interchangeable, and may be installed in any orientation. b) The radio altimeter transmit and receive antennas are the same and interchangeable, and must be installed in proper orientation. c) The radio altimeter transmit and receive antennas are not interchangeable, and must be installed in proper orientation.

What does prevent weather radar (WXR) receiver/transmitter turn on?. a) Incorrect mode of Navigation display. b) Equipment cooling system failure. c) The random is closed.

In what area forward of the airplane the weather radar (WXR) system does transmit radio frequency (RF) pulses?. a) 70 degrees. b) 120 degrees. c) 180 degrees.

What kind of airplanes can find and monitor TCAS?. a) The TCAS find and monitors all of the airplanes within it’s operational range. b) The TCAS find and monitors all of the airplanes within range that have S transponders. c) The TCAS find and monitors all of the airplanes within range that have ATCRBS or mode S transponders.

When two airplanes can agree manoeuvres that give a safe distance between them?. a) If both airplanes are equipped with mode S transponder only. b) If both airplanes are equipped with TCAS. c) If at least one airplane are equipped with TCAS.

How can be accessed the Alternate static port for replacement?. a) Through forward equipment compartment access door. b) Sidewall panels in the cabin need to remove for access. c) Forward cargo compartment lining panels need to remove for access.

What unit does use static pressure dorm Captain’s static line?. a) Left air data computer. b) Left Air data and inertial unit. c) Static Air data module.

There is the barometric correction knob on the front panel of the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator. What is purpose of this set knob?. a) Adjust accurate reading on ground. b) Adjust accurate reading in flight. c) Corrects for local changes in barometric pressure.

Under what law controls the ADIRU sent Overspeed alert command to the aural warning device?. a) There is linear dependence of maximum airspeed limit from altitude only. b) There is linear dependence of maximum airspeed limit from altitude and trailing edge position. c) There is fixed maximum airspeed limit depends of altitude.

What input signal uses the air data reference (ADR) function to calculate the air data parameters?. a) Mechanical (pressure) inputs from pitot probes and static ports, temperature input from TAT probe, digital input from the AOA vane. b) Analogue inputs of pitot and static pressure, temperature input from TAT probe, analogue input from the AOA vane. c) Digital inputs of pitot and static pressure, temperature input from TAT probe, analogue input from the AOA vane.

How are the Air Data Modules (ADM) interchangeable?. a) All ADMs are interchangeable. b) The pitot pressure ADMs are interchangeable, and static pressure ADMs are interchangeable. c) The pitot pressure ADMs are interchangeable, and static pressure ADMs are not interchangeable.

When the RMI does use heading data from the right ADIRU?. a) When left ADIRU fails. b) When IRS transfer switch is moved to BOTH ON R position. c) Never, RMI does not use heading data from the right ADIRU.

What are mean “dashes” symbol indicate on the RMI slant distance display?. a) No computed data of the DME. b) DME Interrogator is inoperative. c) RMI has no slant distance display.

What indication changes do occur when you select B/CRS (back course) on the standby attitude indicator?. a) The localizer and glideslope deviation bars go out of view. b) The localizer deviation bar reverses polarity and the glideslope deviation bar goes out of view. c) The localizer deviation bar goes out of view and the glideslope deviation bar reverses polarity.

Which data does content the Instrument landing system (ILS) output sent to the PFD?. a) ILS deviation and ILS deviation digital readout. b) ILS deviation and ILS deviation warning. c) ILS deviation and station identification.

Which display does show marker beacon data?. a) Navigation display. b) Primary flight display. c) Marker beacon has audio outputs only which does not sent to any instrument.

When radio altitude display will change colour from white to yellow?. a) When calculated radio altitude is out of range. b) When radio altimeter lost signal. c) When airplane descends below radio minimums.

How you can start the radio altimeter self-test?. a) Using a test switch on the front of the RA receiver/transmitter. b) Using a test switch on the central instrument panel P2. c) Using a maintenance diagnostic function of the flight management system.

When the predictive windshear (PWS) function turns on automatically before takeoff?. a) When the airplane speed is more than 80 knots. b) When either throttle is moved more than 53 degrees. c) When the airplane is above 40 feet radio altitude.

Which alert does send to the PFD weather radar (WXR)?. a) Terrain alert. b) Turbulence alert. c) Windshear alert.

Where the TCAS uses radio altitude data?. a) TCAS uses radio altitude for automatic modes selection. b) TCAS uses radio altitude for resolution advisory calculation. c) TCAS does not use radio altitude data.

What one event does not inhibit RA of the TCAS?. a) ATC transponder lost data input from ADIRU. b) Radio altitude less than 1000 feet. c) The intruder has no-bearing status.

Where the red PULL UP and WINDSHEAR warning annunciators are shown?. a) On the navigation display (ND). b) On the primary flight displays (PFD). c) On the dedicated warning lights on the instrument panel P1 and P3.

To choose correct statement about the GPWS data base?. a) When data base of the GPWS will expired of date the GPWS will stop calculation of the Terrain Awareness functions. b) The GPWS data base stores on the replaceable flash memory and is changed on regular base. c) It is recommended to download the GPWS data base on regular base.

What data does use Primary Flight display from VOR/MB receiver output?. a) Flies over marker beacon station signal. b) Selected course to VOR ground station. c) VOR deviation.

Navigation display is in the VOR mode. How is indicated NCD of VOR output?. a) Deviation bar colour changes to magenta. b) DEU removes the deviation bar only. c) VOR/MB receiver removes deviation scale and deviation bar.

How the ACT mode A Identity code is selected?. a) The maintenance personal sets the four digit identity code and it shows on the test equipment display. b) The flight crew sets the four digit identity code through the FMC CDU. c) The flight crew sets the four digit identity code and it shows on the ATC/TCAS control panel.

Which identity code strong prohibits to muse during maintenance procedures?. a) 0500. b) 5500. c) 7500.

What one event does not inhibit RA of the TCAS?. a) ATC transponder lost air data input from ADIRU. b) Radio altitude less than 1000 feet. c) The intruder has no-bearing status.

From how many the static and total air pressure system gets air pressure inputs?. a) Gets air pressure inputs from three pitot probes and six static ports on the airplanefuselage. b) Gets air pressure inputs from six pitot probes and six static ports on the airplane fuselage. c) Gets air pressure inputs from three pitot probes and three static ports on the airplane fuselage.

What for the alternate static ports are connected together?. a) To improve the measure. b) To give average ambient pressure. c) To have a standby.

In the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator. Which are the two flight instruments that comprise?. a) One instrument is a pneumatic altimeter and the other instrument is a pneumaticairspeed indicator. b) One instrument is a electric altimeter and the other instrument is a hydraulic airspeed indicator. c) One instrument is a hydraulic altimeter and the other instrument is a electric airspeed indicator.

In the air data inertial reference system. What data the air data reference (ADR) calculate?. a) Calculates airspeed and barometric altitude. b) Attitude and Present position. c) Groundspeed and Heading.

What condition the IRS master caution unit monitors the ADIRS?. a) For unsatisfactory conditions. b) For satisfactory conditions. c) For any conditions.

How many degrees of different between position data and recorded latitude must have to that ALIGN light flashes, status code 4 show on ISDU and ENTER IRS POSITION shows on CD?. a) More than 1 degree different. b) More than 10 degree different. c) More than 100 degree different.

The standby magnetic compass is a backup magnetic for?. a) Heading reference. b) Pitch reference. c) Yaw reference.

Which is the range of the heading in the integrated standby flight display (ISFD)?. a) The range of heading is from 180 to 360 degrees. b) The range of heading is from 90 to 360 degrees. c) The range of heading is from 0 to 360 degrees.

When is the Ground Proximity Warning System (GPS) …?. a) When the airplane is higher than 2450 feet above the ground. b) When the airplane is less than 2450 feet above the ground.