awdawdawd

For testing purposes, wing anti-ice can be operated on the ground for how long?. 15 seconds. 30 seconds.

Which fuel tank normally supplies the APU?. Left. Center.

What controls the aileron and elevator response?. ELACs. FACs.

How many slat segments are located on the leading edge of the wing?. Five. Seven.

On the A320, which of these has a larger travel arc during a turn?. Wing. Nose.

Is the Tail Cone area a pressurized compartment?. Yes. No.

What is the wingspan?. 33.2m (109' 10"). 34.1m (111' 10").

If a cabin door is armed, the slide _________ deploy and the emergency mode __________ operate if the door is opened from the outside. will not; will not. will; will.

It is ok to open a door when the red CABIN PRESSURE indicator is flashing. Yes!. No!.

When activated. How long should the Emergency Lights last?. 10 minutes. 20 minutes.

Which electrical bus provides the power to charge the Internal Batteries for the Emergency Light System?. DC SHED ESS BUS. AC BUS 1.

Regardless of the position of the Emer Light Switch in the flight deck, the F/A switch can activate the Emergency Lights. False. True.

The LDG LT memo displays on the ECAM when _____________. at least one Landing Light is extended. at least one Landing Light is inoperative.

If the STROBE switch is in AUTO, the strobes will operate ___________________. when the main gear struts are compressed. when the main gear struts are extended.

Which of the External Lights will automatically turn off when the landing gear is retracted, regardless of the position of their control switch?. TAXI, TO, and RWY TURN OFF. TAXI, LAND, and RWY TURN OFF.

Which Display Unit shows the Engine / Warning Display (E/WD)?. Upper ECAM. Lower ECAM.

What is the normal configuration for switches and lights on the A320?. Lights Out. Lights On.

The Fuel Quantity Display is located on the __________________. ECAM E/WD. Cruise Page.

Which color illuminates in a switch to inform the crew that a system is available?. Green. Blue.

Where are the EFIS Control Panels?. Glareshield. Pedestal.

Where is the control switch for the Standby Compass Light?. Overhead Panel. Pedestal.

When on Battery Power, which Dome light can be turned on?. Lefthand. Righthand.

Potable Water pressure is provided by _______________. bleed air. an electric motor pump. both of the above.

Waste tank negative pressure is provided by cabin differential air pressure - when the aircraft is above _____________. 26,000 ft. 16,000 ft.

Why would a pilot select the Pressurization Semi-automatic mode?. If no FMGS data is available to the CPC's. When operating with one Pack.

How many CPC's are installed on the aircraft?. Two. One.

The position of the Outflow Valve is displayed on the ECAM __________ page. CRUISE. CABIN PRESS.

The Cabin Vertical Speed displays on the DOOR/OXY page only when the aircraft is ______________. on the ground. in flight.

After landing with the Pressurization System in the MANUAL mode, _____________________. the Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) will automatically depressurize the aircraft. the Mode Selector must be returned to Auto to depressurize the aircraft.

What is the normal configuration of the Avionics Ventilation system during flight?. Closed Circuit. Open Circuit.

What is the normal configuration of the Avionics Ventilation system on the ground during a warm day?. Open Circuit. Closed Circuit.

Which fan(s) will the crew be directed to select to OVRD when the Smoke Configuration needs to be set?. Only the BLOWER Fan. Both the BLOWER and EXTRACT Fans.

The Forward compartment has only an isolation valve switch and a temperature selector. False. True.

If a duct overheat is sensed in the hot air system, the amber fault light in the Hot Air switch will illuminate, and the hot air valve will close automatically. True. False.

Whenever the cargo door is _____, such as upon arrival at the gate, the hot air valve automatically closes, shutting off heat to the cargo compartment. Closed. Open.

With the isolation SWITCH in ____, if smoke is detected in the cargo compartment, both isolation valves automatically close, displaying as cross-line amber on ECAM. Off. Auto. Open.

If one lane of an Air Conditioning System Controller fails ______________. the associated pack shuts down. the remaining lane takes over and operation remains normal.

Regardless of the selected flow rate, the system delivers high flow when; - in single-pack operation, or - ________________________. - at high altitude. - when the APU is supplying bleed air.

Which of the Air Conditioning System Controllers controls the Cabin Zone temperatures?. Air Conditioning System Controller #2. Air Conditioning System Controller #1.

Which of these ECAM pages display information about the Air Conditioning system?. CRUISE, COND, BLEED, PRESS. APU, FUEL, ELEC, PRESS.

What is the purpose of the RAM AIR system?. To ventilate the cockpit and cabin when unpressurized and no packs are operating. To provide enhanced cooling at high altitude.

Which FMGC provides signals to the Autopilots?. Both. FMGC 1.

With AP1 and AP2 engaged for a Dual Channel approach, which FMGC is the master?. FMGC 1. FMGC 2.

Which device is responsible for providing the autotune function of the Navigation Radios?. FCU. FMGS.

Pilot inputs to the FCU are considered ____________ inputs. "Managed". "Selected".

Pilot inputs to the MCDU are considered ____________ inputs. "Managed". "Selected".

When both FDs and all APs are off, the only FMA display that may be visible is ______________. the A/THR window. the lateral window.

After an Instinctive Disconnect is used, the alerts ________________. must be manually cancelled. will automatically cancel.

A CAT 3 Dual system is a fail ___________ automatic landing system. passive. operational.

Is the A/THR used for takeoff?. Yes. No.

When does the A/THR become armed?. When thrust is set for takeoff. When power is applied to the aircraft.

What is the correct method to disconnect A/THR?. Set thrust to match the current EPR, then press the Instinctive Disconnect button. Press the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU.

What is the method to re-engage the A/THR following an A/THR disconnect?. 1) Press the Instinctive Disconnect button. 2) Press the A/THR pb on the FCU. 1) Press the A/THR pb on the FCU. 2) Move the thrust levers to the CL detent.

"Selected" modes are considered__________. short term. long term.

Which of the Altitude knobs are used to set the new altitude?. Inner Knob. Outer Knob.

What is engaged when the Altitude Selector Knob is pressed?. Managed vertical mode. Altitude Hold.

What is engaged when the V/S - FPA Knob is pressed?. Level Off. Managed Vertical Mode.

What text color displays for engaged FMA modes?. Magenta. Green.

What text color displays for armed FMA modes?. Blue for "managed" modes; Magenta for "selected" modes. Magenta for "managed" modes; Blue for "selected" modes.

In which FMA row will special FMA messages appear?. Fourth. Third.

What is indicated by the temporary display of a white box around an active FMA mode?. Box displays for 10 seconds to indicate a mode has failed. Box displays for 10 seconds after a mode becomes active.

How many onboard sources of AC power are available?. three. five.

The Emergency Generator can power which buses?. AC Essential and DC Essential Buses. AC Essential and DC Bus 1.

When the APU is started, the APU Generator will automatically connect to the electrical system and cause the Engine Generators to disconnect. True. False.

Which generators are driven by an IDG?. Engine Generators and APU Generator. Engine Generators.

How many TR's are installed in the electrical system?. Three. Two.

With External Power Available, selecting the EXT PWR switch to ON will _____________. Disconnect the Engine generators power source and apply External Power to both sides. Disconnect the APU power source and apply External Power to both sides.

The AC ESS BUS is normally powered by _________. AC Bus 1. AC Bus 2.

Which circuit breakers are monitored by the FWS; and which circuit breakers feed components that are monitored by the FWS?. Black; Green. Green; Black.

An amber FAULT light illuminates in an IDG pushbutton if the IDG oil temperature is too high or ______________. the Oil Pressure is too low. the Oil Pressure is too high.

If a failure of an AC BUS occurs, the remaining DC Bus will power the DC Bus on the depowered side. False. True, after about 5 seconds.

Which power source is required to operate the Maintenance Bus Switch?. APU Power. External Power.

When the Battery Switches are selected to AUTO on a cold aircraft, the ____________ is powered by the Batteries. AC ESS BUS. DC BAT BUS and DC ESS BUS.

Before an engine is started, it is normal for the amber FAULT light in the respective Generator switch to be on. True. False.

After both engines have been started, the APU voltage and frequency information continue to display on the ECAM ELEC page until _________________. The APU is shutdown. Both Engine Generators are on line.

What will cause the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light to illuminate?. EMER GEN not providing power with both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 depowered. A Short on any AC Bus.

Which of these MAN ON pushbuttons will deploy the RAT and also activate the GCU for the Emergency Generator?. MAN ON located on the EMER ELEC PWR panel. RAT MAN ON located on the Hydraulic Control panel.

Which Spoiler panels are deployed as speedbrakes?. 1, 2, 3, and 4. 2, 3, and 4.

What is the name of the computers that normally provide control for the Elevators and Ailerons?. SECs. ELACs.

What is the name of the computers that provide back-up control for the Elevators and Ailerons?. SECs. ELACs.

What is the name of the computers that provide control for the Flaps and Slats?. ELACs. SFCCs.

The EFCS will not maintain á more than VáMAX, even if the pilot holds the side stick full aft. True. False, the EFCS will not maintain alpha above VáPROT.

What is the "at rest" position for the Ailerons when the aircraft is on the ground?. Droop. Trail.

After takeoff, the Normal Law - Ground Mode will blend to the Flight Mode when: RA > 30, Aircraft in Flight, Pitch > 6 degrees. RA > 50, Aircraft in Flight, Pitch > 8 degrees.

During Manual flight, the amount of side stick displacement ________________________. is directly proportional to the surface deflections. determines the pitch and roll rate.

The Flight Director will disappear if the Angle of Bank exceeds ______________. 33 degrees. 45 degrees.

The modes available when operating with Alternate Law with Reduced Protections are: ____________________________. Takeoff, Flight, Flare. Flight, Flare, Ground.

The roll mode can operate with Alternate Law. True. False; it goes to Direct Law.

When operating in Abnormal Attitude Law, the Low Speed and High Speed protections are _____________. lost. available.

Mechanical back-up control allows mechanical input to control the _____________, and the ___________________. Rudder; Elevator. Rudder; THS.

With one SFCC inoperative, the flaps ____________________. do not operate. operate at half speed.

With one hydraulic system inoperative, the flaps ____________________. do not operate. operate at half speed.

There are ______ Slat surfaces on each wing and _______ Flap surfaces on each wing. 5; 2. 4; 2.

If the Wing Tip Brake for the Slats is engaged, can the Flaps be operated?. No. Yes.

Once a Wing Tip Brake is engaged, can the crew reset it?. Yes. No.

Fuel that flows through the IDG cooler, is returned to the _____________ . Inner Tank of the respective wing. Outer Tank of the respective wing.

The Wing Tank pumps are physically located in the _____________ . Surge Tank. Center Tank. Inner Tank. Outer Tank.

When does the APU Fuel Pump operate?. On approach and landing. First flight of the day. When the APU is running and there is no other source of fuel pressure. Anytime the APU is running.

From which tank(s) can the engines gravity feed?. Wing and Center Tanks. Center Tank Only. Wing Tanks Only.

What is the purpose of the Recirculation System?. It provides IDG cooling through fuel flow. It keeps the fuel warm.

If the Center Tank Transfer switches are both selected to OFF, _______________. the FOB is pulsing green. the FOB is halfboxed in amber.

The FAULT light in a Fuel Pump switch indicates _______________. the pump is selected ON but output pressure is low. the pump is selected OFF.

With both Center Tank Transfer switches ON and the Mode Selector in AUTO, the Center Tank Transfer valves will close _________ the Center tank is empty. 5 minutes after. immediately when.

What causes the Transfer Valves to open?. They automatically open when the tank Low Level sensors are dry. A Control Switch on the Overhead Panel.

How long do the Transfer Valves remain open?. They remain open until the Outer Tanks are empty. They remain open until the aircraft is refueled.

Which Transfer Valves are controlled by the Low Level sensor in the Left Wing Inner Tank?. One Transfer Valve in the Left Wing and One Transfer Valve in the Right Wing. Both Transfer Valves in the Left Wing.

Can the Center Tank be refueled at the same time as the Wing Tanks?. No. Yes.

Approximately how long does it take to refuel all tanks?. 20 minutes. 10 minutes.

Can the aircraft be refueled when only Battery Power is available?. Yes. No.

What is the purpose of the PTU?. To allow the Yellow system to pressurize the Green system or vice versa. To allow the Yellow system to pressurize the Blue system or vice versa.

Is there ever a condition that allows hydraulic fluid to migrate from one system to another system?. Yes. No.

What situation will cause the RAT to automatically deploy?. Loss of an engine or an AC Main Bus. Total loss of electrical power or dual engine failure.

The amber FAULT Lt in which of the pushbuttons will illuminate if the Reservoir Level in the Green or Yellow system is low?. ELEC. PTU.

Under which of the following conditions will the Blue ELEC Pump NOT operate?. Selected ON, but both engines running in flight. Selected ON, but no engines running on the ground.

The normal position of the Yellow ELEC Pump pushbutton for flight is ___________. ON. OFF.

What part of the wing can be heated by the Wing Anti-ice?. Three most outboard Slats. Three most inboard Slats.

Can Wing Anti-ice operate on the ground?. No. Yes, but only for a limited time.

What part of the engine can be heated by the Engine Anti-ice?. Engine Bullet and Nacelle. Engine Nacelle.

Can Engine Anti-ice operate on the ground?. No. It can only operate in flight. Yes. It can operate on the ground or in flight.

What are the two positions of the PROBE HEAT pushbutton?. AUTO or ON. OFF or ON.

The Wing Anti-ice can be used to________________ ice from the wing leading edges. prevent or remove. prevent.

The Wing Anti-ice valves will open __________________. on the ground for 30 seconds. only in flight.

The Wing Anti-ice valves require an electrical signal and pneumatic pressure to open. False. True.

When the WING or Engine Anti-ice is on, the _____________ is automatically decreased. Idle. Thrust Limit.

With loss of normal electrical power, the Wing Anti-ice valves fail _________, and the Engine Anti-ice valves fail _________. closed; open. open; closed.

What position of the PROBE/WINDOW Heat pb, will only activate the Probe and Window heat if at least one engine is running or the aircraft is in flight. ON. AUTO.

In flight the IR 1 FAULT light is flashing amber meaning ______. the IR 1 is lost for the remainder of the flight. the IR 1 may function for attitude and heading if selected to ATT.

In addition to degraded Heading performance, what feature of the ADIRU is lost when the ATT mode is selected?. Position Data. Attitude Data.

During normal operations, when should the ON BAT light come on?. When the aircraft is on the ground. When each IR section is first powered by selecting NAV.

On the ground, if an ADIRU is operating on battery power, _______________ to alert the ground crew of the battery drain. an external horn sounds and the ADIRU and AVNCS light illuminates on the Ground Power Panel. a red Battery light flashes in the flight deck.

How does the crew normally enter the Present Position information to all 3 ADIRU's?. Normally the crew enters the present position to the MCDU. Present Position is automatically entered.

Weather radar can be displayed on the ________ . PFD. ND.

The Radar Tilt is based upon ______________________. aircraft pitch. the horizon.

Where is the Radar Control Panel in the Flight Deck?. Overhead Panel. Aft portion of the pedestal.

How is the CHR feature of the Clock reset?. By pushing the RST button. By pushing the CHR button.

To set the internal clock time, the GPS/INT/SET selector must be in the ______ position. SET. GPS or INT.

Where is the CHRONO display control for the ND?. Outer portion of the glareshield. On the clock.

Pressing the ________ pushbutton causes the localizer and glideslope scales to appear on the associated PFD. PFD. LS.

Concerning the Optional Data Display pushbuttons. How many of these buttons can be pushed at a time?. Five. One.

Concerning the displayed Range on the ND. If the mode or range data fails, the default display is the _______ mode with a default range of _____ NM. ARC; 160. ROSE NAV; 80.

The ADF - VOR selectors can be used to display the VOR or ADF bearing on all displays except the ______ mode. PLAN. ARC.

A failure of a PFDU will result in ____________________. the PFD automatically appearing on the respective ND. a loss of the PFD for the respective pilot.

Which DMC normally provides the images to the SD?. DMC 3. DMC 1.

With a failure of the ECAM UPPER DU, the E/WD __________________. is not available. automatically moves to the LOWER DU.

With a failure of the ECAM LOWER DU, the SD can be temporarily viewed on the UPPER DU by __________________. pressing and holding the desired SD button on the ECAM Control Panel. pressing the PFD/ND XFR switch.

With a failure of the ECAM UPPER or LOWER DU, the SD can be viewed on one of the NDs by ______________. movement of the ECAM/ND XFR switch. movement of the DMC XFR switch.

The flap/slat position indications appear on the ____________________. E/WD. PFD.

If a failure occurs prior to an inhibited phase, the E/WD displays the warning immediately and will also continue to display it during the inhibited phase and until it is corrected or the crew has cleared it from ECAM. False. True.

When a Primary failure is displayed on the left side of the E/WD, you will be able to view the Secondary failures on the __________________. Right side of the SD. Right side of the E/WD.

When a Primary failure is displayed on the left side of the E/WD, you will be able to view the Secondary failures on the __________________. Right side of the Sea. Right side of the E/WD.

After a failure of the upper DU (or if the upper DU brightness is turned off), the E/WD is displayed on the lower DU. How can a pilot display a SD page under this condition?. Press and hold the desired SD page button on the ECAM control panel, or press the ND XFR pushbutton. Turn off the brightness of the lower DU.

ISIS provides a standby display for which of the following?. Airspeed, Altitude, Attitude, Landing System. Airspeed, Altitude, Attitude, Heading, and Landing System.

How does the pilot change the barometric setting to STD?. Press the BARO set knob. Press the PLUS or MINUS pushbuttons.

An active route is depicted in which color?. Green. Magenta.

While most waypoints are depicted in green, the "TO" waypoint is depicted in _________________. Magenta. White.

How many display modes are available for the ND?. Five. Four.

Which mode provides similar information as the ARC mode, but is displayed on a full compass rose?. PLAN. NAV.

Weather radar can display in all ND modes EXCEPT the ___________ mode. PLAN. VOR.

The Flight Path Vector and Flight Path Director are displayed when the ____________ mode is selected. TRK-FPA. HDG-V/S.

The Airspeed Trend Arrow appears when the predicted speed is ________ in the next 10 seconds. more than 10 kts. more than 2 kts.

The Vertical Speed displays in a digital format when the rate of climb or descent is above _______________. 200 FPM. 2000 FPM.

Normal Landing Gear Extension / Retraction is provided by the _________ hydraulic system. Green. Yellow.

The Normal Brake system pressure is provided by the _________ hydraulic system. Green. Yellow.

Parking Brake operation is provided by the _________ hydraulic system. Green. Yellow.

A wheel Brake Temperature arc appears in amber when the temperature exceeds _____________ Celsius. 200 degrees. 300 degrees.

Is the Autobrake system operable when the Alternate Brakes are active?. Yes. No.

Does Anti-skid operate when braking is available from the Accumulator?. No. Yes.

Does the Anti-skid operate with Alternate Brakes when there is a BSCU failure?. No. Yes.

Approximately, how many brake applications are available when operating on Accumulator brakes?. Five. Seven.

A Safety Valve is installed in the system to isolate the Green system pressure from the Landing Gear when the airspeed exceeds ____________, or when the Landing Gear Lever is UP. 260 kts. 180 kts.

When does the red down arrow appear on the Landing Gear Indicating panel?. When one or more gear are not locked down after gear extension. When all gear are locked down after gear extension.

The Landing Gear Indicator Panel displays the red and green lights for the landing gear. The lights are operational as long as_________ is electrically powered. LGCIU #1. LGCIU #2.

The N/W STRG DISC memo appears when the Tow Control Lever is set to bypass the Nosewheel Steering. At what point does the memo change color from green to amber?. After start of the first engine. If the Tow Bypass Lever is not set for pushback when movement is sensed.

What is the maximum steering angle that can be commanded by the rudder pedals at low ground speed?. 15 degrees in either direction. 6 degrees in either direction.

Hydraulic pressure is provided to the Nosewheel Steering by the __________ system, when the nose gear doors are closed. Blue. Yellow.

What is the normal method the pilot will use to select a VOR station?. Entry to the Radio Nav page of the MCDU. Selection on the VOR radio control panel.

If radio tuning on the MCDU is not available, where can the pilot manually tune a navigation radio?. On the FCU. On the RMP.

The FMGS provides autotuning of the navigation radios to provide ______________ information to the aircraft systems. altitude. position.

The GPWS processes data received from _______________________________________. RA 2, ADIRS 2, ILS 2, FMGC 2, LGCIU 2. RA 1, ADIRS 1, ILS 1, FMGC 1, LGCIU 1.

What is the approximate time before impact for a Look Ahead Terrain Caution?. 30 to 50 seconds. 40 to 60 seconds.

Concerning the Terrain Clearance Floor: The EGPWS provides TCF alerts only for the destination airport as determined by the FMS. True. False.

What is the primary purpose of GPWS Mode 4 alerts?. To provide alert to protect against controlled flight into terrain. To provide alert for flight below the Glide Slope.

What is the normal mode that displays on the GPS MONITOR page?. NAV. ACQ.

An ECAM GPS 1 FAULT annunciation is inhibited during _____________. Cruise Flight. Takeoff and Landing.

What is indicated when "ACQ" is the mode displayed on the GPS MONITOR page?. The GPS is attempting to locate sufficient satellites for the NAV mode. The GPS is attempting to acquire data from the ADIRUs.

What happens if one GPS fails?. The ADIRUs automatically get GPS data from the remaining GPS. The pilot must move the ATT HDG selector.

Predictive Windshear Advisories are available from ____________ to ___________ AGL. 1500'; 50'. 2300'; 50'.

Which of these systems has priority over the Predictive Windshear Alerts?. None. PWS alerts have highest priority. TCAS. GPWS.

You have received a Predictive Windshear Warning alert: The windshear is detected within _____ ahead of your aircraft if you're on the ground; or _____ ahead if you're in flight. 3 NM; 1.5 NM. 1 NM; 3 NM.

Which of the Predictive Windshear Alerts will not produce an aural alert?. Caution. Advisory.

How can you display the ILS information on the PFD?. Rotate the ND Nav Selector to the ILS position. Press the LS pushbutton.

If the ND Nav Selector is positioned to the ILS position, the ____________ will display on your ND. opposite ILS radio. respective ILS radio.

The compass signal to the DDRMI is normally provided by ADIRU 1, but can be alternately provided by ___________. ADIRU 3. ADIRU 2.

If an RMP is used to tune the ILS, ________ are tuned to the selected frequency and course. ILS 1. both ILS radios.

If an RMP is used to tune the VOR, ___________ is/are tuned to the selected frequency and course. both VOR's. the respective VOR.

In order for the TCAS system to see the aircraft, the aircraft must be within a maximum range of 30 - 100 NM, and within a maximum altitude range of ______ feet. 9,900. 12,000.

Full TCAS operation requires an operating __________ transponder on all associated aircraft to send and receive the signals. Mode C. Mode S.

A “corrective” RA requires __________________________. the crew to maintain the current vertical speed. a vertical manuever by the crew.

The Above (ABV) position is similar to the ALL position, but traffic is displayed if it is within 9,900’ above and ______’ below your altitude. 9900'. 2700'.

TCAS Advisories are inhibited for intruders below 380’ AGL when your altitude is below ______AGL. 1700'. 2500'.

"Increase Descent” RA's are inhibited below _______ AGL. 1000'. 1450'.

Aircraft with a Mode C transponder are equipped with TCAS. False. True.

What mode should be selected while operating in single engine situations?. TA/RA. TA Only.

All TA aural alerts are inhibited below _____ AGL. 500'. 600' when ascending 400' when descending.

The Crew Oxygen system provides oxygen to ____ crew masks. four. two.

The Passenger Oxygen system is installed to provide oxygen during _____________________. decompression. smoke conditions.

The DOOR/OXY ECAM page displays the available pressure in the ____________ bottles. flight crew oxygen. passenger oxygen.

Where is the oxygen blow out disc that is inspected during the pre-flight inspection?. left forward fuselage. right forward fuselage.

If the bottle pressure is below ______ the pressure display pulses. If the bottle pressure is below ______ the pressure and the CKPT OXY label display in amber. 600; 300. 500; 200.

Does the mask have to be removed from the container to perform a preflight oxygen mask test?. No. Yes.

The fixed cabin oxygen system is designed to automatically open the container doors and drop the oxygen masks at ___________ cabin altitude. 11,000 ft. 14,000 ft.

The continuous flow mask _________ provide protection for smoke inhalation. does not. does.

What is the purpose of the MANUAL MASK ON pushbutton?. To manually activate the release of only one oxygen mask container door. To manually activate the release of all oxygen mask container doors.

What is the purpose of the Manual Release Tool?. To manually activate the release of all oxygen mask container doors. To manually activate the release of only one oxygen mask container door.

The white SYS ON light will illuminate __________. If the container doors have been signaled to open by the automatic system or the MANUAL MAN ON pushbutton. Only if the container doors have been signaled to open by the automatic system.

An oxygen generating canister can provide oxygen for about ________ minutes. 30. 15.

Which stage of bleed air is the normal supply to the pneumatic system?. IP. HP.

The Ground Compressed Air and the APU air are applied to which side of the pneumatic system?. Right. Left.

With the X BLEED switch in AUTO, the Engine Bleed Valves will be _________ when the APU Bleed Valve is open. closed. open.

The Engine Bleed Valves are controlled by ____________________. the associated BMC. the associated Bleed switch.

With the X BLEED Selector in AUTO, the engine bleed valves will ___________ when the APU bleed valve is open and APU air is supplied to the pneumatic system. Open. Close.

With the X BLEED Selector in AUTO, the X Bleed Valve will ___________ when the APU bleed valve is open and APU air is supplied to the pneumatic system. Open. Closed.

Which of the following ECAM valve indicators always displays green (does not display amber during transit) but will display crossline in amber if the APU MASTER and the APU BLEED switch is on for mre than 10 seconds?. Engine Bleed. APU Bleed.

The APU can provide electrical power up to what altitude?. Maximum Certified Altitude. 35,000'.

The APU can provide pneumatic air to operate ______ pack(s) at 20,000'. One. Two.

Where is the APU Inlet Air "flap"?. bottom of the aft fuselage. right side of the fuselage.

What is the name of the component that controls the APU start and operation?. Electronic Control Box (ECB). GPU.

Where are the cockpit controls for the APU?. Overhead Panel. Pedestal.

Will the APU starter engage before the FLAP OPEN annunciation appears on the ECAM APU Page?. Yes. No.

If the ECAM APU Page is not displayed, what other indication appears to let you know the APU is running?. The blue light in the Master switch goes out. The green AVAIL light in the Start Pushbutton comes on.

What is different about an APU Battery Start?. The APU starts much slower. The ECAM does not display.

What is the nominal delay time for APU shutdown with APU bleed air in use?. 60 to 120 seconds. 30 to 60 seconds.

The APU will automatically shut down if an APU Fire is detected ____________________________. on the ground or in flight. on the ground.

The APU Agent bottle will automatically discharge three seconds after an APU Fire Warning when the aircraft is ________________. on the ground or in flight. on the ground.

Where is the red disc that indicates the APU bottle has not been discharged?. on the aft fuselage, just below the left horizontal stabilizer. on the aft fuselage, just below the right horizontal stabilizer.

What occurs when the External APU Shutoff pushbutton is pressed?. APU shutdown is confirmed and the external horn is cancelled. APU Agent bottle is discharged.