B787

The correct runway slope limits for the 787 are?. +3-2 percent. +2-1 percent. +/-2 percent. 1+2 percent.

The Maximum operating altitude of the 787 is?. 42,100 feet pressure altitude. 43,100 feet pressure altitude. 43,300 feet pressure altitude. 42,000 feet pressure altitude.

The maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component of the 787 is?. 10 knots. 15 knots. 25 knots. 18 knots.

The maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the 787 is?. 8,000 feet pressure altitude. 8,800 feet pressure altitude. 8,400 feet pressure altitude. 14,000 feet pressure altitude.

Turbulent air penetration speed for the 787 at and above 25,000’ is defined as: 300KIAS/.80Mach. 280KIAS/.78Mach. 290KIAS/.82Mach. 310KIAS/.84Mach.

Turbulent air penetration speed (severe turbulence) for the 787 below 25,000’ is defined as: 290 knots. 310 knots. 280 knots. 300 knots.

Select the correct weight limitations for the 787-8: 228.383 227.930 172.365 161.025. 229.000 228.000 173.000 161.000.

The maximum differential pressure (relief valves) for the 787 is?. 7.9 psi. 8.8 psi. 9.6 psi. 9.9 psi.

The maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing is?. .08 psi. .11 psi. .25 psi. .50 psi.

Which answer below is correct pertaining to Anti –Ice operation on the 787 ?. Engine anti-ice must be in auto on the ground or in flight if icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is below -40 C OAT. During ground operations in icing conditions when the OAT is 3 degrees C or below, the engine must be run up momentarily to a minimum of 70% N1 at intervals not to exceed 60 minutes. Do not use anti-ice if the OAT or TAT exceeds 10 degrees Celsius. Wing anti-ice can be turned on and used after engine start during taxi.

What is the minimum width of pavement needed for 180 degree turn?. 42.2 Mts. 43.8 Mts. 40.5 Mts.

To ensure obstacle clearance while taxiing in a turn. What is the minimum obstacle clearance required by the wingtip?. 15 feet (4.6 m). 14 feet (4.3m). 16 feet (4.9m).

Which statement concerning the use of the Autopilot system is correct?. The autopilot must not be engaged below a minimum altitude of 100 feet AGL after takeoff. The autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends below the MDA unless it is coupled to an ILS glideslope and localizer or in the go–around mode. Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below 100 feet AGL. Do not use the autopilot below 100 feet RA at airport pressure altitudes above 8,000 feet.

How long the IRS selector must be paced in OFF for alignment?. 45 seconds. 10 seconds. 30 seconds. 60 seconds.

On which CDU page is RNP /ACTUAL for departure verified?. POS REF page 2. PROG page 1. DEP/ARR INDEX page. NAV/RADIO page.

The maximum Glide Slope angle for automatic landing: 3.77 degrees. 2.5 degrees. 3.25 degrees.

For all flaps-down operations (any time the flaps are not full-up) the minimum maneuver speed is the slowest speed that provides full maneuver capability, 1.3g or 40° of bank (25° of bank and 15° overshoot) to stick shaker. The top of the amber band does not vary with g load. True. False.

Tail Strike Pitch Attitude(degrees) for 787-8 is?. 12. 12.3. 11.2.

The maximum rate of climb may be obtained by using this speed schedule: VREF 30 + 140 knots until intercepting 0.82M. VREF 30 + 80 knots until intercepting 0.80M. VREF 30 + 60 knots until intercepting 0.78M.

The altitude shown on the CRZ page that accounts for forecast winds and temperatures aloft along the flight plan route, is: recommended (RECMD) altitude. optimum (OPT) altitude. Maximum (MAX) altitude.

If the autothrottle is engaged, the thrust lever begins to reduce toward idle at ______ feet during flare. 10 Ft. 25 Ft. 30 Ft.

When the landing weather minima are predicated on the autoland operations the following limits apply for Headwind, Tailwind and Crosswind. 25, 10, 25. 25, 15, 25. 25, 10, 20.

Flight Deck Communications Systems (Datalink) Pre-Departure Clearance, Digital Automatic Terminal Information Service, Oceanic Clearances, Weight & Balance, and Takeoff Data messages can be transmitted and received via the COMPANY format if they are verified per approved operational procedures. TRUE. FALSE.

Engine bleed air is used less on the B787 than for other similar aeroplane types. What services does it supply on the B787?. Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine core and inlet cowl antiice operations. Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine start and inlet cowl anti– ice operations. Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is also used for cabin pressurization and engine core and inlet cowl anti-ice operations. All of the above are correct.

Which are the correct indications of a properly entered access code?. Produces a warning level alert to the flight crew and an amber light on the key pad. Produces a green light on the key pad. Produces an EICAS message.

When the EEC automatically switches an engine to the alternate mode and the EEC mode switch remains in NORM, the EEC is in: the soft alternate mode. the hard alternate mode.

The maximum tank fuel temperature for Jet A fuel is: 49 degrees Celsius. 60 degrees Celsius. 57 degrees Celsius.

Select the correct answer or answers pertaining to the following Reverse Thrust statements: Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited. Position reverse thrust levers full down (forward thrust) decelerating through 80 knots. Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is prohibited. Both a & c are correct. All of the above are correct.

Select the correct answer or answers regarding the engine oil system requirements for Rolls Royce Model Trent-1000 series engines on the 787: The engine oil temperature must be -40 degrees C or greater for engine start and have an indicated increase before advancing thrust levers to takeoff power. After landing operate the engine for at least 5 minutes. Both a and b are correct.

Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if center tank fuel is loaded. However the center tank may contain up to _________of fuel with less than full main tanks provided center tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and center of gravity limits are observed. 1.000 KG. 10.000 KG.

Which statement is NOT correct with respect to the flight controls?. Takeoff is permitted only in the normal or secondary mode. Do not extend flaps above 20,000 feet.

Entry and cargo door open wind limit is: 65 knots. 50 knots. 40 knots. 30 knots.

Pilots are not authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to comply with a TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA). TRUE. FALSE.

The EFIS control panels control display options, mode, and range for the respective PFDs and NDs. If an EFIS control panel fails: The displays can be controlled through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page. The backup EFIS capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel. The displays can be controlled through the related CDU. This CDU capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel.

Dimensions of the 787-8: 60.1 56.7 16.9 22.8. 60 57 17 23.

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within _____ of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain data base. 25 NM. 50 NM. 05 NM. 15 NM.

Which of the following is/are true regarding the flight deck overhead door?. The door can be opened only on the ground with the airplane depressurized. The door opens outward. Pull and rotate the door lock lever to the open position to open the door. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

The CABIN TEMP selector sets a master reference temperature between. 18 C and 29 C. 20 C and 28 C. 16C and 30 C.

The humidification system operates automatically during cruise when the HUMID switch is on and is automatically switched off approximately in?. 20 min Prior to touch down. 30 min Prior to touch down. 1 ½ Hrs Prior to touch down.

Which of the following statements are correct concerning the evacuation signal system when the flight deck EVAC COMMAND switch is in the ON position?. EVAC COMMAND EICAS warning is displayed on the flight deck. EVAC lights flash at the designated flight attendant switch panels. An audio horn sounds over the cabin PA system. All of the above are correct.

The passenger cabin oxygen system is supplied by gaseous oxygen stored in small high pressure cylinders. The passenger oxygen masks automatically drop from the passenger service units (PSUs) prior to the cabin altitude reaching the greater of: 13,500 feet. The origin airfield altitude +2000 feet or destination airfield +2000 feet. 15,000 feet. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

The main battery provides power for: • airplane power-up • APU start (assists APU battery) • refueling operations • towing operations • electric braking (as a backup power source) • captain’s flight instruments (after a power failure, energizes essential instruments until RAT deployment). TRUE. FALSE.

The Alternate Ventilation System (AVS) provides an alternate means of ventilating the cabin and flight deck in the event that both packs are inoperative. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?. The system consists of a flight deck switch and a dedicated flush inlet valve and duct that delivers outside air flow downstream of the left pack outlet. The switch is guarded to prevent selection which could open the vent valve and depressurize the airplane.

Which of the following statements about the cargo heat systems is/are correct?. The fwd and bulk cargo compartments have independent heating systems. Selecting the AUTO setting on the FWD BULK CARGO TEMP switch turns on the bulk ventilation fan to allow for live animal transport. The forward cargo compartment air conditioning system provides temperature control and conditioned air for the transport of perishable, live or other temperature sensitive cargo. Automatic ventilation ensures that odors do not go from the cargo compartment to the flight deck or passenger cabin. All of the above are correct.

The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) provides liquid cooling to the high voltage direct current (DC) equipment in the aft E&E equipment compartment and provides liquid cooling to the supplemental cooling units and associated motor controllers of the Integrated Cooling System . Which of the following statements below is/are NOT correct regarding the PECS?. There is a single loop with two fully redundant pumps on each loop. The system operation is completely automated and no crew action is required for either normal or non-normal modes of operation. Liquid quantities and status for each liquid cooling loop are displayed on the STATUS page.

Bleed air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine and wing anti-ice operations. TRUE. FALSE.

The Integrated Cooling System (ICS) is a centralized refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling recirculated cabin air. There is no flight deck control for the ICS. true. false.

In flight, the Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) operates in a climb mode, a cruise mode, or a descent mode. The pressurization system uses ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule. The schedule provides a comfortable cabin climb to cruise altitude. Which of the following statements about the operation of this system is NOT correct?. If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the default cruise altitude is 43,000 feet. In the cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is no more than 6,000 feet. At touchdown, both outflow valves open to depressurize the cabin. In operation with loss of cabin pressurization, it is important that the flight crew close the outflow valves during the descent.

The Captains and First Officers windshields are equipped with a windshield washer system. Windshield washer switches command a continuous application of washer fluid while held in the ON position. true. false.

The electric wing anti–ice system powers thermal anti-icing mats on four mid wing leading edge slats on each wing. There are three separate mats on each slat. Wing anti– ice is inhibited on the ground below 75 knots. To maintain aerodynamic stability, system logic controls symmetrical operation of left and right wing anti-ice. Which of the following statements : Is correct?. If one wing anti–ice thermal mat fails, the wing anti–ice system automatically depowers the opposite thermal mat to prevent asymmetrical wing icing. Automatic wing anti–ice operation is available in flight and on the ground above 75 knots. In flight, when the WING ANTI–ICE selector is AUTO the wing anti-ice system on each wing is powered anytime the TAT is below 10 degrees C. Wing anti-ice may be momentarily shed (30 seconds maximum) during high electrical loads, such as during flap retraction. All above are correct.

Push – Transfers the IAS or Mach value from the lower line to the upper line. If the upper line was blank/closed, it now opens to the uplinked ATC value. Lower line blanks after the transfer. Select the following statement(s) that are correct on the functions of the Uplink Transfer Switch: Uplinked clearances are preceded by the letters “UL”. For conditional clearances, pushing the ACCEPT switch automatically displays clearance IAS or Mach value in the lower line. The ATC uplink function is always enabled. For immediate clearances, pushing the datalink ACCEPT switch displays the clearance IAS or Mach value in the lower line of the window. If the upper line was blank/closed, it remains unchanged. Pushing the datalink CNCL switch removes the clearance from the lower line. All of the above are correct.

The upper line displays speed selected by the IAS/MACH selector and lower line displays uplinked ATC clearance. During climb the selected speed automatically changes from IAS to MACH at ____ Mach and during descent it automatically changes from MACH to IAS at ______ KIAS. 82/280. 83/300. 84/310.

Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls VNAV will disengage when the GP pitch mode is engaged on an Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) approach. true. false.

The cabin interphone system provides voice communications between the flight deck and the flight attendant stations. In order to call a cabin station from the flight deck, a pilot must: Select a cabin interphone station or stations from the center CDU to alert the desired station to pick up the call or enter the appropriate call code in the CDU scratchpad and select SEND. Select a cabin interphone station or stations from the TCP CABIN INTERPHONE page to alert the desired station to pick up the call, manually enter a valid two digit code in the scratchpad and select MAKE CALL, or line select one of three predefined SPEED DIAL locations on the CABIN INTERPHONE page.

Placing the BATTERY switch to the ON position on an unpowered airplane on the ground: Allows the APU to be started and some switch annunciator lights are illuminated. Initiates L CCR start-up sequence and after the L CCR start-up is complete energizes the “On-Ground Battery Only”.

The TOWING BATTERY TEST SWITCH illuminates the applicable towing battery charge light (HIGH, MEDIUM, or LOW) depending on current voltage to provide battery charge quality in time available. What are the minimum time limits in minutes (assuming no braking) to a depleted battery for each charge light?. 60, 40, 20. 60, 30, 15. 45, 30, 15.

In the “Towing Power” mode, the radio communication systems are energized by the main battery. true. false.

The engine has two starter/generators function as electrically powered starter motors for engine start, and as engine driven generators once the engines are running. Each engine has two 235Vac variable frequency starter generators. L1 and L2 are connected to the left engine. R1 and R2 are connected to the right engine. Both function as starters to electrically start the engine. What power sources are available to the engine starters for ground start?. APU generated power. External power. Opposite engine’s generated power. All of the above.

The APU has two 235 Vac starter/generators, designated left (L) and (R). Although both are able to function as electrical starters, only one is necessary to start the APU. For APU starts with the APU battery as the power source (no engine running and forward external power no ON) the _______ starter/generator is always used. left. right.

The 115 Vac external power system consists of both a forward and aft system. There are two forward and one aft power connections, with associated control panel switches. Both forward connections are normally used for ground operations. The airplane is capable of powering ground handling and ground service loads with only a single forward connection, but power for additional airplane loads is limited. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding external power?. The aft external power system provides additional power for large loads. If only two connections are available to support main engine start (APU not operating), the two forward connections should be used. Aft external power can be used as a single source to start the left engine only. Connecting one or both power sources to the receptacles illuminates the AVAIL light(s) in the power switch(es), and energizes “Ground Handling” mode.

The APU battery functions automatically and has no power switch. Which of the following is true of the functions of the APU battery?. The APU battery provides power on the ground for APU start, airplane powerup, refueling operations and towing operations. The APU battery is connected directly to the APU battery bus and provides dedicated power to the APU electric starter.

The airplane is powered by two Rolls Royce Trent 1000D engines. The engines are rated at 69,800/74,511 pounds of takeoff thrust each. The engines are three-rotor axial flow turbofans of high compression and bypass ratio. Do the three rotors operate through a commo shaft?. Yes, all three rotors operate on a common shaft. No, the first two rotors are on the same shaft. No, the rotors are mechanically independent from each other.

The primary engine indications for 787 Rolls Royce engines displayed on the EICAS are: TPR, N1, EGT. . N1, N2, EGT. EPR, N1, EGT.

If the thrust is more than the commanded thrust or, the thrust is less than the commanded thrust ; The EICAS alert message ENG THRUST (L or R) is displayed. True. False.

In-Flight start envelope information is displayed in magenta on the EICAS display when the respective engine fire switch is in and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF, or The engine N2 RPM is below idle. Which of the following statements is true regarding the in-flight envelope depicted on the EICAS display?. The in-flight envelope indicates the airspeed range necessary to ensure an in-flight start at the current flight level. The in-flight envelope indicates the airspeed range for a windmilling in-flight start at the current flight level or maximum flight level (whichever is less).

Maximum TPR represents the maximum rated thrust available from the engine. The EEC continuously computes maximum TPR. If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, the EEC automatically uses the alternate mode. In the alternate mode, TPR remains displayed in the soft alternate mode, but blanks in the hard alternate mode. true. false.

Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) only functions when there is a large thrust asymmetry during takeoff or go-around. Which of the following statements are correct concerning TAP?. TAP does not reduce thrust during normal all engine operations, or during engine out takeoffs where the correct operational thrust (i.e. thrust levers are not advanced during a derated takeoff) and speeds are maintained. As TAP reduces thrust, the maximum and commanded TPR tics move down to the reduced TAP thrust value, and the actual TPR indication follows. The reference/target TPR indication and the throttles do not move. The EICAS advisory message THRUST ASYM PROT is displayed if the TAP function is operative and directional control protection is available at all speeds. Both a and b are correct. Both b and c are correct.

The electrical system powers two starter motors mechanically connected to the N2 shaft via the accessory gearbox. During engine starts, power to run the starters is drawn from the airplane’s electrical system. There are two power sources that can provide starter power; the APU and the forward external power. Normally, APU power is used to drive the engine starters. During engine start, load shed occurs: Always. Never. Sometimes, depending upon the electrical load before the engine start is initiated. Shed systems appear on their respective synoptics with the majority appearing on the electrical synoptic.

During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for which of the following?. No N1 rotation (locked rotor). Insufficient starter power. Insufficient air pressure for starter rotation. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

The APU is started by either the left or right APU starter. How are the APU starters powered?. The right starter is powered by the APU battery, if required. Either starter can be powered by forward external power or an engine generator. Both a and b are correct.

During flight, after a fire warning from the cargo fire detection system, the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch light on the 787 illuminates and the EICAS advisory message BOTTLE DISCH CARGO is displayed after the first two extinguisher bottles have completely discharged. true. false.

Airplane roll control is different in the secondary and direct flight control modes. The flight control system continues to receive and process pilot control inputs, however, it now uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands . true. false.

In the secondary mode, how are the slats and flaps controlled and extended?. Controlled separately and positioned electrically. Controlled separately and positioned either by Hydraulic or Electric motors.

The Autodrag function operates by extending the ailerons and the two most outboard spoilers, while maintaining airspeed, to help facilitate glidepath capture when the airplane is above the vertical path. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the operation of the Autodrag function?. Autodrag is only available in the Normal and Secondary modes and is active during automatic and manual approaches. Autodrag functions only in approach configuration: flaps 25 or 30 and the thrust levers are in idle. Autodrag surface deflection is removed below 1,000 feet above ground level so flare and touchdown are not affected. Both a and b are correct. All of the above are correct.

How many attempts does the autostart system make during an in-flight start?. Two. three. continuous.

On the PFD the lateral deviation scale appears on the bottom of the display and the vertical deviation scale appears on the right side of the display. On the lateral and vertical scales, the outer white lines represent RNP and the center white lines represent aircraft position. Which of the following statements accurately describe information displayed on the PFD deviation scales?. The bars represent ANP and the bars on the vertical scale display only during FMC descent phase of flight. The area between the bars indicates the margin available to remain within RNP criteria. If ANP is equal to or exceeds RNP the bars and scale turn amber after 10 seconds and the NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message is displayed. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

Which of the following statements accurately describe elements of the PFD altitude indications?. The altitude indications incorporate a trend vector that indicates expected altitude ten seconds ahead in time based on the current vertical speed. The selected altitude displays the altitude set in the MCP altitude window. The selected altitude box is highlighted in white between 750 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude. The selected altitude displays the altitude set in the MCP altitude window. The selected altitude box is highlighted in white between 900 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude. Both a and c are correct.

The Vertical Situation Display (VSD) presents a profile view of the airplane and its environment. Information shown within the cyan dashed lines (enroute corridor) on the Navigation Display (ND) is shown in profile on the VSD. Which of the following is true about the VSD?. The VSD is automatically selected on whenever the map is selected on the ND. Track mode is the default mode of operation and a route mode is also available. Range is displayed in nautical miles. The altitude reference scale displays altitude in reference to the vertical position of the airplane symbol, terrain, and other objects in the VSD background display. Both b and c are correct. All of the above are correct.

Map Centering Keys are only available in the MAP mode. true. false.

There are two CCDs located on the control stand that control cursor position and operation. Each CCD cursor location switch controls its respective _______________ unit as selected. Side, Inboard, and Lower Center displays. Inboard display unit, Lower display unit, and EFB.

The Auxiliary (AUX) Display is located on the Outboard Display Units and contains the following information: Uplinked air traffic control (ATC) messages. Flt number, MIC, XPDR, Tail number. Date and Time functions. All of the above.

The HUD TO/GA Reference Line is displayed during takeoff roll if the flight director TO/GA mode is active, and groundspeed is greater than ____ knots. 65 kts. 80 kts.

Which of the following is NOT true about IAN indications on the PFD?. FMC glidepath and FAC deviation, approach identifier, distance, and course are provided. The approach reference information appears above and to the left of the attitude display. The IAN deviation source annunciation is below the approach data. IAN glide path and FAC deviation indications and alerts are displayed like ILS. IAN approach deviations are available with QFE selected in the FMC.

If the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel fails, the EICAS advisory message TRANSPONDER PANEL is displayed and the transponder and TCAS modes must be set using the Tuning and Control Panel. Pushing the ALERT/Transponder Control (XPDR CTL) prompt: Places the transponder in the standby mode. Disables transponder altitude reporting. Toggles transponder control between ATP and the TCP.

Which of the following is true of the weather radar display when the WX+T (turbulence) prompt is selected on Weather Radar page ó on the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP)?. Displays weather radar returns and turbulence. The turbulence display is available with display ranges of 40 miles or less. Displays weather returns and turbulence within precipitation at calibrated gain level. Turbulence within 40 nm is displayed at all display ranges.

_____ ILS receiver(s) can be manually tuned from the NAV RADIO page at anytime unless ILS approach tuning inhibit is active. Two. Three. One.

The top of descent (T/D) is the point where the cruise phase changes to the descent phase. It displays on the ND as a green circle with the label T/D. The descent path starts at the T/D and includes waypoint altitude constraints. The path to the first constraint is based on: Idle thrust, speedbrakes retracted, FMC cruise wind, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed. Idle thrust, speedbrakes extended, FMC cruise wind, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, the predicted use of anti-ice, and applicable target speed. Off-idle thrust, speedbrakes retracted, FMC cruise wind, applicable target speed, wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page, and the predicted use of anti-ice.

A missed approach is accomplished by selection of either TOGA switch. Among the features available: The highest altitude in the missed approach procedure becomes the new cruise altitude. The new cruise altitude becomes the greater of the MCP altitude or the highest altitude in the missed approach procedure. None of the above.

In the event of a single FMC failure: The scratchpad message SINGLE FMC L or SINGLE FMC R displays after loss of a single FMC. The EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE displays. Crew action is not necessary to change to a single FMC operation. LNAV and VNAV, if active, remain active and all flight plan and performance data is retained. . At powerup, the three FMCs are designated as master, spare and backup. All Flight Management computing tasks are accomplished by the master (active) FMC. The spare (standby) FMC automatically becomes active and assumes all FMC functionality in the event the master FMC fails. The backup FMC then assumes the role of the spare FMC. This transition occurs automatically and is not apparent to the crew. No crew action is necessary. LNAV and VNAV, if active, remain active and all flight plan and performance data is retained.

Most Air Traffic Control datalink functions are accomplished on the MFD. Which of the following is true about ATC route modification clearances received via datalink?. Uplink messages which contain route modifications are loaded into the FMC using the LOAD FMC function on the MFD ATC page. When a clearance is of a type that can be loaded into the FMC, LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window. The crew may accomplish the FMC loading or accept/reject actions in either order. None of the above.

The step size window displays the climb altitude increment used for planning the optimum climb profile. The default value is: 1,000 feet. RVSM. ICAO.

Select route offsets on the RTE page 1, then enter the necessary offset. When executed: The CDU OFST light illuminates. Valid entries are L (left) or R (right) XX (XX Is any number from 0 to 100 nm). The entered offset is displayed on the ND as a dashed magenta line. The ND also displays a 30° entry path to and exit path from the offset. Valid entries are L (left) or R (right) XX (XX is any number from 0 to 99 nm).

Which of the following is a true description of the Cross track Error (XTK ERROR) depiction on Progress Page 4?. Displays present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course. L or R indicates left or right of course. Blank if error is greater than 99 NM. Displays present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course. L or R indicates left or right of course. Errors in excess of 99.99 nm display as 99.99 nm.

On the Arrivals Page, the glideslope prompt displays whenever a localizer based approach (ILS, IGS, LOC, BAC, LDA, SDF) is in the currently displayed, selected or active flight plan. Which of the following is true about the purpose and operation of this prompt?. It provides a means of using FMC glidepath guidance when ILS glideslope guidance is not available. Selected ON for ILS or IGS approaches and off for LOC, BAC, LDA or SDF approaches. Both a & b are correct.

In the event of an unrecoverable loss of all FMC displays, a backup navigation capability is available through: The Control Display Units. The Tuning and Control Panels. The SAARU.

Which of the following is true regarding fuel imbalance indications with the fuel imbalance pointer on the Boeing 787?. A solid white fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if main tank fuel differs more than 1000 lbs. A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed if the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed. Both a and b are correct.

. The left and right hydraulic systems each have a demand pump. The demand pumps provide supplementary hydraulic power for periods of high system demand. In the AUTO position, both the L and R demand pumps operate under which of the following conditions?. System low pressure. On the ground for the first five minutes after the second engine is started. From takeoff thrust set to flaps retracted. Both a and b are correct. Both a and c are correct.

What happens to the engine idle setting when engine anti-ice is turned on?. Icing idle is selected due EEC. Approach Idle is adjust due EEC. the Engine increase thrust in 5%.

The ram air turbine, when deployed, provides 5000 PSI hydraulic power to the primary flight controls connected to the center hydraulic system. The RAT deploys automatically under which of the following conditions?. Both engines are failed or all three hydraulic system pressures are low. Loss of all electrical power to Captains and F/Os flight instruments. Loss of all four EMPs and faults in flight control system occur on approach or loss of all four EMPs occurs and an engine fails on takeoff or landing. All of the above are correct.

Selection of the “ABOVE” TCAS prompt: Displays TCAS traffic vertically from 2,700 feet below to 7,000 feet above current flight altitude. Displays TCAS traffic vertically from 2,700 feet below to 2,700 feet above current flight altitude. Displays TCAS traffic vertically from 2,700 feet below to 9,900 feet above current flight altitude.