AVION

1.Aleft-pointing green arrow at the top of the PDF indicates: a.Autopilot is engaged. b.Copilot flight director is the master. c.Autopilot couples to the pilot flight director if the autopilot is engaged. d.Autopilot couples to the copilot flight director if the autopilot is engaged.

2.Pushing the EMER button on the audio panel: a.Connects the on-side microphone to the #2VHF COM transmitter. b.Stops the operation of the cockpit voice recorder. c.Connects to the on-side microphone directly to the #1 VHF COM transmitter and connects the on-side headphones to the #1 VHF COM and NAV receivers. d.Requires the crew to use the oxygen mask microphone to transmit.

3.Which electrical busses are automatically shed if one generator fails inflight?. a.Hot busses and emergency battery bus. b.Main and essential avionics busses. c.Both non-essential busses. d.Cross-town and local busses.

4.What is the function of the AC electrical system?. a.Charges the batteries through the inverter. b.Provides power for windshield heating. c.Functions as a backup in acse of generator failure. d.There is no AC electrical system on this airplane.

5.Low oxygen quantity is NOT indicated by: a. Amber CAS message. b.Red oxygen pressure reading on the ECS page. c.Amber quantity reading on the ECS page. d.Blue fingernails.

6.Pushing the MANUAL TEMP button to ON: a. Allows direct control of the temperature control valves. b. Does nothing;it is an inoperative button. c.Allows computer control of temperature using a duct temperature sensor. d.Allows the passengers to control temperature from their seats.

7.During the preflight inspection, the engine fire extinguisher bottles pressure must be: a.270 psi@60°F(15°C). b.Nothing;there is no pressure gauge on the fire extinguisher. c.400 to 600 psi. d.Any pressure is acceptable.

8.The APU fire extinguisher is discharged: a. Automatically by the APU ECU in case of an APU fire. b.Only if the pilot manually pushes the APU FIRE PUSH button. c. Manually by a switch in the tail equipment bay. d.Automatically only if the pilot arms it.

9.Pitch trim is accomplished: a.Hydraulically by a trim tab on the left elevator. b.Pneumatically via the horizontal stabilizer pitch trim actuator. c.Electronically by a trim tab on the right elevator. d.Electrically via the horizontal stabilizer pitch trim actuator.

10.Roll control is provided by: a.Manual ailerons. b.Hydraulic ailerons. c.Pneumatic ruddervators. d.Manual ailerons and hydraulic spoilerons.

11.When armed, what activates the rudder boost?. a.Loss of an engine. b.Rudder pedal displacement. c.Force applied to the rudder pedals. d.Automatically applied by the DEEC.

12.Failure of an AHRS unit is indicated by: a.A blank PFD screen. b.Amber ATT FAIL on the attitude indicator. c.White HDG FAIL on the heading indicator. d.Red ATT FAIL and HDG FAIL on the PFD.

13.If DU# fails, the pilot PFD can be moved: a.To DU #2 with the DU 2 reversion knob on the glareshield. b.To DU#3 with the reversion knob on the lower instrument panel. c.To DU#4 bu pushing the radar STAB button. d.It cannot be moved; PFD indications will be lost.

14.Which of the following statements is NOT true: a.Air data computers(ADC) can provide data to both PFDs. b.Standby indications are corrected by an ADC. c.Primary static ports are located in the pilot-static probes. d. TAT probe feeds temperature data to both ADCs.

15.Under what conditions would the electrical fuel standby pump be active manually?. a.During engine start. b. During XFLOW operation. c. Right pump must be activated manually for APU operation. d.During refueling.

16.Satisfactory hydraulic quantity would be indicated by: a.ADD, FULL or OK lights on the hydraulic service panel. b.OVERFULL lights on the hydraulic service panel. c.FULL or OK lights on the hydraulic service panel. d.ADD or OK lights on the hydraulic service panel.

17.How is the B-ACUM pressure recharged?. a.Automatically by the MAIN hydraulic system. b.Whenever the AUX system is pressurized by the AUX pump. c.Whenever the MAIN system is pressurized by the AUX pump. d.Only on the ground with external power.

18.What is the AFM recommendation about using the WING/STAB anti-ice on takeoff?. a.Wing/STAB heat is not recommended for use on takeoff. b.WING/STAB heat should be activated at least two minutes prior to takeoff. c.During taxi, WING/STAB heat must be OFF. d.There are no AFM recommendations on WING/STAB anti-ice use.

19.What is required for WING/STAB anti-ice?. a.Both generators must be operating. b.Ice. c.Weight-off-wheels. d.At least one BLEED switch must be ON.

20.After normal landing gear extension, the inboard gear doors are closed. a.True. b.False.

21.The GEAR amber CAS message is accompanied by: a.”GEAR” aural waming that cannot be silenced. b.”GEAR” aural waming that can be silenced with the MUTE button. c.”GEAR” aural waming that cannotbe silenced with the MASTER CAUTION button. d.Only an aural triple chime.

22.When armed, what triggers the emergency lights?. a.Dual generator failure and exceeding G-Limits. b.Passenger oxygen mask deployment. c.Exceeding G-Limits at night. d.Dual generator failure or passenger oxygen masks deployment.

23.How is a TCAS resolution advisory(RA) presented?. a.Only on the MFD visually. b.Only on the PFD visually. c.Only aurally on speaker or headset. d.Aurally on speaker or headset and visually on the PFD and MFD.

24.Long-range(white) navigation information on the PFD is selected on the: a.Flight Guidance Panel(FGP). b.Display Control Panel(DCP). c.DU2 or DU3 reversionary panels. d.FMS Display Control Unit(DCU).

25.Selection of the same short-range(green)navigation information on both PFDs: a.Is not possible. b.Result in green displays on both sides. c.Results in yellow displays on both sides. d.Displays green on the master side and yellow on the other side.

26.An amber INTEG message on PDF indicates: a.The FMS is not receiving sensor data and is in dead reckconing mode. b.GPS RAIM is not satisfactory for navigation. c.The FMS is in approach mode. d.The FMS is in command or procedural heading mode.

27.What is required to properly fly an ILS approach?. a.Green data must be selected on the PFD. b.White data must be selected on the PFD. c.The ILS must be delected from the FMS. d.The FM;S must be OFF.

28.Emergency pressurization requires that: a.The airplane is weight-off-wheels. b.At least one BLEED switch is ON. c.Cabin altitude is above 9500 feet. d.The EMER PRESS button be manually depressed.

29.The air conditioning pack is powered by: a.Engine or APU bleed air. b.The DC essential bus. c.Ground Power unit bleed air. d.The AC essential bus.

30.Selecting an ENG CMPTR switch to the MAN position: a.Sets the respective IC600 to manual fuel control. b.Allows the pilot to obtain higher APR thrust. c. Sets the respective DEEC to manual mode. d. Overrides the DEEC for quicker engine response to thrust lever movement.

31.Engine takeoff(T/O) power is set: a. By the DEEC with the thrust lever in takeoff detent. b.In MAN mode, manually by the pilot. c. In Man mode, automatically by the DEEC. d.In OFF mode, manually by the pilot.

32. Wich displays are capable of showing engine data?. a.DU 1. b.DU 5. c.DU 4. d.RMU.

33.Wich EICAS displays must be selected for takeoff and landing?. a.SUMRY and FLT. b.ELEC and HYD. c.SUMRY or FLT. d.ECS or ELEC.

34-What is the maximum landing weight?. a.21.500 lb (9299 kg). b.21.000 lb (9525 kg). c. 19.200 lb (8709 kg). d. 16.000 lb (7258 kg).

35.Do not extend the flaps or landing gear above: a.10.000 ft. b.15.000 ft. c.18.000 ft. d.There is no altitude limit for gear or flap extension.

36.What is the amperage limit for the ground power unit (GPU)?. a.No limit. b. 500 amps. c. 1000 amps. d.1500 amps.

37.All equipment related to airworthiness and regulations that are not listed in the Minimum Equipment List(MEL). a.Are not subject to MEL restrictions. b.Must be operative. c.Are covered by the AFM list of operative equipment. d.Are not required and are advisory only.

38.When performing a rolling takeoff: a. Add 300 feet to takeoff field length. b.APR thrust is not available. c.Subtract 300 feet from the takeoff field length. d.Rotate before V1.

39.Performance data for landing on a wet or contaminated runway is located in the: a.AFM Performance section. b.QRH(Checklist). c.AFM Contaminated Runway section. d.Pilot Flight Manual.

40.Engine oil level checks: a.Should be accomplished whitin one hour of engine Shutdown. b.Are only necessary every 10 hours of engine operating time. c.May be conducted with the engine running. d.Are accomplished with a sight glass on the accessory gearbox.

41.If a circuit breaker trips(pops out) after being reset: a.Firmly pull and reset the circuit breaker again. b.Wait several seconds then reset again. c.Do not attempt a second reset. d.Push in firmly and hold.

42. To accomplish an Immediate Engine Aistart procedure the pilot should first: a.Advance the thrust lever into the APR range(activates ignition). b.Retard the thrust lever to IDLE. c.Switch the engine computer to MAN and reduce power. d.Push the respective START button.

43.What is the minimum Altitude for autopilot. a.500 ft AGL. b.200 ft MSL. c.200 ft AGL. d.100 ft AGL.

44.If the green Flight Path Annunciator(FPA) symbol is above the horizon, the: a.Aircraft altitude is positive. b.Aircraft is climbing. c.Aircraft altitude is negative. d.Airspeed is decreasing.

45.The FMS can be coupled to the flight director by: a.Selecting FMS on the display control panel and HDG on the flight guidance panel. b.Selecting FMS on the display control panel and NAV on the flight guidance panel. c.Selecting NAV on the display control panel and NAV on the flight guidance panel. d.Selecting FMS on the display control panel and NAV on the RMU navigation display.

46.When calculating takeoff performance, corrections for winds are found in the: a.AFM. b.PTG. c.QRH. d.ABC.

47.Turbulence penetration speed is: a.Not specified. b.300 KIAS, 0.75 M1. c.250 KIAS, 0.73 M1. d.200 kias, 0.70 M1.

48.For a normal landing, what is desired speed on final and how is it bugged on the airspeed indicator?. a.VAPP bugged as V1. b.VREF bugged as VR. c.VREF bugged as V2. d.VMCL bugged as VREF.

49.With passengers in seats 1,2,3,4 and 150 lb of baggage, what is the zero fuel weight(ZFW) arm?. a.450.22. b.419.49. c.27.5. d.415.99.

50.With 4000 lb of fuel, what is the takeoff percent MAC?. a.Cannot be computed with the available information. b.28.66. c.27.5. d.14.45.