Banco Airbus A320

Where are the air conditioning packs located within the Single Aisle family aircraft?. Aft cabin. Cockpit. Wing root area. Landing gear bay.

What is the purpose of the pack Flow Control Valve (FCV)?. Manage cabin pressure. Control avionics equipment. Adjust flow rate through the pack. Shut-off cabin fans.

How does the ACSC regulate the pack outlet temperature?. Adjusts avionics valves. Modulates BYPASS VALVE and RAM-AIR INLET. Controls cockpit pressurization. Manages cargo compartment ventilation.

What is the role of cabin recirculation fans?. Control avionics temperature. Facilitate cargo heating. Supply cold air to the cabin. Reduce bleed air demand and save fuel.

How is the temperature regulation system for cabin zones controlled and monitored?. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer. Cargo Heating Controller. ACSC. RPCU.

The primary function of the air conditioning system is to maintain the correct ________ and temperature within the pressurized compartments of the fuselage. sound. pressure. color. speed.

Within the Single Aisle family, the air conditioning packs are located in the ________ area, forward of the landing gear bay. cockpit. wing root. cargo compartment. avionics.

The main component of each pack assembly in the air conditioning system is the ________ machine. temperature. pressure. avionics. air cycle.

Hot air is supplied to the pack through the pack Flow Control Valve (FCV) from the ________ system. electrical. pneumatic. hydraulic. fuel.

The ACSC controls the pack outlet temperature by modulating the BYPASS VALVE and the ________ doors. cockpit. cargo compartment. avionics. RAM-AIR INLET.

What does FCU stand for in the context of the text?. Flight Control Unit. Flow Control Unit. Fuel Control Unit. Function Control Unit.

Which component of the FCU is responsible for managing the ON/OFF function of the FCV?. Torque Motor. Solenoid 1. Position Sensor. Pressure Sensor.

In which scenarios is the trim air PRV solenoid de-energized?. When duct temperature exceeds 88°C. When system pressure exceeds 6.5 psi. When HOT AIR P/B is set to OFF. During take-off and landing.

How is ventilation air supplied to lavatories and galleys?. From external sources only. From cabin distribution ducts. Through the cockpit. From avionics equipment.

In the open circuit configuration, under what conditions is avionics equipment cooled with ambient air?. While in-flight. When the skin temperature is decreasing. On the ground with increasing skin temperature. On the ground with skin temperature below 12°C.

What does the Cargo Heating Controller regulate?. Ventilation air distribution. Cabin ambient temperature. Cargo compartment temperature. Extraction fan operation.

What does the AFT ISOL VALVE P/B control?. Cargo ventilation controller. Extraction fan in the cockpit. Isolation valves and extraction fan. Cargo heating controller.

What action does the HOT AIR P/B switch take when set to OFF?. It opens the isolation valves. It regulates the trim air valves. It starts the extraction fan. It closes the pressure regulating valve.

What controls the operation of the avionics equipment ventilation system?. Crew intervention. Skin temperature. Aircraft configuration. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC).

Which configuration allows cooling of avionics equipment using ambient air?. Open Circuit Configuration. Closed Circuit Configuration. Partially Open Circuit Configuration. No configuration allows cooling using ambient air.

What does the skin exchanger outlet bypass valve help reduce?. Avionics bay noise. Skin temperature. Ambient air. Duct temperature.

What determines the FCV position in the main operating mode?. Flow setting on panel 30VU. Differential pressure. Torque motor position. Main operation switch.

In which aircraft conditions is the HIGH FLOW configuration used?. Take-off and landing. Single pack operation. APU bleed air supply for pack operation. Cruise altitude.

What happens if an FCU component malfunctions?. ACSC energizes Solenoid 2, pack enters BACK-UP mode. FCV opens fully. FCU switches to MAIN mode. ACSC energizes Solenoid 1.

What does the Mixer Unit do?. Mixes cabin air with conditioned air from packs. Distributes bleed air to the cabin. Filters recirculated air. Controls differential pressure.

Which ACSC manages the forward and aft cabin zones?. ACSC 1. ACSC 2. Both ACSCs equally. FCU.

What is the main purpose of the Automatic Flight System (AFS)?. Increase aircraft speed. Reduce pilot workload and enhance safety. Minimize fuel consumption. Control in-flight entertainment.

Which of the following is a fundamental component of the AFS?. Autopilot. SFCC. Ailerons. Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU).

What is the primary function of the MCDUs?. Short-term aircraft control. Engine control. Ground navigation control. Long-term interface between the crew and FMGCs.

What does the FCU stand for?. Flight Crew Unit. Fuel Control Unit. Flight Control Unit. Fast Communication Unit.

How many Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) are there in the AFS?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What is the purpose of the FAC engagement P/BSWs?. Engine control. Rudder control. Landing gear control. Airspeed control.

What part of the AFS is used for the short-term control of the aircraft?. FCU. MCDUs. FMGCs. FACs.

How many parts does each FMGC consist of?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

What functions are primarily managed by the Flight Management (FM) part of the FMGC?. Rudder control. Engine maintenance. Flight plan definition and monitoring. In-flight entertainment.

What is the primary role of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS)?. Long-term flight planning. Short-term aircraft control. Maintenance failure information centralization. Passenger entertainment.

Which display primarily shows guidance commands and flight mode status?. ND. FCU. PFDs. MCDUs.

What is the purpose of the ECAM/EWD page?. Display flight plan information. Show passenger announcements. Present warning messages and computer failures. Control engine thrust.

What function is responsible for calculating optimized speed for guidance purposes?. FCU. FIDS. FAC. FMGC.

What components is the AFS designed around?. FMGC and FCU. MCDUs and FACs. Wings and engines. Radar and altimeter.

What role do the MCDUs play in aircraft control?. Short-term control of the aircraft. Long-term interface between crew and FMGCs. Engine management. Landing gear control.

Which part of the AFS serves as the interface for transmitting engine data to FADEC?. FCU. MCDUs. FMGCs. FACs.

What are the primary functions of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)?. Rudder control and flight envelope protection. Engine maintenance. Passenger comfort control. Airspeed management.

Which system centralizes failure information for maintenance purposes?. FMGC. FIDS. FCU. FMGS.

What is the main function of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS) in the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) 1?. To engage the Auto Flight System (AFS). To control rudder during landing. To detect lateral mode failures. To concentrate maintenance information.

What is the type of communication the Auto Flight System (AFS) maintains with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU)?. One-way communication. Two-way communication. One-way communication with sensors. Two-way communication with FACs.

The Auto Flight System (AFS) maintains a ____________ communication with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). one-way. two-way. direct. complex.

The Autothrust (A/THR) function is engaged automatically when the aircraft's ____________ is detected, inhibiting it below 100 feet RA, except during the 15 seconds after lift-off. speed decreases. altitude increases. alpha-floor is detected. AP is engaged.

In cruise, which controls execute the orders of lateral modes, while the elevators and THS execute the orders of vertical modes?. ailerons and rudder. rudder and nose wheel. ailerons and spoilers. elevators and THS.

The engagement status of the Flight Director (FD) is displayed on the ____________ on the Flight Control Unit (FCU). FCU P/BSW. AP P/BSW. FAC P/BSW. A/THR P/BSW.

The Auto Flight System (AFS) can engage the AP in flight if the aircraft has been airborne for at least ____________ seconds. 2. 5. 10. 15.

When the AP is engaged, the load thresholds on the rudder pedals and the ____________ are increased, and if overridden, the AP disengages. side sticks. throttles. spoilers. ailerons.

The Flight Director (FD) automatically engages when the system is electrically supplied and logic conditions are met, and the engagement is indicated by the FD P/BSW ____________. blinking. red bars. green bars. white bars.

The Autothrust (A/THR) function sends computed thrust commands to the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) for ____________ engine control. manual. automatic. remote. partial.

During take-off, the AP can be engaged in flight after the aircraft has been airborne for at least ____________ seconds. 2. 5. 10. 15.

The primary goal of the Automatic Flight System (AFS) is to enhance flight safety by reducing pilot workload and providing functions that improve ________. flight entertainment. fuel efficiency. flight consistency. passenger comfort.

The AFS is designed around various components, including 2 Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs), 2 Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs), 2 Multipurpose Control and Display Units (MCDUs), and ________. 1 Radar Control Unit (RCU). 1 Navigation Control Unit (NCU). 1 Flight Control Unit (FCU). 1 Avionics Control Unit (ACU).

The FCU and MCDUs play a crucial role in allowing pilots to control the functions of the ________. Aircraft Fuel Management System (AFMS). Flight Data Monitoring System (FDMS). Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs). Flight Analysis and Reporting System (FARS).

One of the primary functions of the Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) is to control ________. cabin lighting. engine thrust. wing flaps. rudder and flight envelope protection.

The Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS) is active only in ________. FAC 1. FAC 2. FMGC 1. FMGC 2.

The yaw damper, operated by yaw damper actuators, performs several functions, including dutch roll damping, turn coordination in cruise, and compensation for ________. cabin pressure fluctuations. loss of radio communication. engine failure during auto flight. turbulence.

Rudder trim orders can originate from the Rudder Trim selector or the ________ to control the rudder. Air Data/Inertial Reference System (ADIRS). Navigation Control Unit (NCU). Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC). Aircraft Fuel Management System (AFMS).

What are the two sub-systems of the communications system?. Radio communication and on-board communication. Ground communication and air communication. Internal communication and external communication. Cockpit communication and cabin communication.

What is the purpose of communication during taxiing and towing on the Single Aisle aircraft?. To interact with the service personnel. To establish contact with the tower. To ensure proper passenger announcements. To communicate with maintenance personnel.

What must be done to enable transmission mode for the acoustic devices (microphone)?. Press the reception key. Push the ON/OFF switch. Select the related transmission key. Activate the standby frequency.

What is the purpose of the Service Interphone system in terms of maintenance coordination?. To facilitate communication between flight crewmembers. To connect to the tower for takeoff clearance. To enable communication between flight crew and mechanic. To communicate with passengers during boarding.

How are audio lines from various jacks routed to the Audio Management Unit (AMU)?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication System. Through the Audio Control Panel. Through the Radio Management Panel. Through the amplifiers in the CIDS Directors.

When is the automatic mode of the Service Interphone system active?. During flight operations. On the ground with the landing gear up. During engine start. On the ground with gear down and compressed.

How is the Service Interphone system re-enabled after jacking the aircraft?. Switching the ACP ON/OFF switch. Pushing the INT pushbutton. Adjusting the interphone audio level. Switching the Service Interphone Override switch to ON.

The use of the radio system on the Single Aisle aircraft is extremely important for the safe operation of the _______________. flight crew. maintenance crew. tower communication. ground handling.

To re-enable the service interphone, the SerViCE INTerphone OVeRriDe P/BSW must be switched to _______________. 'OFF'. 'ACTIVE'. 'ON'. 'ENABLE'.

The primary function of the Aircraft Identification Module (AIM) is to program the __________ message in the ELT. Military. Aircraft identification. Weather. Maintenance.

The ON-ARMED-TEST/RESET switch on the RCP can be set to the TEST/RESET position to initiate an ELT __________. Transmission. BITE test. Emergency announcement. Battery recharge.

The ELT operates automatically or manually, and its battery pack supplies power for approximately __________ hours. Twenty. Fifty. Ten. One hundred.

The Flight Interphone system is mainly used for __________ communication within the cockpit and with ground mechanics. Satellite. External. Passenger. Internal.

The ELT BITE test is performed to verify the proper operation of the ELT system and involves transmitting a(n) __________ signal. Emergency. Distress. Engine. Entertainment.

What is the purpose of the Cabin Assignment Module (CAM)?. Control passenger seating assignments. Manage interphone communications. Store cabin zone information. Operate oxygen mask systems.

How does the conference mode work for interphone communication?. It connects all cabin stations to the cockpit. It allows communication between two interphone sources. It activates priority messages in the cabin. It broadcasts chime sounds.

What is the priority of an emergency call in the communication system?. Priority 1. Priority 2. Priority 3. Priority 4.

What happens when an emergency call is initiated from the cockpit?. All cabin stations connect to the cockpit. The cockpit connects to all cabin stations. The cabin stations connect to each other. All PA loudspeakers are activated.

How does the cabin initiate interphone communication?. By using the Audio Control Panel (ACP). By selecting pushbuttons on the CALLS panel. By lifting the cockpit handset. By activating the oxygen masks.

What is the purpose of the RESET key in the cabin ATTND stations?. Resets the interphone function. Initiates an emergency call. Initiates a PA announcement. Resets the system power.

How are calls from the cockpit initiated using the CALLS panel?. By using the CABin key and knob. By using the ACP pushbuttons. By using the ATT key on the AIP. By using the PA ALL key.

The upper row of the AIP display is used for the indication of information concerning the cabin and flight crew interphone system. The outer left section is used to show the __________ information. cabin. interphone. system. status.

To select an announcement using the handmic, the Passenger Address (PA) transmission key located on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) must be pressed and held. It comes on green and __________ the microphone audio to the PA system. connects. disconnects. transmits. blocks.

To make an announcement using the boomset or the oxygen mask, the PA transmission key must be pressed and held on the ACP. It comes on green. The handmic has also the __________ priority. same. higher. lower. equal.

A handset is mounted on the cockpit center pedestal and contains a PTT SW. Pressing on the PTT SW keys the PA system, __________ lower priority PA sources and broadcasting the speech over all PA loudspeakers and PAX headsets. overriding. avoiding. enhancing. silencing.

The conference mode is used for the communication between __________ interphone sources. two. more than two. all. specific.

How is speech communication established from the cockpit using the SVCE INT jacks?. Pressing the CABin key. Using the Audio Control Panel (ACP). Pressing the SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton. Using the Audio Management Unit (AMU).

What indication is displayed on Attendant Indication Panels (AIPs) when cabin stations initiate communication using the SVCE INT jacks?. "SERV INT". "CABIN CALL". "CABIN COMM". "SERV COMM".

Which component digitizes audio signals from cabin stations and transmits them to the directors?. DEUs. AMU. LGCIUs. ACP.

How is the BTC power supply provided when APU GEN or EXT PWR are available?. Through the Battery Bus. Through the GAPCU. Through the APU GEN. Through the IDG.

Why is the BTC ground path provided by the related Generator Control Unit (GCU)?. To enable automatic transfer to network faults. To inhibit the BTC close logic. To protect against Over Current. To control battery power.

In which situation are both BTCs closed?. APU GEN only. GEN 2 only. EXT PWR only. Normal operation.

The BTC power supply is provided by the Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) when _____ are available. APU GEN. battery power. external power. IDG 1.

With only EXT PWR on, both BTCs should be closed to supply _____. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1+2. IDG 1.

With IDG 2 only operation, both BTCs should be closed. IDG 2 supplies its own busbar and via the closed BTCs also _____. AC BUS 1. AC BUS 2. AC BUS 1+2. battery power.

APU GEN is one of the power sources with the lowest priority to supply the AC BUSES. True. False.

When APU GEN is the only power source, BTC 1 and 2 close to supply the AC power network. True. False.

With only EXT PWR on, both BTCs should be open to avoid parallel operation with the generators. True. False.

The Emergency Generator is activated via the blue hydraulic system only if the ________________. landing gear is compressed. landing gear is extended. aircraft is on the ground. aircraft is at cruising altitude.

If AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost above a given airspeed, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will automatically ________________. retract. extend. turn off. decrease speed.

In the case of Generator 1 LINE OFF, which component opens?. Generator Line Contactor (GLC) 1. Battery Contactors. External Power Contactor (EPC). Generator Control Unit (GCU).

The emergency generator is powered by the ________________. blue hydraulic system. green hydraulic system. yellow hydraulic system. red hydraulic system.

The Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) interfaces only with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). True. False.

The GAPCU can transmit GCU fault data to the CFDIU via ARINC 429 data bus. True. False.

Maintenance tests on the GAPCU and GCUs can be initiated in-flight for diagnostic purposes. True. False.

The Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) operates at 50 Hz frequency. True. False.

What is the priority sequence for supplying the two normal AC BUSes (AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2)?. Onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN, offside generator. External Power, APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG). APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power. Offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN.

What is the purpose of the 115/26V AUTO TRANSFORMER in the AC distribution system?. Convert AC power to DC power. Supply power to the APU GEN. Connect AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 1. Convert 115V AC to 26V AC.

How is DC generation achieved in the aircraft's electrical system?. By Transformer Rectifiers (TRs). Through a generator driven by the APU. By converting AC power to DC power. Through an external power unit.

Which power source replaces a faulty main TR to supply the DC ESS BUS?. APU GEN. Battery 1. Battery 2. External Power.

What is the role of the Emergency Generator in the aircraft's electrical system?. Replace the main engine generators. Supply power during normal flight operations. Connect AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 in parallel. Provide power in case of failure of all main generators.

Which component is responsible for converting 115 volts to 26 volts for the sub-busbar?. Transformer Rectifiers (TRs). AC ESS SHED BUS. 115/26V Auto Transformer. Static Inverter.

What is the purpose of the Static Inverter in the electrical system?. Supply AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2. Replace faulty main TR units. Convert DC to AC power. Supply power to the galley circuits.

The STATic INVerter connected to battery 1 supplies the AC __________ BUS. AC BUS 1. DC ESS BUS. AC ESS BUS. DC BUS 2.

The AC transfer circuit allows generators to be connected in parallel on the same bus. True. False.

The AC ESSential BUS can be supplied by AC BUS 2 if AC BUS 1 fails. True. False.

What is the purpose of the red manual inflation handle for the escape slide?. To open the door. To attach the survival kit. To initiate automatic inflation. To manually inflate the slide.

The inflation and deployment of the escape slide start automatically when the cabin door opens in the _____ mode. armed. open. locked. closed.

On the A319, A320, and A321, the forward and aft cargo compartments can have an optional _____ cargo loading system. automated. semi-automatic. manual. automated and manual.

The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the _____ cargo compartment. central. bulk. rear. side.

To open a cockpit sliding window from the inside, push down the black push button on top of the _____ handle. locking. opening. closing. emergency.

The inflation and deployment sequence of the slide raft for the FWD and rear cabin doors is automatically initiated when the door is opened in the _____ configuration. closed. locked. armed. open.

The red manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the _____ side of the girt bar. left hand. right hand. top. bottom.

In case of a ditching, the survival kit must be connected to the slide raft before opening the _____. cockpit window. cabin door. overhead bin. emergency exit.

One or more Escape Slide/Slide Raft Cabin Passenger Door may be inoperative provided the associated door is considered _____. operational. closed. locked. inoperative.

The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the bulk _____ compartment. storage. cargo. overhead. passenger.

The inflation and deployment of the escape slide for the forward and aft cabin doors are manually initiated. True. False.

The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the left-hand side of the girt bar. True. False.

The emergency exit escape slides on the A319, A320, and A321 are stowed in containers in the aft cargo compartment. True. False.

The slide raft is pneumatically pushed open as soon as the cabin door handle is lifted. True. False.

The automatic inflation of the escape slide can be manually initiated by pulling the manual inflation handle. True. False.

On the A318, the lower deck is divided into two cargo compartments. True. False.

The emergency exit escape slides are installed above each door in the overhead stowage compartment. True. False.

The escape slide is of dual-lane type for the A318, A319, and A320. True. False.

The containers of the emergency exit escape slides are in the wing root fairing. True. False.

The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is used to open the cockpit sliding windows. True. False.

What is the function of the Fire Detection Unit (FDU) in the engine and APU fire detection system?. Monitors flight crew actions. Monitors engine thrust. Monitors fire extinguishing agents. Monitors detection loops.

How are the FIRE and FAULT signals from the fire detection system displayed to the flight crew?. On the engine control panel. On the flight deck alerts sounds. On the ECAM. On the overhead panel.

How many fire bottles are installed in each engine's pylon for fire extinguishing?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What is the purpose of the AGENT P/BSW switches for the engine fire extinguishing system?. Arm the extinguishing system. Control the aircraft's thrust. Monitor the engine's temperature. Test the fire detection system.

Each system in the FIRE detection has __________ detection loops. one. two. three.

The guarded FIRE P/B switches are used to give FIRE indication and __________ the related systems. arm. disarm. monitor. activate.

The discharge of each fire extinguisher bottle for the engine is controlled by a related __________ switch. FIRE P/B. FIRE warning. AGENT P/BSW. discharge.

On the A320, how many fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the AFT cargo compartment as part of the optional system?. one. two. three.

Lavatory smoke detection is monitored by the SDF integrated in the __________. AEVC. FWC. CIDS. fire extinguisher.

The lavatory smoke detector sends __________ warnings to the FWC. FIRE. SMOKE. FAULT. ALERT.

Each fire detection loop for the engine contains __________ detector elements. one. two. three.

The cargo compartment fire-extinguishing agent is discharged into the FWD compartment through __________ nozzles. one. two. three.

What causes the engine or APU to shut down when the FIRE pushbutton is released?. Loss of fuel supply. Electrical failure. Fire extinguishing. Thrust reduction.

What are the roles of the AGENT P/BSW switches in the fire extinguishing system?. Control extinguisher discharge. Control engine thrust. Monitor cabin temperature. Monitor avionics equipment.

What action is taken on the ground when an APU FIRE warning occurs?. APU is automatically shut down. APU continues normal operation. APU fire bottles are discharged. APU is restarted immediately.

What does the avionics SMOKE detector specifically detect?. Fire in the cabin. Smoke from the engines. Overheating of avionics equipment. Smoke from the lavatories.

How is the cargo compartment smoke detection system monitored?. By the AEVC. By the FWC. By the AGENT P/BSW switches. By the smoke detectors.

How many smoke detectors are installed in each cavity of the cargo compartments?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What triggers the automatic discharge of the fire extinguisher in the lavatory waste bin?. Fire in the adjacent lavatory. High cabin temperature. Presence of smoke. Impact with an object.

How does the FDU generate a fire warning signal in case of a flame or hot gas detected?. Closes the INTEGRITY switch. Opens the ALARM switch. Sends inert gas. Generates a fault signal.

How many detection loops does the engine Fire Detection Unit (FDU) have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What does the FDU do if both loops are broken due to a torching flame?. Generates fire warning signal. Generates fault warning signal. Shuts down the engine. Sends inert gas.

In which situations is the detection fault logic based on a dual loop failure activated?. Fire on loop A, fault on loop B. Fire on loop B, fault on loop A. Total loss of detection system. Both loops working properly.

What components are responsible for fire detection in the engines and APU?. FIRE switches and P/B switches. FWC and ECAM. ALARM and INTEGRITY switches. Detectors and loops.

What must be done if an engine or APU LOOP A or LOOP B fault is detected?. Disregard the fault and continue operations. Perform a fire test. Isolate the fault loop. Shut down the engines.

How does the FDU generate an inoperative signal for loop A or loop B fault logic?. By releasing helium gas. By opening the ALARM switch. By detecting electrical failure. By detecting core gas.

The _____________ fire detection system includes two identical detection loops (A and B) installed in parallel. engine. cargo. avionics. APU.

The ____________ generates fire and fault signals to the Flight Warning Computer (FWC) for display on ECAM. APU MASTER SWITCH. FDU. CFDIU. FWC.

The extinguishing system for the engine fire bottles is controlled by ___________ switches on the FIRE panel. FIRE. ENGINE. AGENT. EXTINGUISHER.

What is the primary function of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)?. Short-term pitch control. Long-term pitch control. Roll control. Yaw control.

Which components achieve roll control on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Ailerons and spoilers. Elevators and THS. Rudder and yaw damper. Speed brakes and ground spoilers.

What is the purpose of the speed brake function?. To decrease aircraft drag. To increase aircraft drag. To control engine thrust. To improve fuel efficiency.

How many slats are there on each wing of the Airbus A321?. 2. 5. 4. 7.

What is the function of the Slats and Flaps Control Computers (SFCCs)?. To control and monitor slats and flaps. To control the THS. To control ailerons. To control the rudder.

How are the slat and flap systems powered?. Electrically and hydraulically. Manually. Pneumatically. Mechanically.

What locks the transmission when the slat and flap surfaces reach the selected position?. Power Control Unit (PCU). Torque shafts. Pressure Off Brake (POB). Wing Tip Brakes (WTBs).

What is the purpose of the Alpha/speed lock function in relation to slats?. To prevent slats from extending at high angles of attack or low speeds. To prevent slats from retracting during landing. To increase slat extension speed. To improve overall aircraft performance.

How many positions does the FLAPS lever have?. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Which computers are responsible for pitch and roll control on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Elevator Aileron Computers (ELAC). Spoiler Elevator Computers (SEC). Flight Augmentation Computers (FAC). Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC).

In case of a double ELAC failure, what happens to aileron actuators?. They switch to damping mode. They become inoperative. They disconnect from the aircraft. They lock in their current position.

What is the role of the sidestick in the aircraft's control system?. It controls the rudder. It sends electrical orders to ELACs and SECs. It operates the ailerons. It controls the THS.

The Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC) sends roll commands directly to the SECs. True. False.

Spoilers 1 are used for roll control. True. False.

In case of a hydraulic power loss, spoiler surfaces remain extended. True. False.

What is the purpose of the ground spoiler function?. To increase lift during landing. To decrease lift during landing. To increase lift during take-off. To decrease drag during flight.

Which components control the slat and flap systems on the A320 family aircraft?. Slats. Flaps. Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs). Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs).

How many positions are there for the FLAPS lever on the aircraft?. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A computer failure can engage a lateral ___________ configuration. Abnormal. Normal. Direct. Alternate.

In case of loss of both ELevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) only ___________ are available. Elevators. Ailerons. Spoilers. Rudder.

If the normal law of both ELACs fails, the ___________ law takes over. Normal. Direct. Alternate. Mechanical.

When half speed is detected, a level 1 caution is generated and a fault message is displayed on the ___________. Landing Gear Control. ECAM control panel. EWD. Mechanical trim.

In this example Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) 2 flap channel is inoperative and SFCC 1 operates normally. Each flap channel lane of SFCC 1 generates ___________ signals. Pitch. Command. Drive. Hydraulic.

Two flap disconnect sensors are fitted on the interconnecting strut between inner and outer flaps on each wing. The flap disconnect sensors are ___________ sensors. Pressure. Proximity. Hydraulic. Temperature.

In case of total electrical loss, induced roll is obtained by using the ___________, which have a mechanical control. Throttle levers. Rudder pedals. Joysticks. Elevator levers.

In case of loss of both servo controls of the same aileron, the other aileron is still operated. True. False.

If the alternate law is lost, the direct law computed in ELAC 1 or 2 becomes active. The pitch direct law is active in case of ___________. Dual IR failure. Triple IR failure. Failure of the RA. Dual FAC failure.

How are the wing tanks in the A318/A319/A320 divided?. Into inner cells and outer cells. They are not divided. Into left and right tanks. Into upper and lower cells.

In the A321, are the wing tanks divided like in the A318/A319/A320?. No, they are not divided. Yes, into inner and outer cells. Yes, into upper and lower cells. Yes, into left and right tanks.

What is the first source of fuel supplied to the engines in the A318/A319/A320?. Center tank. Wing inner cells. Wing outer cells. Direct feed from outer cells.

How is fuel transferred from the outer cells to the inner cells in the A318/A319/A320?. Via inter cell transfer valves. Automatically when outer cells are empty. Through a cross feed valve. By gravity flow.

What happens to the LP valve when an engine stops in the A318/A319/A320?. It closes. It remains open. It switches to manual control. It triggers the APU.

What is the purpose of the cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320?. To connect or isolate the left and right sides. To regulate fuel temperature. To transfer fuel to the APU. To prevent fuel leaks.

Where is the Refuel/Defuel coupling located on the RH wing of the aircraft?. On the lower surface, near the leading edge. On the upper surface, near the trailing edge. Inside the cockpit. On the APU.

How does the crossfeed valve operate in the aircraft's fuel system?. It electrically connects the left and right tanks. It isolates the engine fuel feed supply. It controls fuel temperature. It supplies fuel to the APU.

What happens when the center tank pumps run in the aircraft's fuel system?. The center tank supplies fuel to the engines. The LP valve closes. The cross feed valve opens. The APU LP valve opens.

Where is the air release valve installed in the fuel system?. At the highest point between the pump and the LP fuel valve. In the center tank. In the wing tank. Inside the fuel pump.

When does the LP fuel valve isolate the engine fuel feed supply?. At engine shutdown and in case of an emergency. During refueling. When the LP valve is manually closed. During crossfeed operations.

In the A318/A319/A320, when is fuel supplied to the engines from the wing inner cells? When the center tank is __________. full. empty. overfilled. pressurized.

Two engine Low Pressure (LP) valves in the A318/A319/A320 close when their related engine __________. is running. is refueled. stops. overheats.

The cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320 divides the main fuel pump system into two parts, one for each __________. fuel tank. wing. engine. pump.

The wing fuel feed pumps in the A318/A319/A320 are replaced from the __________. cockpit. belly fairing. wing upper surface. wing lower surface.

The manual Magnetic Level Indicators are used to calculate tank fuel quantities if a failure affects the Fuel Quantity Indicating System, such as an __________. electrical failure. engine malfunction. APU failure. overheating issue.

The LP fuel valve in the A318/A319/A320 isolates the engine fuel feed supply during engine shutdown or in case of an __________. APU malfunction. LP valve failure. engine fire emergency. overheating situation.

The scavenge jet pump in the fuel system has a jet pump body, a jet adaptor assembly, and a non-return valve (NRV) that prevents fuel from entering a fuel pump that is __________. running. inoperative. oversized. overheated.

In what situation will the FAULT light on the MODE SEL P/BSW and the MASTER CAUT come on in flight?. Failure of the center tank transfer valves. Failure of wing tank transfer valves. When more than 5000 kg of fuel is left in either wing tank. When there is no fuel in the center tank.

What triggers the display of the FUEL page on the ECAM?. Failure of the main fuel pumps. Wing tank overflow. Failure of the center tank transfer valves. Low fuel level in the center tank.

In MANUAL MODE, what should be done when the FAULT light appears in the CTR TK P/BSW?. Leave the P/B switch in the OFF position. Set the MODE SEL P/BSW to AUTO mode. Push the FAULT light to reset it. Set the related CTR TK L XFR or R XFR P/B switch to OFF.

How can you test the operation of the high-level protection system during refueling?. By setting the Pre-selector to maximum fuel load. By draining at least one liter of fuel. By performing the Lights (LTS) and High Level (HI. LVL) test. By turning on the external ground power.

Before entering a fuel tank for maintenance, it is essential to complete the Pre-Entry Checklist. True. False.

When refueling is complete, the END light will not illuminate, indicating that the refuel valve is still open. True. False.

What is the normal source of pressure for the green hydraulic system?. Engine Driven Pump (EDP). Power Transfer Unit (PTU). Electrical pump (E-Pump). Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

Which hydraulic system can the blue electric pump be used as an auxiliary power source for on the ground?. Green. Blue. Yellow. None.

What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?. It transfers fluid between the green and yellow hydraulic systems. It provides auxiliary pressure supply to the blue system. It is used for cargo door operation on the yellow system. It is auxiliary pressure supply for either the green or yellow systems.

How is the RAT deployed for auxiliary pressure supply?. Automatically. Manually. Both automatically and manually. It is always extended.

What prevents the RAT from stowing when extended?. Interlock mechanism. Hydraulic pressure. Spring force. Solenoid operation.

Which system uses the Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) to provide emergency electrical power?. Green. Yellow. Blue. All systems.

What is the role of priority valves in the hydraulic system?. They cut off hydraulic power to essential systems. They transfer fluid between hydraulic systems. They maintain hydraulic pressure in the passenger cabin. They supply hydraulic power to heavy load users.

The PTU is an auxiliary pressure supply for either the green or yellow systems without the transfer of fluid between the two systems. It operates automatically if there is a delta pressure of __________ between the green/yellow or yellow/green hydraulic systems. 100psi. 250psi. 500psi. 750psi.

The RAT is an auxiliary pressure supply for the blue system and for the emergency electrical power Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM / G). It can be deployed __________ or manually depending on the failure conditions. automatically. manually. both automatically and manually. neither automatically nor manually.

The interlock mechanism on the RAT will only permit RAT stowage if the blades are properly aligned. It also prevents rotation when stowed. The interlock will release at approximately __________ degrees from the full extension position. 10 degrees. 45 degrees. 90 degrees. 5 degrees.

In the event of low hydraulic pressure, the priority valves maintain the operation of essential systems by cutting off hydraulic power to __________. heavy load users. all systems. the PTU. the RAT.

What is the auxiliary source of pressure for the blue hydraulic system?. EDP. PTU. E-Pump. RAT.

Where are hydraulic pipes located within the aircraft?. Passenger cabin and flight compartment. Only in the flight compartment. Only in the passenger cabin. In the aircraft except in Passenger cabin and flight compartment.

What is the nitrogen pressure set to during the pressurization of the reservoir?. 30 PSI. 40 PSI. 50 PSI. 60 PSI.

Before starting the filling procedure, what must be the position of the flight control surfaces and cargo doors?. Neutral retracted position. Fully extended position. Open position. Any position.

What should the triple indicator show when the yellow electric pump is selected to OFF?. Hydraulic system pressure. Brake accumulator pressure. Nitrogen pressure. Green hydraulic pressure.

Why should a warning notice be placed before operating the hydraulic system?. To indicate the system is depressurized. To prevent others from operating the system. To remind the operator to wear gloves. To indicate the cargo doors are closed.

What is done with the hand pump lever from the yellow panel during the filling operation?. It is removed and assembled for use on the green panel. It is left in place. It is disconnected and stored in a toolbox. It is used to depressurize the system.

What precautions should be taken before removing the flexible hose from its housing?. Wear proper protection gloves and goggles. Disconnect the hydraulic system. Depressurize the nitrogen pressure. Ensure the cargo doors are open.

How is the selection of the hydraulic system to be filled confirmed?. A colored LED on the indication panel. A sound alert. A pressure gauge reading. An audible beep.

Where should the system reservoir be filled to during the filling operation?. To the end of the scale. To the last white line in the related colored band. To the top of the reservoir. To the halfway mark.

The triple indicator should show the brake accumulator as being fully pressurized to 5000 PSI when the electric pump is turned OFF. True. False.

Warning notices are placed to remind the operator to wear gloves and goggles during the hydraulic filling operation. True. False.

The hand pump lever is disconnected and stored in a toolbox during the filling operation. True. False.

The flexible hose is inserted into a new canister of hydraulic fluid after connecting it to the hand pump. True. False.

The filling operation is initiated by selecting the hydraulic system that needs to be filled. True. False.

The system reservoir should be filled to the end of the scale during the filling operation. True. False.

Which subsystems are part of the ice and rain protection system on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Wing ice protection. Engine air intake ice protection. Probe ice protection. Windshield ice and rain protection. All above.

How is wing anti-ice supply controlled for both wings?. By a single pushbutton switch on the overhead ANTI ICE panel. By separate switches for each wing. By the engine's bleed air automatically. By manual control in the cockpit.

When is engine air intake anti-ice protection available?. Only in flight. Only on the ground. In flight or on the ground with the engine running. Automatically when the aircraft is powered.

What is used to protect the Angle Of Attack (AOA) sensors, pitot probes, static ports, and Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes from ice?. Electrical heating. Hot air from the pneumatic system. Manual insulation covers. Engine bleed air.

How is windshield anti-icing provided on the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. By manual control in the cockpit. By hot air from the pneumatic system. Automatically when at least one engine is running. By electrical heating.

Under what conditions is the drain mast heating switched ON?. When the electrical system is powered. When the aircraft is in heavy rain. When the temperature is above a specific value. It is always in operation.

The front windshields and side windows are heated ____________ when at least one engine is running. automatically. manually. with wipers. during takeoff.

The Drain Mast Heating is switched ON when the temperature is ____________ a specific value. above. below. exactly at. not related to.

What subsystem protects the engine air intake from ice?. Probe ice protection. Windshield ice and rain protection. Engine air intake ice protection. Drain mast ice protection.

Which part of the aircraft's electrical system heats the water and waste system for ice protection?. Visual lighted ice detection. Electronic ice detection system. Engine bleed air. Hot air from the pneumatic system.

How is the operation of the rain repellent system controlled on the CAPT and F/O sides?. Independently. Simultaneously. Manually. Automatically.

What is used to initiate a new cycle of rain repellent fluid spray?. Press the P/B once. Press and hold the P/B. Release and press the P/B again. It starts automatically.

The wing anti-ice supply to both wings is controlled by a single pushbutton switch on the overhead ANTI ICE panel. True. False.

Engine anti-ice is only available in flight and not on the ground with the engine running. True. False.

The PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton switch is used to select windshield anti-icing when the engines are shut down. True. False.

Each Control Unit (CU) regulates the heating temperature of the associated drain mast tube between ____________. 0°C (32°F) to 6°C (43°F). 6°C (43°F) to 10°C (50°F). 10°C (50°F) to 15°C (59°F). 15°C (59°F) to 20°C (68°F).

The system status is sent to the Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) for indication on the ____________. pilot's display. maintenance logbook. Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU).

If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a ____________ light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). green. red. CAUTion. maintenance.

The drain mast data is stored in the ____________. aircraft's central server. maintenance logbook. Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).

To perform a complete test of the drain mast system, two tests must be carried out, one from the MCDU, and the second one on each ____________. flight attendant. maintenance technician. Control Unit (CU). aircraft.

The thermal switch in the AC power supply line within the drain mast opens at 120°C (250°F). True. False.

The system status is sent to the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU) for indication. True. False.

If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a green light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). True. False.

What is the purpose of the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system?. Monitoring engine parameters. Displaying weather information. Controlling navigation systems. Managing cabin lighting.

Which Display Management Computer (DMC) drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD) in normal operation?. DMC 1. DMC 2. DMC 3. DMC 4.

When does the ADV symbol pulsate on the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. When there's an advisory on another SD page. During takeoff and landing. When a failure is detected by the FWC. When the CAPT PFD and ND fail.

What is the role of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) in the aircraft system?. Generate warning messages. Compute engine parameters. Receive signals from aircraft systems. Provide navigation guidance.

In which situations does the Engine/Warning Display (EWD) display the title of a failure and the associated actions to take?. During takeoff and landing only. When there's an advisory on another SD page. When an aural warning is triggered. In case of aircraft system failure.

How are the CLeaR P/Bs used in response to a system failure?. They turn off the power to the Display Units (DUs). They release the Fault lights on the hydraulic panel. They indicate the phase of the flight. They clear the warnings and cautions.

What are the primary parameters displayed in the upper area of the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). Slat/flap position. Fuel On Board (FOB). All of above.

The Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system displays weather information. True. False.

In normal operation, DMC 1 drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD), while DMC 2 drives the First Officer's PFD. True. False.

The CLeaR P/Bs are used to activate the warnings and cautions. True. False.

The STATUS REMINDER and RECALL FUNCTION reminds the crew of cleared warnings. True. False.

The System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) send data to the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays. True. False.

Level 3 alerts correspond to an emergency configuration where corrective or palliative action must be taken by the crew __________. immediately. ithout any action. after a crew meeting. during routine maintenance.

A primary failure is a failure of an equipment or system causing the loss of __________ equipment. secondary. other. independent. advisory.

In ECAM Normal Dual Display mode, the flashing ADV symbol indicates multiple advisories on different pages or a failure __________. on the currently displayed page. detected by the FWC. requiring immediate action. in the ECP.

In ECAM MONO Display mode, when a value drifts from its normal range, a white ADV message flashes in the center of the EWD to attract crew __________. monitoring. attention. routine maintenance. emergency response.

Level 3 warnings are associated with a Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC), warning messages on Liquid Crystal Display (LCD), and a flashing __________. caution light. advisory light. caution message. MASTER WARNing light.

Level 2 alerts require immediate crew awareness but not immediate __________ action. emergency. corrective. advisory. monitoring.

What happens when the PFD unit is switched off by its potentiometer?. ND is automatically displayed on the PFD unit. The PFD image remains on the PFD unit. The ND image is automatically displayed on the ND unit. The ECAM single display mode is activated.

How is the PFD/ND transfer (XFR) performed?. Physically swapping the PFD and ND units. Manually switching the PFD/ND outputs inside the DMC. Automatically by the ECAM Control Panel. Through the use of SDAC.

What happens when the upper EWD display fails?. Upper display is automatically transferred to the lower display. ECAM single display mode is activated. The ECAM/ND transfer selector is activated. Both PFD and ND units fail.

What reconfiguration options are available in case of lower DU failure?. No automatic reconfiguration is possible. The ECAM works in dual display mode. PFD automatically takes over the lower DU. ND image is displayed on the PFD.

In the case of an upper EWD failure or if the upper display control potentiometer is turned to off, the upper display is automatically transferred on the __________ display. lower. ND. PFD. ECAM.

A system page can be recovered by pushing and holding a system key on the ECP or by rotating the ECAM/ND XFR selector on the switching panel in order to display the system page on the __________ side. ND. ECAM. PFD. SDAC.

In case of lower DU failure or if the lower display is turned to off, no automatic reconfiguration is possible, and the ECAM works in __________ display mode. single. dual. triple. full.

In case of EWD unit and SD unit failure, each crew member can permanently present the EWD on the ND unit by rotating the ECAM/ND transfer selector switch on the switching panel. true. false.

It is still possible to recover a system page by pushing and holding a system key on the ECP. true. false.

How should the annunciator light switch be set to test the clock?. On. Off. TEST. RESET.

What is the operational consequence of Class 1 failures?. Affects flight. No operational consequence. Only affects the cockpit. Requires maintenance.

What does the crew report in the logbook after a malfunction?. Cockpit effect. Flight time. Weather conditions. Maintenance procedures.

What are the two primary functions of the Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU)?. Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and Data Management Unit (DMU). Data Loading Selector (DLS) and Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU). Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) and Quick Access Recorder (QAR). Linear Accelerometer (LA) and System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC).

What does the FDIU-part of the FDIMU do with the input parameters?. Transmits them to the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). Converts, compares, and checks them. Records them in data frames. Routes them to the Data Loading Routing Box (DLRB).

When does the FDIU-part check the integrity of the mandatory parameters during a flight?. Continuously throughout the flight. After the engines are shut down. Before engine start. Only during maintenance checks.

What is the purpose of the underwater locator beacon on the DFDR?. To activate the DFDR. To provide the location of the recorder in water after an accident. To transmit data to the CFDIU. To control the power interlock circuit.

How long does the DFDR store data?. 24 hours. 48 hours. 25 hours. 72 hours.

What type of data frames are stored in the Quick Access Recorder (QAR)?. Identical to the DFDR data frames. Data frames with additional information. Video data frames. Audio data frames.

What is the purpose of the Data Loading Selector (DLS)?. To select the computer on which data will be loaded. To upload or download data. To stow data disks. To route data between the disk unit and target computer.

The Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU) combines two functions: the Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and the ____________. Data Management Unit (DMU). Quick Access Recorder (QAR). System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC). Linear Accelerometer (LA).

The FDIU-part of the FDIMU converts, compares, and checks the input parameters for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), optional Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). This conversion process is crucial for data ____________. recording. transmission. storage. analysis.

The DFDR stores data for the last ____________ hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. 24. 48. 25. 72.

The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) records the same data parameters as the DFDR but is primarily used for on-ground performance, maintenance, and condition monitoring tasks. It also includes Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) functions to ensure data ____________. accuracy. integrity. encryption. compression.

The LA generates an analog signal, which is then digitalized and sent to the FDIU-part through an ____________ bus. Ethernet. USB. ARINC 429. HDMI.

The Data Loading Selector (DLS) is responsible for selecting the ____________ on which data will be loaded during maintenance processes. computer. technician. disk drive. software.

The Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU) is used to upload or download data, and it has a stowage box with a maximum capacity of ____________ data disks. 12. 24. 36. 42.

The FDIU-part of the FDIMU records data frames for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). True. False.

The DFDR stores data for up to 48 hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. True. False.

The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) primarily records data for in-flight analysis and crash recording purposes. True. False.

The Linear Accelerometer (LA) measures acceleration in all three axes, with a range of measurement from -3 to +6 g in the vertical (Z) axis. True. False.

What controls the gear and door sequencing in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. LGCIU. Landing Gear. Gravity extension crank handle. ABU.

When does the active LGCIU change in the extension/retraction system?. After each gear cycle. During a DOWN selection. When a failure occurs in the active LGCIU. When the LGCIUs are electrically segregated.

In what conditions is normal braking obtained?. With the parking brake OFF. When gear control lever is set to UP. Without green hydraulic pressure. With A/SKID switch OFF.

When is electrical control for normal braking obtained?. In flight when the gear control lever is set to UP. On the ground by the auto brake system. When the green hydraulic pressure is available. Through the pedals.

What system energizes the alternate brake system in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Green hydraulic system. Brake accumulator. Normal brake system. Parking Brake control switch.

When does the ABCU become active in the alternate brake system?. When normal brake system is defective. When the A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is OFF. When the green system has low hydraulic pressure. When the BSCU is working properly.

What happens if there is a BSCU failure or low pressure in the hydraulic systems in relation to the anti-skid function?. The pilot must use the triple pressure indicator to control brake pressure. The ABCU sets a minimum limit of 1000 PSI for brake pressure. The anti-skid function is lost, and braking is unavailable. The A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is disabled.

How many full brake pedal applications can be done with the accumulator pressure alone?. 3. 7. Unlimited. 5.

What are the limits for the N/WS angle controlled by the BSCU?. Rudder pedals: max 6 degrees; Hand wheels: max 74 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 10 degrees; Hand wheels: max 50 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 5 degrees; Hand wheels: max 80 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 8 degrees; Hand wheels: max 60 degrees.

What does the Brake Temperature Monitoring Unit (BTMU) transmit to the BSCU?. Brake temperature data. Hydraulic pressure. Brake pedal inputs. Brake accumulator pressure.

If a failure occurs in the active LGCIU, the __________ LGCIU becomes active. secondary. standby. duplicate. alternate.

Normal braking is obtained when: - The green hydraulic pressure is available, - The Anti/SKID and Nose/Wheel Steering control switch is in the __________ position, - The Parking Brake control switch is in the OFF position. ON. OFF. standby. alternate.

Electrical control is obtained: - Through the pedals, - Automatically on the ground by the auto brake system, - In flight when the gear control lever is set to __________ (in-flight braking). UP. DOWN. OFF. ON.

The alternate brake system is energized by the __________ hydraulic system. green. yellow. red. blue.

Under what conditions does the ABCU get automatically activated?. When the anti-skid is faulty. When the A/SKID switch is selected to OFF (BSCU OFF). When the BSCU is serviceable. When the pressure downstream the selector valve drops below a given.

What functions can be controlled by the landing gear panel in the Airbus A320?. Brake accumulator pressure. Anti-skid and nose wheel steering. Parking brake electrical control. Tachometer readings.

How do the BSCU and ABCU receive inputs from the landing gear panel?. Wirelessly. Through hydraulic connections. Electrically. Pneumatically.

What information does the triple indicator provide in the Airbus A320?. Landing gear panel status. Brake accumulator supply pressure. Brake assembly version. Brake temperature readings.

When does the parking brake control valve override all other braking modes?. When the parking brake handle is closed. When normal braking is unavailable. When the pedals are depressed. When the pressure commanded by the pedal deflection exceeds the pressure delivered by the park brake system.

Which hydraulic system supplies the brake accumulator?. Normal hydraulic system. Yellow hydraulic system. Alternate hydraulic system. Green hydraulic system.

What is the primary function of the brake accumulator in the Airbus A320 braking system?. Control landing gear deployment. Supply pressure to the alternate brake system. Regulate brake temperature. Operate the parking brake.

The landing gear panel includes a toggle switch for anti skid and nose wheel steering function inhibition. True. False.

The triple indicator provides pressure indication for the left and right brake units when PARKING BRAKE is set to ON. True. False.

Each main wheel of the Airbus A320 has pneumatic brakes. True. False.

The parking brake electrical control valve is manually operated by the pilot. True. False.

The brake accumulator is primarily supplied from the green hydraulic system. True. False.

What is the purpose of an ANNunciator LighT test?. To control the cockpit lighting. To control the cabin lighting. To test the aircraft engines. To operate the landing lights.

How are ANN LTs supplied with power in an emergency?. From AC1 supply. From AC2 supply. From 115 VAC STATic INVerter bus. From ESSential supply.

Where are ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS located?. In the cockpit. In the avionics compartment. In the passenger cabin. In the engine room.

How many relays supply the ANN LTs when the switch 33LP is in the TEST position?. 1 relay. 2 relays. 4 relays. 10 relays.

Where is the COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH located?. In the avionics compartment. On the overhead control panel. In the cabin. 2000 VU Panel.

How are cabin lights controlled in the aircraft?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication Data System. Through the landing gear. Through the cockpit controls. Through the engine system.

What is the purpose of DEUs in controlling cabin lights?. To control the engine. To control the cockpit lights. To control the fluorescent lamps. To control the landing gear.

How many strobe lights are installed at each wingtip and tail cone?. One strobe light. Two strobe lights. Three strobe lights. Four strobe lights.

What does the "STROBE LT OFF" ECAM memo message indicate?. The strobe lights are malfunctioning. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are dimming.

What triggers the NEOL indication on the strobe light assemblies?. A landing gear malfunction. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are near the end of their useful life.

What is the purpose of wing and engine scan lights?. To signal to air traffic control. To illuminate the wings and engine air intake. To control the landing gear. To provide light for passengers.

The ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS are located in the passenger cabin. True. False.

The COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH has only two positions: DIM and BRT. True. False.

DEUs control the cabin fluorescent lamps based on signals from the FAP. True. False.

The entry fluorescent lamps can be controlled with buttons on the Passengers Service Unit (PSU). True. False.

The passenger reading lights are adjustable to different brightness levels. True. False.

The NEOL indication on the wingtip light assemblies indicates that the lights are at the end of their useful life. True. False.

What is the composition of the ADIRS?. Three Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs). Two Air Data Reference (ADR) units. Four Inertial Reference (IR) units. One Air Data Module (ADM).

How are ADIRUs interfaced with the Mode Selector Unit MSU?. Via AOA, TAT, and ADM inputs. Via PFDs, NDs, and ECAM SD. Via FACs, WXR system, and DDRMI. Via Air Traffic Control (ATC) system and ISA.

What are the inputs for the ADM?. One pressure input and several discrete inputs. Two pressure inputs and one discrete input. Multiple pressure inputs only. Single pressure input only.

What does the ADM output to the ADIRU?. ARINC bus with digital pressure information. Analog signal with temperature data. GPS coordinates and altitude information. Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) data.

How are gyros and accelerometers attached in a strapdown IRS?. Solidly attached to the aircraft structure. Attached to the wings of the aircraft. Suspended freely within the aircraft. Mounted on the cockpit dashboard.

What does the ring laser gyro measure?. Inertial rotation data. Magnetic field strength. Air temperature variations. GPS signal strength.

How do ring laser gyros measure rotation?. By detecting differences in laser beam frequencies. By analyzing magnetic field variations. By measuring changes in air pressure. By tracking GPS satellite positions.

What is the primary output of the ring laser gyros?. Analog rotation information. Digital altitude data. Magnetic heading information. Inertial velocity measurements.

What do the accelerometers in the ADIRUs provide?. Linear accelerations. Barometric altitude data. Air temperature variations. Aircraft ground speed.

How is the acceleration signal processed in the ADIRUs?. Sent to an analog/digital converter. Transmitted directly to the MMR units. Converted into GPS coordinates. Sent to the Weather Radar system.

How is the ILS descent axis determined?. By the intersection of a Localizer and Glide Slope beam. By GPS coordinates. By analyzing air pressure variations. By the aircraft's altitude.

What is the primary function of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)?. Supply signals transmitted by ground stations. Provide GPS coordinates. Measure atmospheric corrections. Control air traffic in the vicinity of the airport.

How is a descent axis determined in the ILS?. By the intersection of a Localizer beam and Glide Slope beam. By analyzing the aircraft's altitude. By measuring magnetic field variations. By tracking GPS satellite positions.

What is the primary purpose of the GPS (Global Positioning System)?. Provide accurate navigation information. Control air traffic. Measure atmospheric pressure variations. Transmit signals to ILS ground stations.

How is the GPS spatial segment composed in terms of satellite arrangement?. 24 satellites in six separate orbital planes. 12 satellites in one orbital plane. 48 satellites in 12 orbital planes. 6 satellites in a single orbital plane.

Where are the Multi-mode Receivers (MMR) typically located on the aircraft?. In the forward avionics bay 90VU. In the cockpit dashboard. On the wings of the aircraft. In the upper fuselage near the GPS antennas.

What are the external sensors that provide inputs to the ADIRUs in the ADIRS system?. Angle Of Attack (AOA), Total Air Temperature (TAT), and Air Data Module (ADM). Static Air Temperature (SAT), International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), and Total Air Temperature (TAT). Static ports, Pitot probes, and AOA sensors. GPS coordinates, ground speed, and altitude.

What are the primary components of the WXR and PWS system?. Weather radar transceiver and weather antenna drive. Aircraft engines and landing gear. Avionics bay and ILS. Weather radar transmitter/receiver and dual weather radar control unit.

How is the weather radar image displayed on the navigation displays (NDs)?. Independently on the CAPT ND only. Independently on the F/O ND only. Independently on both CAPT and F/O NDs. Not displayed on NDs.

What precautions must be taken before using the Weather Radar (WXR) system on the ground in specific modes?. Ensure the aircraft is refueled within 100 m. Maintain a 1.5 m clearance from the antenna. Avoid metallic obstacles within 5 m arc of ± 90º. Operate the system in any weather conditions.

Why should the WINDSHEAR AUTO/OFF selector switch be selected OFF when not in use?. To conserve power. To avoid nuisance aural alerts. To improve ground surveillance. To enhance weather radar performance.

The PWS function detects the windshear event if measurable ____ occurs during the event. precipitation. turbulence. wind speed. disturbances.

The primary components of the WXR/PWS system include a weather radar transceiver, a dual weather radar control unit, a single weather antenna drive, a weather radar antenna, and a weather radar _____. transmitter/receiver. receiver. display unit. transmitter.

Special precautions must be taken before using the Weather Radar (WXR) system on the ground in MAP, WX, or WINDSHEAR mode. The dangerous zone forward of the aircraft must be free of metallic obstacles such as hangars or aircraft, within 5 m in an arc of + or - 90º on either side of the aircraft _____. direction. radar. nose. centerline.

Why is the crew oxygen system used?. To supply oxygen during normal flight. To supply oxygen during cabin pressurization loss. To supply oxygen during passenger emergencies. To supply oxygen to the cabin attendants.

How is the pressure of the oxygen cylinder indicated to the crew?. By a pressure regulator. By a direct-reading pressure gauge. By a pressure switch. By a low-pressure warning light.

Under what conditions do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?. When the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet. When a passenger pushes the MASK MANual ON button. When a crew member pushes the MASK MANual ON button.

What happens when the TiMeR RESET pushbutton is pushed in the passenger oxygen system?. The masks retract automatically. The electrical system is rearmed. The passenger address system is activated. The oxygen supply is shut off.

What initiates the chemical generation in the oxygen masks?. Pulling the mask towards the user's face. Pressing the oxygen supply button. Opening the container door. Pushing the ON white light.

How many Crew oxygen bottles the A320 Neo has?. 1. 3. 2. None.

What is the purpose of the tamper seal in the portable oxygen container?. To indicate the oxygen level. To indicate if the PBE is operational. To show if the container is properly sealed. To signal low oxygen pressure.

The oxygen system includes: the crew system. the passenger system. the portable system. None all above. All above.

The flight crew oxygen system is used if there is a loss of cabin pressurization or ____________ in the cockpit. Fire. Water. Smoke. smoke or dangerous gases.

The high-pressure portable cylinder includes continuous-flow type masks and supplies first aid oxygen to ____________. the passengers. the cargo hold. the overhead bins. the cabin attendants.

There are two types of chemical generators supplying oxygen for 15 minutes or 22 minutes. True. False.

The Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) is designed to help crew members and cabin attendants extinguish fires by supplying oxygen. True. False.

The high-pressure portable cylinder supplies oxygen to passengers in case of an emergency. True. False.

The flight crew oxygen is supplied from a high-pressure oxygen cylinder at a pressure of 127.5 bar (1.850 psig). True. False.

The oxygen cylinder in the flight crew oxygen system is installed in a cradle with two quick-release clamps in the R/H avionics compartment. True. False.

Low-pressure safety outlets are part of the safety devices that protect the crew oxygen system. True. False.

What are the primary purposes of the pneumatic system on the Airbus A320?. Air conditioning and engine start. Fuel Tank Inerting System and pressurization. Anti-icing and ground power unit supply. All of the above.

When can high-pressure air be supplied to the pneumatic system from external ground sources?. Only during engine start. Only during anti-icing procedures. Both on the ground and in flight. Never.

Which engine compressor stages supply bleed air to the pneumatic system?. Only HP stage. Only IP stage. Both IP and HP stages. either IP nor HP stage.

What is the purpose of the High-Pressure Bleed Valve (HPV)?. To maintain high pressure in the pneumatic system. To supply air when engines are at low power. To regulate the temperature of the bleed air. To monitor system pressure.

Where is the Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV) installed in the pneumatic system?. Upstream of the IP bleed valve. Downstream of the HP bleed valve. Downstream of the IP and HP bleed valves. Upstream of the High Pressure Bleed Valve (HPV).

Which components of the pneumatic system are primarily installed on the engines and in the pylons?. Pressure regulation components. Temperature regulation components. Leak detection components. Crossbleed valve components.

What happens if one Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails?. The associated FAULT light is lost. The associated bleed valve closes automatically. The overpressure warning is activated. Both BMCs exchange data via ARINC bus.

The temperature of the engine bleed air is regulated by passing it through an air-to-air heat exchanger called the ________________. precooler. fan discharge. crossbleed. APU supply.

Both Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) receive signals from the leak detection loops. They exchange data via an ARINC bus for wing double loop detection. The wing loops A are connected to BMC 1, and wing loops B are connected to BMC 2. The crosstalk bus allows wing leak warnings to be activated through an ________________. OR logic. XOR logic. AND logic. NOT logic.

How is the engine air bleed pressure pneumatically regulated in the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high altitude.

Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF. Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire. Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft. Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature.

The engine air bleed pressure is pneumatically regulated by the __________ when air is supplied by the HP stage, or by the __________ when the air is supplied by the Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

A ground cart may supply the pneumatic system, and the supply duct is located on the left-hand side of the cross bleed valve. Only the LH bleed system is supplied when the X BLEED selector is in the ____________ position for ground air supply. OFF. AUTO. OPEN. SHUT.

When the X-BLEED selector is in the SHUT position, the ground air supply will be available to supply the LH and RH systems ____________. simultaneously. independently. alternately. occasionally.

The leak detection system is used to detect leaks in the vicinity of the packs, wings, pylons, and APU hot air ducts. Each wing is monitored by a double loop, and the pylon and APU hot air ducts are monitored by a ____________ loop. dual. redundant. single. triple.

The APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system through the APU bleed valve if the APU is ____________. operational. running. stopped. in standby mode.