B767-400 DIFERENCIAS

1. The 767-400 fuselage stretch added approximately 13 new frame stations. How were these stations distributed along the fuselage?. A. 6 forward and 7 aft. B. 13 forward with none aft. C. 10 forward and 3 aft.

What is the function of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) between the left and right hydraulic systems?. A. Provides emergency hydraulic power to operate the landing gear. B. Supplies a third source of hydraulic power to the horizontal stabilizer. C. Transfers hydraulic fluid from the left reservoir into the center system.

3. What is the function of the transfer cylinder during main landing gear extension?. A. Prevents the door latch from unlocking until the gear reaches full extension position. B. Keeps constant retraction pressure applied after the gear is fully down locked. C. Lifts the gear weight off the main gear doors until the door latch unlocks.

4. After all landing gear is UP and the doors are closed, what is the purpose of the AUTO-OFF function?. A. Sends continuous UP pressure to maintain maximum retraction pressure. B. Energizes the DOWN solenoids to keep the bypass valves partially pressurized. C. Removes electrical power from the UP solenoids to move selector valves to OFF.

5. Which unit provides protective functions for the external power system?. A. IDG. B. BPCU. C. GCU.

6. When selecting the ground service power source which supply has priority if more than one source is available?. A. APU generator power. B. Right main AC bus. C. Primary external power.

7. Why does a WARNING level system fault bypass the DPC logic circuit?. A. Prevents those warnings from being stored inside the DPC message memory. B. Stops those warnings from being delayed by DPC inhibit timing before display. C. Ensures the message goes directly to the alert list on the EICAS primary display.

8. What is the purpose of the automatic center tank scavenge system?. A. Increases the vent airflow to reduce tank pressure. B. Transfers remaining center tank fuel to the main tanks. C. Drains excess fuel directly overboard during refuel.

9. What is the highest priority time source used by the FMC’s?. A. UTC from the onside MMR. B. Time from the onside clock. C. UTC from the offside MMR.

10. When a cabin attendant dials the flight deck using the cabin interphone handset, what cockpit indication confirms the call?. A. Pink call light illuminates at the pilots call panel and a low chime sounds. B. Amber fault annunciation illuminates at the pilots call panel and no chime. C. Blue location indicator illuminates at the pilots call panel and a high chime.

11. Where are the HF transceivers located?. A. Main equipment center. B. Forward equipment center. C. Aft equipment center.

12. What makes an ALERT call different from a normal attendant call in the cabin?. A. All pink lights only remain steady with no flashing and a single hi-lo chime sounds once. B. All pink attendant lights flash at one-second intervals and the hi-lo chime repeats three times. C. Only a single short chime sound is made once and all lights stay steady illuminated.

13. Where is the Mid Equipment Centre located?. A. Aft of the FWD cargo compartment door. B. Mid section of the aircraft belly. C. Aft of the nose wheel well below flight deck.

14. If flap load relief fails, what indication will the crew see?. A. “FLAP LOAD RELIEF” level C message displayed on EICAS. B. “FLAP LOAD RELIEF” message displayed adjacent to the flap indicator. C. “FLAP CONFIGURATION” caution message displayed on EICAS.

15. Where can the horizontal stabilizer position indicator be found?. A. At the EICAS primity engine display. B. One each on P1 panel and on P2 panel. C. On each side of the P10 control stand.

16. What inputs do the YSMs use to control the outboard aileron lockout actuators?. A. Speed and Mach inputs coming from the three ADIRUs. B. Lateral spoiler scheduling data coming from the spoiler control modules. C. Control wheel roll commands signals from both FCCs.

17. Which unit acts as the backup receiver of the delta-P signals coming from the pack flow valve?. A · FCV. B · CTC. C · ASCTU.

18. What is the function of the turbine bypass valve in the air conditioning pack?. A. Adjusts the pack temperature output based on mixed manifold sensing. B. Regulates the condenser inlet temperature at the primary turbine stage. C. Limits the ram airflow amount passing through the compressor discharge.

19. During normal operation, which torque motor controls the servo pressure to the open side of the actuator?. A. ASCTU torque motor. B. Cabin vent system. C. CTC torque motor.

20. What type of light source is used for the wing anticollision probe?. A. High-intensity xenon probe unit. B. Halogen high temperature lamp assembly. C. High-output LED emitter module.

21. What is a correct characteristic of the yaw damper operation?. A. The yaw damper uses direct pedal position feedback to calculate the corrective rudder action. B. The yaw damper requires flight crew pedal input to create yaw dampening commands. C. There is no rudder pedal feedback resulting from yaw damper rudder actuator movement.

22. Under which condition does "NO AUTOLAND" show on the PFD autoland status?. A. Two autoland channel is downgraded but the remaining channel still operates normally. B. The autoland system is not available, or if multi-channel is not engaged below 600 feet AGL. C. The autoland system is in dual channel and above 1500 feet AGL.

23. C-index MAP mode. What condition will cause the map failure flag to show on the ND?. A. ADIRU sends inconsistent pitch and roll data to the display computer. B. FMC map background or latitude and longitude is missing for more than 35 seconds. C. Aircraft bank angle exceeds 25 degrees for more than 70 seconds.

24. When will Mach be displayed on the PFD?. A. Whenever barometric altitude is selected in HEAD mode. B. When indicated airspeed is approximately above 0.40 Mach. C. When the airspeed tape is sending upward more than 20.

25. Stall warning system uses GPS deviation specification to generate aural alert. Which unit does this?. A. AFDS using Centre IRS data. B. Display processor using ND deviation. C. GPWS Computer using left IRS.

26. The 767-900 fuselage stretch added approximately 13 new frame stations. How are these stations distributed along the fuselage?. A. 6 forward and 7 aft. B. 13 forward and none aft. C. 10 forward and 3 aft.

27. Why does each CFDS CRU connect to the DPC at a specific left-centre-right node?. A. Improve Ethernet bus shielding from HF noise in the cabin. B. Identify which DPC is receiving data so the system knows the source. C. Balance current loads between the three DPC so power sharing stays equal.

28. When pressing the G/S INHB light/switch, when does it actually inhibit the mode 5 announcements?. A. Before mode 5 begins. B. During normal cruise only. C. After mode 5 begins.

29. What input is used by the ADIRU?. A. Barometric correction signals from the EFIS Control Panel for the ADIRU. B. Radio altimeter height information is used to compare the barometric altitude. C. GPS satellite signal strength variation is used to compensate the altitude variation.

30. What does the "Pitch" flag on the PFD indicate?. A. Pitch command disagreement over 3 degrees. B. Pitch feedback difference between FCC and TRV. C. Pitch difference between Captain and First Officer.

31. When would ATT mode be used and what does it still provide?. A. IRS NAV fails but attitude works, gives pitch and roll. B. CDU fails but ADR works, gives only computed heading. C. ARINC data fails but IR works, gives only basic attitude.

32. What is the purpose of the differential pressure sensor in the pilot-static system?. A. Prevent RAT deployment when airspeed drops below stall protection logic. B. Supplies backup air data to the captain standby flight instruments. C. Convert pilot and static pressure difference into cabin differential pressure information.

33. What inputs do the YSMs use to control the outboard aileron lockout actuators?. A · Speed and Mach inputs coming from the three ADIRUs. B · Lateral spoiler scheduling data coming from the spoiler control modules. C · Control wheel roll commands signals from both FCCs.