AVA TEST STUDY ONLY GOOD ANSWERS

The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the. Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank. ok.

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. ok.

Defines VNO as. Maximum operating limit speed. ok.

Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the. Angle of bank. ok.

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by. Variations in airplane loading. ok.

During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift. Is momentarily increased. ok.

Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time. Divided by the total weight of the aircraft. ok.

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the. Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. ok.

While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would. Remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector. ok.

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all. Forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. ok.

What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum. Range and maximum distance glide. ok.

The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. ok.

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become. Four times greater. ok.

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane. Increases because of increased induced drag. ok.

If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will. Remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. ok.

The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of. Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. ok.

Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight?. These forces are equal. ok.

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the. Flightpath. ok.

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the. Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. ok.

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be. Four times greater than at the lower speed. ok.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's. Lift, airspeed, and drag. ok.

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the. Wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip. ok.

Stall speed is affected by. Weight, load factor, and power. ok.

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag. ok.

For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn. Is constant and the stall speed increases. ok.

If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to. Design-maneuvering speed. ok.

A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the. Left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis. ok.

Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. ok.

The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as. Load factor and directly affects stall speed. ok.

(Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the. Green arc. ok.

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be. 4,000 pounds. ok.

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays. Positive static stability. ok.

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its. Elevator. ok.

Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper. ok.

If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays. Neutral longitudinal static stability. ok.

In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to. Increase. ok.

When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. ok.

Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its. Center of gravity moves aft. ok.

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the. Loss of the vertical component of lift. ok.

If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack. Must be decreased or angle of bank increased. ok.

Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents. ok.

A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is. Maintaining a safe airspeed. ok.

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should. Increase the bank and decrease airspeed. ok.

(Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall. 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down. ok.

An airplane leaving ground effect will. Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust. ok.

One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to. Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. ok.

The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind?. Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation. ok.

The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease. The lift of the wing. ok.

Propeller efficiency is the. Ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. ok.

In order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is essential to: Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop). ok.

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will. increase,and induced drag will decrease. ok.

In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must: Bank into the live engine slightly. ok.

When dealing with aerodynamics, VMC refers to: Minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative. ok.

On an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left engine is considered to be the critical one to fail because of the following factors: P-factor, Accelerated slipstream, Spiraling slipstream and Torque. ok.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of. A heat exchange. ok.

What causes wind?. Pressure differences. ok.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the. Right by Coriolis force. ok.

Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient. ok.

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?. Coriolis force. ok.

Which would increase the stability of an air mass?. Cooling from below. ok.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate. ok.

A common location of clear air turbulence is. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream. ok.

The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by. Long streaks of cirrus clouds. ok.

During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the. South and speed increases. ok.

Which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?. A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough. ok.

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. ok.

The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is. A cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force. ok.

Which is the true with a respect to a high- or low-pressure system?. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air. ok.

Which is the true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air. ok.

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature spread. Decreases as the relative humidity increases. ok.

Moisture is added to a parcel of air by. Evaporation and sublimation. ok.

Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?. Warming from below. ok.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. ok.

When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather?. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. ok.

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be. Stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence. ok.

What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. ok.

The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and. Stable, moist air. ok.

Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?. Towering cumulus clouds. ok.

Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain?. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting. ok.

What are the characteristics of stable air?. Poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds. ok.

What is a characteristic of stable air?. Stratiform clouds. ok.

When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?. Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility. ok.

Which is characteristic of stable air?. Restricted visibility. ok.

Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?. Continuous precipitation. ok.

Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. ok.

Which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front. Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. ok.

The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of. Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. ok.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and. Below rotor clouds. ok.

Virga is best described as. Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. ok.

The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with. Squall lines. ok.

If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least. 20 miles. ok.

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm?. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds. ok.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The start of rain. ok.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of thunderstorm?. Continuous updraft. ok.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. Dissipating. ok.

What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?. 40 miles. ok.

During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2 “ thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds al 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to: Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed. ok.

Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause. The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal. ok.

A characteristic of the stratosphere is. Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude. ok.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. ok.

A jet stream is defined as wind of. 50 knots or greater. ok.

The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather is. Variation of solar energy received by the Earth’s regions. ok.

If the air temperature is +8oC at an elevation of 1.350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?. 5.350 feet MSL. ok.

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by. Ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light. ok.

What feature is associated with temperature inversion?. A stable layer of air. ok.

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, r-low clouds. ok.

Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?. Coriolis. ok.

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when. Water vapor condenses. ok.

To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?. The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. ok.

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on. Air temperature. ok.

What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?. Upward currents. ok.

The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the. Stability of air being lifted. ok.

Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?. Ambient lapse rate. ok.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. ok.

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?. Stratified clouds with little vertical development. ok.

What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?. Clouds with extensive vertical development. ok.

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform- type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?. Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting. ok.

The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a. Rain cloud. ok.

What are the four families of clouds. High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development. ok.

A high cloud is composed mostly of. Ice crystals. ok.

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?. High clouds. ok.

Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?. Cumulonimbus. ok.

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate. Turbulence. ok.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of. Very strong turbulence. ok.

Ice pellets encountred during flight normally are evidence that. A warm front is about to pass. ok.

An air mass is a body of air that. Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture. ok.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?. A wind change. ok.

If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?. Level flight attitude. ok.

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the. Amount of excess load than can be imposed on the wing will be decreased. ok.

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as. Light turbulence. ok.

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?. Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action. ok.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The start of rain at the surface. ok.

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?. Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base. ok.

Where do squall lines most often develop?. Ahead of a cold front. ok.

Which thunderstorm generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive. Squall line. ok.

What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?. hunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen. ok.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?. Lightning. ok.

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?. Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude. ok.

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing. ok.

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?. Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift. ok.

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?. Freezing rain. ok.

Where does wind shear occur?. With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. ok.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It may be associated with either a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. ok.

Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?. With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport. ok.

Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route formal?. Transcribed Weather Broadcast. ok.

The Surface Analysis Chart depicts. Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions at the valid time of the chart. ok.

Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?. Weather Depiction Chart. ok.

When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the. Base of the lowest layer. ok.

Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?. 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart. ok.

What is the upper limit of the low level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?. 24.000 feet. ok.

The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be obtained from the. AFSS. ok.

What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI? SPECI KBOI 09185AZ 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12. Rain and mist obstructing visibility, rain began at 1812Z. ok.

To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should refer to. Pilot reports. ok.

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as. Light turbulence. ok.

When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that should be reported as. Moderate. ok.

Turbulence that is encountered above 15.000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as. Clear air turbulence. ok.

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?. True directions and Knots. ok.

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous. To all aircraft. ok.

Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMETs (WST)?. They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal 3/4 inch in diameter. ok.

What type of in flight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and extensive mountain obscurement?. AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA). ok.

What single reference contains information regarding volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to occur?. In-flight Weather Advisories. ok.

The Hazardous In flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over service over selected VORs that provides. Continuous broadcast of in flight weather advisories. ok.

When are severe weather watch bulletins (AWW) issued?. Unscheduled and issued as required. ok.

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous. To all aircraft. ok.

Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?. Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles. ok.

The surface Analysis Chart depicts. Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart. ok.

What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?. Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. ok.

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with moutain wave?. Rotor Cloud. ok.

At which location does Coriolis force have the laest effect on wind direction. At the Equator. ok.

El codigo SKC se utiliza en el METAR cuando?. La visibilidad horizontal es mayor a 10 KM. Y el cielo esta despejado. ok.

En un mapa meteorológico y en una carta de vuelo, un frente oculido se representa por?. Una linea de color púrpura, triángulos y semicirculos colocados sobre éste. ok.

En el trópico el mayor peligro para una aeronave en vuelo cerca o dentro de una CB es?. La turbulencia. ok.

What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?. Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated. ok.

(Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?. FL340. ok.

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by prognostic chart?. Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart. ok.

(Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a. Tropical storm. ok.

What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?. Winds and temperatures aloft. ok.

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?. 130. ok.

A prognostic chart depicts the conditions. Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future. ok.

(Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?. Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area. ok.

(Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect. Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240. ok.

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?. Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 feet MSL. ok.

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?. Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops at 43.000 feet MSL, and less than 1/8 coverage. ok.

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?. Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL. ok.

(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?. The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL. ok.

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?. Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet. ok.

A ceiling is defined as the height of the. Lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast. ok.

What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SNBLSNFG VV0008 00/M03 A2991RMK RERAE42SNB42. Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet. ok.

The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a. 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex. ok.

Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF). ok.

A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is. 3 knots or less. ok.

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as. P6SM. ok.

What is the forecast wind at 1800z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=. Calm. ok.

From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival?. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. ok.

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?. The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions. ok.

When is the wind-group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperature ALOFT Forecast (FD)? When the wind. At the altitude is within 1.500 feet of the station elevation. ok.

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?. Unscheduled and issued as required. ok.

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous. to all aircraft. ok.

A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?. Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs. ok.

Cual es la cantidad de octas de nubes cuando se reporta BKN?. De 5 a 7. ok.

Una expresión “Aproximación Visual”: La puede solicitar el piloto o ser iniciada por el controlador. ok.

Una autorización de salida en plan IFR debe contener en su orden: Limite, Vía, Mantenga y Restricciones. ok.

La respuesta radar de un respondedor en MODO 3/A código 2000 es: Solicito asignación de código. ok.

Una aeronave llegando a Cali con FL240 y estima el VOR de CLO a las 22:20, recibe la siguente autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de CLO, descienda y mantenga 15,000 FT, hora prevista de aproximación 22:35", al tener una falla de comunicación.... Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde 15000 FT siempre y cuando haya colacionado la autorización. ok.

En la fraseología normalizada, en la autorización a la espera en un fijo no debe faltar. Nombre de radioayuda y EAT. ok.

Si estamos volando en espacio aéreo Clase A, esperamos: Autorizaciones para IFR. ok.

En el contenido de una autorización IFR debemos colacionar: Toda la autorización. ok.

Bajo que situación un piloto puede cambiar su plan de vuelo IFR a VFR. Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase D. ok.

De una aeronave secuestrada con flaps abajo después de aterrizar significa: La situación esta desesperada. ok.

Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que: El piloto asume la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la hace ATS. ok.

what designed airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the tower at that airport is not in operation?. Class D, which then becomes Class E. ok.

En el espacio aéreo CTR se: Establecen secuencias de aproximación por instrumentos. ok.

La máxima velocidad de una aeronave categoría A en un circulo de espera a 12.000 es:(OACI. 170 kts. ok.

En una aproximación IFR, se llama FAF al punto donde una aeronave: Esta alineada con la pista para aterrizar. ok.

Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será un vuelo: NO controlado. ok.

Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa: Aterrice aquí. ok.

Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia del que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de (minutos): 3. ok.

Una aeronave aproximando a Bogota con 170000 FT y estimando el VOR de BOG a las 09:32 UTC, recibe la siguiente autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de BOG, descienda y mantenga 13000 FT, hora prevista de aproximación 09:55", luego sufre falla de comunicación. Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de BOG a las 09:55 desde 13000 FT siempre y cuando haya colacionado la autorización y esté IMC. ok.

Vat is defined as speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration as: Maximum certificated landing mass. ok.

La prioridad máxima de aterrizaje para aeronaves es?. Aeronaves en emergencia. ok.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in the airspace underlyning Class B airspace?. 200 Knots. ok.

Straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within: 15° of the alignment of the runway center line. ok.

For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF FLIGHT portion of an IFR plane should list VOR navigational aids which are no more than. 80 miles apart. ok.

The initial approach segments, commences at... and ends at... IAF and IF. ok.

Flight procedures for racetrack and reversal procedures are based on average achieved bank angle of: 25° Bank angle, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of 3°/second, wichever is less. ok.

While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15° doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the station being used is. 6 minutes. ok.

The optimum Glide Path angle of an ILS is: 3.0°. ok.

The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (kts) above 14.000 ft to 20.000 ft, according OACI: 240 kts. ok.

Each required flight crewmembers is required to keep his or her shoulders harness fastened. During takeoff and landing unless he or she is unable to perform required duties. ok.

En caso de una bomba abordo que se requiera de una acción inmediata se deberá utilizar el código: Bravo Wiskey. ok.

In class A airspace, the following flights are permitted: IFR only. ok.

The difference between MDA and DA is: MDA is for non precision approach and DA is for precision approach. ok.

For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, ATC classifies aircraft as. Heavy, large and small. ok.

The MINIMUM altitude to intercept the glide slope path on a precision approach is: Glide Slope intercept altitude. ok.

The difference among a PUBLISHED ROUTE and UNPLUBLISHED ROUTE is: PUBLISHED route include minimum en-route altitude and the other do not. ok.

EXPECTED APPROACH TIME means the time: In case of communication failure, it is the time at which an approach must begin. ok.

RADAR CONTACT is defined as: The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a radar display. ok.

Clearance limit is: The point at which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance. ok.

THRESHOLD is defined as: The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing. ok.

If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6500 feet and the groundspeed is 173 knots , how much fuel is required to travel 450 NN?. 284 pounds. ok.

En una aproximación ADF la altura mínima de descenso es de: 500 pies. ok.

Los pilotos de transporte de línea y copilotos con licencia comercial de aviones deben realizar una serie de proeficiencias y repasos al año para cumplir con los requisitos de la UAEAC, en cuanto a simuladores de vuelo se refiere, el número de estos es de: Dos veces al año. ok.

Como se interpreta si las luces PAPI se observan desde su avion totalmente blancas: Voy muy alto. ok.

La UTA es un espacio aéreo: Categoria A, restringido a instrumentos. ok.

Cúal es la cantidad máxima de horas anuales que un piloto con licencia PCA, que vuela para una empresa de servicio aereo regular y una aeronave de mas de 5700 KGS puede volar. 900 Horas. ok.

Se define como área de maniobras en un aeródromo a: Parte del aeródromo que se utiliza para despegues, aterrizajes y rodaje de aeronaves excluyendo las plataformas. ok.

Se define como aerovía: El área de control dispuesta en forma de corredor y equipada con ayudas para la navegación. ok.

Se considera combustible básico para el despacho de una aeronave: El suficiente para volar del aeropuerto de origen a destino. ok.

Se considera combustible de reserva para el despacho de una aeronave: El suficiente para volar y aterrizar en el aeropuerto alterno más lejano incluido en el plan de vuelo. ok.

Se considera combustible mínimo para el despacho de una aeronave: La suma de combustible básico + reserva + contingencia(si aplica) + sostenimiento. ok.

El RAC comprende: 41 Partes. ok.

El RAC se define como: Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia. ok.

La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a: Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves. ok.

La parte 13 del RAC corresponde a: Regimen Sansionatorio. ok.

Para poder servir como copiloto de una empresa de transporte aéreo regular, este debe de haber cumplido con un chequeo de rutas dentro de un período de: 12 Meses. ok.

La palabra Notam se define como: Notice to the Airman. ok.

El Límite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de aeronaves en Colombia según el RAC es de: 90 horas. ok.

Una calle de rodaje de baja velocidad forma ángulo de: 90° con respecto al eje longitudinal de la pista. ok.

El control de horas mensuales y anuales de un tripulante de vuelo es responsabilidad de: El tripulante. ok.

El tiempo máximo de servicio de un tripulante de cabina de mando para tripulación sencilla de aeronaves de transporte aéreo regular es de: 12:30 horas. ok.

Espacio aéreo controlado visual por TWR: ATZ. ok.

El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de una aeronave comercial a: Un inspector de la UAEAC. ok.

La responsabilidad Final en la operación de una aeronave depende de: El piloto al mando. ok.

El RAC exige que por encima de ___________ se debe llevar suficiente oxígeno para suministro de todos los miembros de la tripulación en caso de una despresurización. 10.000 ft. ok.

De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de los mínimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener: Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un motor in-operativo. ok.

La separación vertical mínima entre dos aeronaves operando en espacio aéreo RVSM es de: 1000 ft. ok.

Se define en una aproximación de precisión como DH (Decision Height) a: Un punto geográfico exacto, que coincide con una altura especifica en la cual una aeronave de no tener contacto visual debe iniciar una aproximación frustrada. ok.

De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonomía para actuar como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave si en los_____ días precedentes no se han efectuado _____ despegues y aterrizajes. 90 y 3. ok.

Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que: El piloto asuma la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la efectué el ATS. ok.

Una aeronave vuela dentro de un FIR con: Niveles de vuelo. ok.

En una aproximación IFR, se denomina FAF (Final Approach Fix) al punto donde una aeronave: Se encuentra alineada con la pista para aterrizar. ok.

Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, será un vuelo: NO controlado. ok.

La legislación Aérea Colombiana se encuentra publicada en: Código de comercio. ok.

Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa: Aterrice aquí. ok.

Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia de la que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de: 3 minutos. ok.

La expresión aeronave OSCAR PAPA significa una aeronave en vuelo de. Orden público. ok.

De acuerdo al RAC, el piloto al mando de una aeronave podrá desviarse de una autorización emitida por el ATC sí: a. Esta pone en riesgo la seguridad del vuelo. b. Una situación de emergencia es declarada. c. a y b son correctas.

Cuando una aeronave se encuentre en una situación de emergencia que ponga en peligro la seguridad de las personas o de las aeronaves y se requiera de tomar medidas que infrinjan los reglamentos o procedimientos locales, el piloto al mando deberá pasar un informe escrito dentro de los siguientes: 10 dias. ok.

Para recobro de autonomía como Piloto Comercial de aviones después de un receso de 90 días, el tripulante deberá efectuar_____ despegues y aterrizajes ante un instructor calificado, en el equipo que desea recobrar autonomía. 3. ok.

El cumplimiento de las normas aeronáuticas en Colombia es principal función de: El ministerio de transporte. ok.

Para actuar como tripulante efectivo de una aeronave en Colombia, se deberá tener en posesión siempre: Licencia Expedida por la Aeronáutica Civil de Colombia y Certificado Medico. ok.

Cuando una aeronave se aproxime de frente con otra, las dos variaran su rumbo para evitar una colisión de acuerdo a los siguientes parámetros: Ambas aeronaves viraran a la derecha. ok.

De acuerdo a lo establecido en el RAC, excepto cuando sea necesario para el despegue o aterrizaje de una aeronave o cuando lo autorice la autoridad competente, no se efectuaran vuelos IFR a un nivel inferior a la altitud mínima. a. 2.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno montañoso. b. 1.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno no montañoso. c. a y b son correctos.

Las condiciones mínimas de alcance visual en Colombia por encima de 10,000 pies serán de. 8 km 5 millas. ok.

Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deberá reportar a la UAEAC en los siguientes: 5 días hábiles. ok.

La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades mecánicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es de: El piloto al mando. ok.

La responsabilidad de que se efectúe un prevuelo antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de: El piloto al mando. ok.

El reglamento del aire es parte de: El Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia. ok.

Se define como hora prevista de aproximación: Hora en la que el ATC prevé que una aeronave que llega después de experimentar una demora, abandone el fijo de espera para completar su aproximación, a fin de aterrizar. ok.

La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación ILS categoría I es igual: 200 ft. ok.

Se considera como aproximación de precisión: ILS. ok.

Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir que: Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de vuelo puede ser IFR. ok.

If on an IFR flight plan, you are advised to be in radar contact, you must: Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC when unable to comply. ok.

When flying a commercial route you are familiar with and you are in congested airspace, you may instead of reading back all clearances and instructions repetitively simply: Read back all clearances including your call sign and or flight # even if this is going to congest the frequency even more. ok.

You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at least: 500 fpm. ok.

An IFR clearance must include the following. Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route and transponder code. ok.

You are expected to read back clearances containing altitude assignments, radar vectors or any instructions requiring verification: True. ok.

If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should: Leave the hold at the EFC time. ok.

You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36-FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2 way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct route to fly you should: As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG. ok.

During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the ELT should: Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour. ok.

Señalar lo que es cierto. El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL). ok.

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?. When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach. ok.

For which speed variation should you notify ATC?. When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater. ok.

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?. Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur. ok.

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between. 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. ok.

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?. Fixes selected to define the route. ok.

What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. ok.

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should. Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. ok.

During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?. Resume normal position reporting. ok.

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?. Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach. ok.

Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.). Depart the holding fix at the EFC time. ok.

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure?. Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. ok.

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?. Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA. ok.

In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue. The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical. ok.

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under. VFR and land as soon as practicable. ok.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion. ok.

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute. ok.

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off 
by the void time. ok.

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. ok.

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.). Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate. ok.

AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the. Destination airport and route. ok.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. ok.

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches. ok.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. ok.

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to. Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. ok.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. ok.

An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name. Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. ok.

14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as. Maximum landing gear extended speed. ok.

14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as. Never-exceed speed. ok.

14 CFR part 1 defines VY as. Speed for best rate of climb. ok.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?. VS. ok.

Define Calibrated Air Speed?. Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error. ok.

14 CFR part 1 defines VF as. Design flap speed. ok.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?. VS1. ok.

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?. The maneuvering speed. ok.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?. 2 minutes. ok.

To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to. 29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted. ok.

What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator. Indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. ok.

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?. It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. ok.

A Standard rate turn is : A turn at a rate of 3o / sec. ok.

Magnetic dip is responsible for: Errors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic compasses. ok.

Pitot static instruments are connected as follows on a high Performance aircraft: Airspeed = pitot + static ,Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = static only. ok.

At higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed: Remains the same but the ground speed is faster than at lower altitude airports. ok.

TAS is the actual speed your airplane moves through undisturbed air. As density altitude increases your TAS: Should increase for a given TAS corrected for instrument and installation error. ok.

Pressure altitude is: Displayed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter regardless of outside temp. + pressure. ok.

Density altitude is used for: Performance calculations with OAT charts. ok.

While on the ground with the correct altimeter setting your altimeter should read: Within 75 Ft. of the actual field elevation. ok.

If on a takeoff roll below 80 Kts. one of the airspeed indicators is under reading by exactly 30 Kts., you should: Reject the take off, return to the gate and report to Maintenance assuming all the delay consequences. ok.

Compass correction cards. Must be current and installed on all certified aircraft. ok.

Pitch instruments are: Attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed and VSI. ok.

When performing a VOR accuracy check at a VOR test point on an airfield, the VOR can be considered serviceable if it is within _______ of the published radial: 4o to either side. ok.

If a VOR check is desired and no VOT is available, the check: Can be made between 2 VOR ÏS within the aircraft and the error must not exceed 4o. ok.

What information does a Mach meter present?. The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound. ok.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?. At standard temperature. ok.

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?. When standard atmospheric conditions exist. ok.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?. Air temperature warmer than standard. ok.

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?. In colder than standard air temperature. ok.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates. True altitude at field elevation. ok.

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?. Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg. ok.

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?. Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated. ok.

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?. Pressure. ok.

At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately. 6,000 feet. ok.

The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to. 29.92" Hg. ok.

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will. Increase and true altitude will increase. ok.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates. True altitude at field elevation. ok.

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above. The standard datum plane. ok.

When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. ok.

En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?. Sea level. ok.

En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?. 206 feet below MSL. ok.

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?. Pressure. ok.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?. Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet. ok.

While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?. 25,000 feet. ok.

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter. To the airport elevation. ok.

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for. Better vertical separation of aircraft. ok.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy. ok.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy. ok.

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the. Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc. ok.

If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator. May show a slight climb and turn. ok.

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a. Half bar width on the attitude indicator. ok.

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?. The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns. ok.

What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?. The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes. ok.

During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?. The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left. ok.

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a. 180° turn. ok.

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a. Climb. ok.

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a. Descent. ok.

While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the. Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb. ok.

While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the. Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb. ok.

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn – and – slip indicator to determine if the. Needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid. ok.

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?. The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right. ok.

What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?. The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn. ok.

What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?. Rate of roll and rate of turn. ok.

What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?. Rate of roll and rate of turn. ok.

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?. Indirect indication of the bank attitude. ok.

Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?. Ball of the turn coordinator. ok.

What force causes an airplane to turn?. Horizontal lift component. ok.

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon. The horizontal lift component. ok.

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?. Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack. ok.

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?. Centrifugal force is grater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased. ok.

What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?. Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal. ok.

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?. Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack. ok.

During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered primary for bank?. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator. ok.

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?. 4 minutes. ok.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?. 1 minute. ok.

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?. 1 minute. ok.

During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?. Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase. ok.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?. 1 minute. ok.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?. 50 seconds. ok.

If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?. 1 minute 30 seconds. ok.

Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by. Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank. ok.

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will. Increase as angle of bank increases. ok.

(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?. Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn. ok.

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?. 3. ok.

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?. 1. ok.

(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?. Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn. ok.

(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?. 2. ok.

What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?. After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns. ok.

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should. Swing freely and indicate known headings. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. ok.

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?. 90° and 270°. ok.

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?. The magnetic dip characteristic. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. ok.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. ok.

Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?. Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise. ok.

En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?. 206 feet below MSL. ok.

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made. ok.

If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?. No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase. ok.

What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?. The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter. ok.

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?. The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent. ok.

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?. The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb. ok.

During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?. The airspeed indicator only. ok.

If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?. The altimeter to read higher than normal. ok.

(Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight. Static/pitot system is blocked, lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude indicator. ok.

(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned. Climbing turn to the right. ok.

(Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned. Straight-and-level flight. ok.

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control. ok.

What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?. Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control. ok.

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?. Aircraft control. ok.

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?. Instrument cross-check. ok.

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?. When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase. ok.

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope. Must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased. ok.

To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be. Increased if the ground speed is increased. ok.

The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon. Ground speed. ok.

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?. Power only. ok.

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will. Increase as the ground speed increases. ok.

The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight?. Magnetic compass. ok.

What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a constant rate?. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. ok.

What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?. Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. ok.

What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?. Turn coordinator. ok.

As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?. Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. ok.

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?. Airspeed indicator. ok.

What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?. Altimeter. ok.

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using. Less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator. ok.

What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?. Attitude indicator. ok.

What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. ok.

What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a standard rate turn to the left?. Attitude indicator. ok.

As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?. Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer. ok.

Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight?. Heading indicator. ok.

Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn?. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator. ok.

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?. Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. ok.

Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight?. Altimeter. ok.

Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a level turn?. Attitude indicator and VSI. ok.

Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the desired value during change of airspeed in a level turn?. Airspeed indicator. ok.

Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?. Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI. ok.

Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are. Airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack. ok.

Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?. 10 percent. ok.

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately. 10 percent of the vertical speed. ok.

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?. Attitude indicator. ok.

To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should. Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed. ok.

To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately. 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude. ok.

To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately. 50 feet. ok.

While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the. Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend. ok.

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant. The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement. ok.

(Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?. Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight. ok.

(Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?. Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading. ok.

If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?. Airspeed and altimeter. ok.

Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?. Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude. ok.

In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being. Increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. ok.

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM. ok.

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the. Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder. ok.

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. ok.

To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a. Small angle of attack and high RPM. ok.

For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a. Small angle of attack and high RPM. ok.

The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it. Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. ok.

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. ok.

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of. Airspeed and RPM. ok.

Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel. Remains constant while the density of air decreases. ok.

A flux value is found in: Directional Gyro systems and has no moving parts. ok.

The intake section of a jet engine is often considered part of the fuselage. The other four parts which are considered part of the engine are. The compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and exhaust. ok.

Hydraulic systems in modern aircraft are usually employed to. Aid in moving heavy control surfaces or accessories. ok.

Large transport category jet airplanes employ: Heated leading edges for de-icing / anti-icing. ok.

The most fuel efficient type engine for commercial passenger transport is. Turboprop. ok.

What type measurement is used to rate power on Jet or Fanjet engines. Pounds of thrust. ok.

Modern aircraft electrical systems normally consist of. Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz and 24v DC systems. ok.

Aircraft hydraulic systems use: Hydraulic fluid. ok.

Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses. In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar. ok.

If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should: Consult with a maintenance technician. ok.

If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you: Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels. ok.

Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using: Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine. ok.

At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. Below .75 Mach. ok.

How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?. mmediatly after ground contact. ok.

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?. Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place. ok.

What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?. Strong vibrations and loud roar. ok.

In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when: The ITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is obtained. ok.

Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by. It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward. ok.

What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”: Propjet. ok.

Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine exhaust: 75% propeller - 25% turbine exhaust. ok.

High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to. A turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades. ok.

A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by: Ambient temperature and pressure. ok.

If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in: ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power). ok.

What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type: A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance. ok.

Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do, this ratio on turbine type engines is: Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage. ok.

Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines. True. ok.

Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most turboprop engines because they both. Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot. ok.

With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes. ok.

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. ok.

To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?. Past the point where the jet touched down. ok.

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. ok.

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by. Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. ok.

During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the. Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath. ok.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. ok.

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?. Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route. ok.

When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs. 31.000 ft. ok.

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot. Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency. ok.

When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include. Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible. ok.

After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include. Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area. ok.

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). ok.

Light beacons producing red flashes indicate. Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation. ok.

(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?. Top red. ok.

(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found. At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. ok.

(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft. Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol. ok.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude?. Follow the rules. They are usually right. ok.

The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by. Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a mishap. ok.

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. ok.

An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves. Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. ok.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by. Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. ok.

What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. ok.

What does good cockpit stress management begin with?. Good life stress management. ok.

The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?. Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. ok.

While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?. What is the worst that could happen. ok.

Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to. Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'. ok.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction?. He flies a little closer, just to show him. ok.

To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must. Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. ok.

A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. ok.

Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?. Evaluate. ok.

Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?. Detect. ok.

The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are: Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate. ok.

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a. Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. ok.

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot. Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. ok.

The 'taxiway ending' marker. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. ok.

On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located: 500 Ft from the beginning of the runway. ok.

The area before a displaced threshold may be used: For taxiing, take off and landing rollout. ok.

A red background sign with white lettering denotes. An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft. ok.

A runway incursion is: Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway. ok.

On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if: You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway. ok.

Runway center line lights are: Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway. ok.

Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace: False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so. ok.

If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at the VOR: You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC. ok.

On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should: ¡Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC. ok.

Intersection take offs are: Allowed under dry pavement conditions only. ok.

When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes. The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil. ok.

If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the. Nose, or out in front of the airplane. ok.

The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?. Dividing total moments by total weight. ok.

Automated flight decks or cockpits. Decrease the work load in terminal areas. ok.

Identify REIL. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. ok.

What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone. ok.

What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. ok.

You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line. ok.

(Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?. 260° at 20 knots. ok.

(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing?. 17 knots. ok.

(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing?. 19 knots. ok.

What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?. -5°C. ok.

What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?. -25°C. ok.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?. 15°C and 29.92" Hg. ok.

The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on. Pressure/density altitude. ok.

What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?. As temperature increases, thrust decreases. ok.

With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use. Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes. ok.

A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is. Maintaining a safe airspeed. ok.

Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?. A power-on approach and power-on landing. ok.

A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the. Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway. ok.

What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?. Increases takeoff distance. ok.

At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed. Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. ok.

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?. Sudden increase in a headwind component. ok.

Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases. ok.

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind. ok.

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind. ok.

What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications. ok.

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. ok.

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?. When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart. ok.

Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"?. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min. ok.

What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?. Wind shear. ok.

Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. ok.

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as. 5,000 feet above the tropopause. ok.

What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT). Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air. ok.

If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended?. Mantain a constant attitude. ok.

Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence?. Descend if ambient temperature is falling. ok.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is. Developing lift. ok.

Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. ok.

What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has just taken off?. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. ok.

What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?. Light quartering tailwind. ok.

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path. ok.

If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off. beyond the point where the jet touched down. ok.

What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback?. Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors. ok.

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?. Request a clarification from ATC. ok.

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?. Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. ok.

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?. Report maintaining 8000. ok.

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes?. Over all designated compulsory reporting points. ok.

Wich reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?. Vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots, and leaving and assigned holding fix or point. ok.

TCAS I provides. proximity warning. ok.

El número de las naciones unidas asignado por el comité de expertos en transporte de MP consta de: 4 dígitos. ok.

¿Cuántas clases de MP existen?. 9. ok.

Un animal vivo infectado: Esta prohibido transportarlos por vía aérea salvo dispensa de los estados interesados. ok.

En las normas relacionadas con MP además de los idiomas exigidos por el estado de origen, debería utilizarse: Inglés. ok.

Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga MP. A menos que se haya certificado que los bultos satisfacen las condiciones pertinentes previstas en las instrucciones técnicas. Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas. Todas las anteriores.

Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte aéreo a través del servicio postal. La OACI. ok.

Todo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias explosivas se denomina: Liquido pirofórico. ok.

Las sustancias tóxicas se pueden clasificar en: Sustancias venenosas. ok.

Que mercancías no se estibaran junto a otras en una aeronave: MP incompatibles. Mercancías capaces de reaccionar peligrosamente entre si. A y B son correctas.

Todo bulto de MP llevara las etiquetas de manipulación apropiadas: Siempre. ok.

El piloto al mando puede negarse a efectuar un transporte de MP si: No se le ha proporcionado por escrito la información adecuada. ok.

Diga que frase es cierta. Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI. ok.

¿La sigla NOTOC que significa?. Notice to Captain. ok.

¿Si desea buscar una sustancia por su nombre y hallar sus propiedades, donde la buscaría?. Páginas azules de manual de regulaciones de MP de IATA. ok.

Que significa la sigla DL: Dosis letal. ok.

¿Quien asigna el grupo de embalaje?. El expedidor. ok.

En Las variaciones de los estados que significa la ultima letra que es una G: Gobierno. ok.

La letra Y en las instrucciones de embalaje significa: La cantidad que se puede transportar es menor porque no es un embalaje aprobado para el transporte de MP. ok.

Un embalaje puede ser reutilizado siempre y cuando: Sean removidas todas las etiquetas. La sustancia a empacar no vaya a reaccionar con algún componente Anterior. A y B son correctas.

TCAS II provides. traffic and resolution advisories. ok.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved. ok.

Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is expected to. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable. ok.

With no traffic identified by TCAS, you. must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions. ok.

While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach. ok.

What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course. ok.

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot. ok.

How should a pilot describe braking action?. Nil, poor, fair or good. ok.

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed. 1-1/2 minutes. ok.

Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. ok.

You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. ¡If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. ok.

What is the hijack code?. 7500. ok.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. ok.

Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?. 7500, 7600 and 7700 series. ok.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. ok.

Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to mantain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of the lift. ok.

Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff?. Increase headwind component. ok.

Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?. Critical engine failure speed. ok.

What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. ok.

When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?. 10° to 12°. ok.

An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately. 2 Miles. ok.

Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?. Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. ok.

To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to. 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. ok.

To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. ok.

What is the primary cause off all changes in the Earths weather?. Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface. ok.

Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?. High pressure area. ok.

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?. Embedded thundrestorms. ok.

What phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The start of rain at the surface. ok.

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?. Visible water. ok.

The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be. 330°. ok.

If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be. 040°. ok.

(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned. Right to a heading of 360°. ok.

Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?. Freezing rain. ok.

Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane?. Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire. ok.

ILS critical area sign indicates. The edge of the ILS critical area. ok.

Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. black inscriptions on a yellow background. ok.

Holding position signs have. white inscriptions on a red background. ok.

(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at. 3,823 feet MSL. ok.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment. ok.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area. ok.

When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of. Class D airspace. ok.

(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is. An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. ok.

(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which. There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. ok.

Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility. ok.

(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is. Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL. ok.

Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate. ok.

(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is. 700 feet AGL. ok.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. ok.

When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL. ok.

(Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?. Bottom yellow. ok.

(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which symbol?. Bottom yellow. ok.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should. Rely on aircraft instrument indications. ok.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?. Insufficient carbon dioxide. ok.

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should. Slow the breathing rate. ok.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?. Drowsiness. ok.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. ok.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. ok.

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as. Altitude increases. ok.

Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?. To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. ok.

(Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at. Glide slope intercept. ok.

(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is. 7,000 feet MSL. ok.

(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed approach point?. 5.2 NM. ok.

(Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies?. 1,320 feet. ok.

(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is. 2,400 feet MSL. ok.

The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when. Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight. ok.

(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?. One VOR receiver and DME. ok.

Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are. To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures. ok.

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until. Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure. ok.

(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of. Denver VORTAC. ok.

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?. A procedure turn is not authorized. ok.

A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when. Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix. ok.

On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made. ok.

Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the. Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used. ok.

(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?. 1,340 feet. ok.

For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a. Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR. ok.

For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for non precision. ok.

(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of. Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. ok.

VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC. False, but they are correlated. ok.

Hypoxia is the result of: All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic. ok.

A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc. 1.0 DME. ok.

If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are: 3.0 Nm from the VOR. ok.

TERPs are a US standard used for: IFR departure design criteria. ok.

When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must: Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included. ok.

Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia. True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs. ok.

Departure Procedures must: Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC. ok.

On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean: V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation. ok.

MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and: Navigation signal. ok.

When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need: Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway. ok.

1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA. ok.

In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need: A Hi or Lo enroute chart. ok.

When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed off from TWR: Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code. ok.

When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should: Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements. ok.

Position reports when required should include: Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any. ok.

You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should: Report leaving present altitude. ok.

You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should: If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time. ok.

In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs. You will fly three complete racetrack patterns. ok.

If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should: Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category. ok.

When is an IFR flight plan required?. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace. ok.

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?. Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists. ok.

To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to. Entering controlled airspace. ok.

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. Entering controlled airspace. ok.

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?. When operating in the Class A airspace. ok.

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before. Entering Class E airspace. ok.

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan. And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace. ok.

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. ok.

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. ok.

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?. 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. ok.

What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?. 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. ok.

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?. 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. ok.

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?. The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR. ok.

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?. The landing minimums for the approach to be used. ok.

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the. Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected. ok.

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected. ok.

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will. Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions. ok.

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by. An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors. ok.

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from. The FSS. ok.

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?. The point of first intended landing. ok.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. ok.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. ok.

For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. ok.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles. ok.

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?. Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan. ok.

Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?. MRA. ok.

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within. 22 NM of a VOR. ok.

For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be. 80 NM apart. ok.

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?. When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later. ok.

MEA is an altitude which assures. Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements. ok.

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?. 265 kts. ok.

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?. 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage. ok.

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?. When abeam the holding fix. ok.

(Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?. The localizer has an additional navigation function. ok.

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated airspeed above 14,000 feet?. 265 kts. ok.

What is the definition of MEA?. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage. ok.

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?. 200 kts. ok.

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?. Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later. ok.

Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only. 22 NM. ok.

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?. IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart. ok.

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made. Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves. ok.

(Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is. 7,000 feet. ok.

Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?. MRA. ok.

Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.). 1,000-foot obstacle clearance. ok.

If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?. The MEA at which the fix is approached. ok.

(Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?. 122.2, 122.3. ok.

How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?. All fixes that are labeled IAF. ok.

(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?. 15 feet. ok.

(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?. 1,800 feet MSL. ok.

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight. ok.

Aircraft approach categories are based on. 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. ok.

(Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet. Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER. ok.

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon. Arrival at the DH on the glide slope. ok.

(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?. It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM. ok.

(Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?. Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability. ok.

(Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27?. B. ok.

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?. When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”. ok.

(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?. 200 feet per minute. ok.

(Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should. Begin final approach without making a procedure turn. ok.

(Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of. Denver VORTAC. ok.

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within. The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view. ok.

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?. Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C. ok.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than. 200 kts. ok.

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?. Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published. ok.

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?. On tower frequency. ok.

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?. A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land. ok.

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?. A procedure turn is not authorized. ok.

(Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.). 635 feet per minute. ok.

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?. Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF. ok.

(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?. 46 feet MSL. ok.

(Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?. 363 feet MSL. ok.

What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?. The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft. ok.

(Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?. 480 fpm. ok.

(Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?. 800 fpm. ok.

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?. You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions. ok.

Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight. ok.

(Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?. 4 DME miles from LABER. ok.

(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?. 5,957 feet. ok.

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM. ok.

(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?. When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator. ok.

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?. Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course. ok.

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility. ok.

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. ok.

(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to. CREAK outbound. ok.

(Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?. Immediately. ok.

If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is. Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure. ok.