BEECHCRAFT 1900D AIRLINER

What lights wilI illuminate during a Ieft fire extinguishing system test if the test switch was selected to TEST A?. a. Master caution flasher and the Ieft yellow DISCH and green OK light. b. The left yellow DISCH light only. c. The left yellow DISCH and green OK light. d. The left green OK light only.

What does pulling the T-Hand accomplish?. a. It closes the firewall shutoff valve, cutting off fuel to Ihe engine, and actuates the associated fire extinguishing system. b. It closes the firewall shutoff valve, cutting off fuel to the engine, shutoff the hydraulic system, and actuates the associated fire extinguishing system. c. It closes c pilot valve in the primary governor, shutoff the hydraulic system, and actuates the associated fire extinguishing system. d. It closes the firewall shutoff valve, cutting off fuel to the engine, and arms the associated fire extinguishing system.

Which annunciators will illuminate in the event of a grounding fault (short) on the Center Bus?. a. BATT TIE OPEN. b. L/R GEN TIE OPEN. c. No annunciator lights will illuminate. d. Both A and B are correct.

If the landing gear is UP, and the flaps are placed in the DOWN (35 degrees) position: a. The red handle lights will be illuminated. b. The landing gear warning horn can not be silenced. c. The landing gear warning horn can be silenced. d. Both A and B are correct.

Essential circuit breakers may be reset: a. One time. b. Until it stays in. c. Under no circumstances. d. Twice in icing conditions.

Which annunciators wiIl illuminate in the event of a ground fault (short) on the Right Generator Bus?. a. R DC GEN. b. R GEN TIE OPEN. c. MAN TIES CLOSED. d. Both A and B are correct.

The standby boost pump is automatically energized by: a. Activation of the ignition starter switch. b. Cross transfer of fuel. c. Failure of the engine driven boost pump. d. Both A and B are correct.

The engine driven high pressure pump fails. a. You can turn on the standby pump, which extinguishes the annunciator. b. The engine will suction feed using the low pressure pump pressure. c. The low pressure pump will take over automatically. d. The engine will fail.

What is the function of the P3 purge tank in the fuel system?. a. It is designed to assure that any residual fuel in the fuel manifolds is returned. to the main tank after engine shutdown. b. It is designed Lo assure that no outside air enters into the fuel manifolds aher engine shutdown. c. It is designed Lo stop the fuel from entering into the flow divider during the engine start until it reaches 100 psi pressure. d. It is designed to assure that any residual fuel in the fuel manifolds is consumed during engine shutdown.

If the left firewall fuel valve is closed: a. You can not transfer fuel from the left side to the right side. b. You can transfer fuel from the right side only. c. You can transfer fuel from the left side to the right side. d. Both A and B are correct.

With main and auxiliary tank full, what is going to happen with the fuel in the event of thermal expansion: a. In the event of thermal expansion fuel from the main tanks is going (o flow to auxiliary tanks through fuel vent system. b. In the event of thermal expansion fuel from the main tanks is going to ftow out of the main tanks on lo the ground. c. In the event of thermal expansion fuel from the main and auxiliary tanks is going to flow to collector tank. d. Fuel will remain in the tank, as this pressure increase is just temporary and cannot do any damage to thc fuel system.

During left engine failure, what needs to be done in order to transfer fuel from left auxiliary tank to the right collector tank?. a. Turn left auxiliary pump on and select (he fuel transfer switch to the right. b. Turn right standby pump on and select the fuel transfer switch to the right. c. Turn left auxiliary and left standby pumps on and select the fuel transfer switch to the right. d. Select fuel transfer switch from center position to the right only.

When the engine auto ignition is armed, the igniters are activated when: a. Torque drops below 750 ft.lbs. b. Torque exceeds 550 ft.lbs. c. ITT drops below 250 degrees C. d. ITT’ drops below 500 degrees C.

The PT6A-67D is flat-rated to ________SHP: a. 1,172 SHP. b. 1,279 SHP. c. 1,285 SHP. d. 1,353 SHP.

The Pratt and Whitney PT6A-67D uses approximately ____% of its air for fuel combustion and ____% for centering the flame and cooling. a. 35/65. b. 25/75. c. 50/50. d. 40/60.

The minimum fuel flow stop in the Fuel Control Unit is set to approximately. a. 60 lbs./hr per engine. b. 90 Ihs./hr per engine. c. 120 lbs./hr per engine. d. There is no minimum fuel flow stop.

Which of the following is true regarding the F’T6A-67D engine. a. The axial compressors are more effective at Iow N1 speeds. b. The axial compressors are more effective at high N1 speeds. c. The centrifugal compressor is more effective at low N1 speeds. d. None of the above are correct.

Oil pressure between ______and ______psi is undesirable. If this occurs, the torque on respective engine should not exceed _____ft-lbs for completion of flight. a. 60; 90; 2,000. b. 60; 90; 1,750. c. 45; 60; 2,000.

The Fight Idle prop blade angle is: degrees. a. 5.9 degrees. b. 12.7 degrees. c. - 5.9 degrees. d. 4.7 degrees.

During the takeoff roll the left primary prop governor fails: a. The Ieft prop will govern at 1768 rpm. b. The left prop will govern at 1802 rpm. c. The left prop wilI feather. d. The fuel-topping governor will govern the prop at 96% of selected rpm.

The operating range of the BE1900 D propeller is: a. 1400 -1700 RPM. b. 1500 - 1700 RPM. c.1200 - 1700 RPM. d. 900 - 1700 RPM.

The fuel-topping governor is set to what % of the primary governor when the power levers are in reverse. a. 104. b. 106. c. 96. d. 94.

The prop sync system uses the left engine as the master: a. True. b. False.

The propeller governor pump raises oil pressure to _____, psi for use by the propeller governor system?. a. 375. b. 750. c. 1000. d. 1500.

The maximum allowable propeller rpm is: a. 1700. b. 1768. c. 1802. d. 1870.

You can feather the propellers by: a. Manually moving the propeller levers to feather. b. Engaging the autofeather system. c.Bringing the power Ievers ah the way back. d. Both A and B are correct.

The primary governor modulates ______ pressure in the propeller dome in order to change blade angle and maintain constant propeller speed. a. P3 air. b. Pneumatic 18-psi air. c. Engine oil. d. Propeller system hydraulic fluid.

What is the propeller diameter?. a. 120 inches. b. 110 inches. c. 100 inches. d. 79 inches.

Asymmetrical Flap protection is provideci by: a. Relay designed to mp the flap control circuit breaker. b. Spring retracts the flaps and, the flap handle, to the last position. c. Horn sounds if a split flap condition of 3 to 6 degrees exists. d. Switch is rigged to shut off the flap motor if an out of phase condition of approximately 3 to 6 degrees exist between adjacent flap segments.

The Beech 1900D has the following flap positions. a. UP, TAKEOFF & APPROACH, DOWN. b. 0, 15, and 30 degrees. c. 0, 17, and 35 degrees. d. UP, TAKEOFF, APPROACH, and LANDING.

The __________ and __________ flight controls are interconnected. a. Ailerons and rudder. b. Ailerons and elevator. c. Rudder and elevator. d. Flaps and elevator.

Rudder boost will be activated when the system senses: a. A minimum fuel flow differential of 120 pph between engines. b. A minimum ITT differential of 120 degrees C between engines. c. A minimum torque differential of 1,200 ft Ib between engines. d. Excessive pilot input of rudder to one side.

Engine anti-ice should be used: a. After visible moisture is encountered at 5 degrees C or below. b. When visibility is reported less than 8 miles at 5 degrees C. or below. c. Before visible moisture is encountered and at 5 degrees C or below. d. When ice is seen forming on the windshield wiper blades.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the MANUAL propeller de-ice system. a. Both the left and right propeller systems are operated simultaneously. b. The switch is spring loaded and must be held in position for 90 seconds. c. Both propeller ammeters will indicate a load when using MANUAL position. d. All of the above are correct.

Fuel is heated by: a. P3 air heat exchanger. b. An oil to fuel heat exchanger. c. Electric heat exchanger. d. Fuel is not heated.

Which statement is true regarding the Avionics Systern?. a. All Avionics equipment may be turned on by the Avionics Master Switch. b. All Avionics equipment is run off of three (3) Avionics Busses. c. Each Avionics Bus concerts DC to A’ power. d. The Avionics System gets ah of its power from the Hot Battery Bus.

Illumination of the white advisory Iight RDR PWR ON indicates?. a. Radar is off with landing gear in the UP position (in flight). b. Radar is selected to a position other that OFF (on ground). c. Radar is selected to a STBY position while on the ground. d. Radar is selected to a STBY position while in flight.

What is the source of air for the pneumatic system?. a. External ram air. b. Pneumatic pumps. c. P3 air. d. P2.5 air.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the pneumatic/vacuum system: a. Vacuum for de-ice system is supplied by a ram air ejector. b. Single-engine operation may not supply enough pneumatic pressure for surface de-ice system. c. Vacuum pressure for flight instruments is derived from a bleed air ejector. d. All of the above are correct.

What is the indication to the pilots in the cockpit of a total malfunction of the vacuum system?. a. Gyro suction gauge indication of 0 inches Hg and uncontrolled cabin descent. b. Gyro suction gauge indication of 0 inches Hg and uncontrolled cabin climb. c. Gyro suction gauge indication over 5.9 inches Hg. d. Illumination of CABIN ALTITUDE warning Annunciator.

A rupture of the EVA tubing wilI cause: a. The L/R ENVIR FAIL annunciators to illuminate. b. The L/R BL AIR FAIL annunciators to illuminate. c. The L/R ENVIR 0FF annunciators Lo illuminate. d. The MASTER CAUTION fhashers to illuminate.

Normal environmental system pressure is: a. 18 psi. b. 38 psi. c. 44 psi. d. 60 psi.

Placing the pressurization control in the DUMP position causes the outflow valves to: a. Be held open by vacuum. b. Be held open by P3 air. c. Be held open by a spring. d. Be held closed by P3 air.

lf the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 ft.: a. Flight crew oxygen masks will automatically deploy. b. Passenger oxygen masks will deploy automatically. c. The CABIN ALT Hl annunciator will illuminate. d. Both b & c are correct.

Minimum N1 to maintain adequate airflow for pressurization during flight is: a. 65%. b. 70%. c. 75%. d. 80%.

The outflow valves: a. Provide positive and negative pressure relief. b. Depressurize (he aircraft when (he cabin pressure switch is moved to DUMP. c. Controls the rate at which air escapes the cabin. d. All of the above are correct.

The outflow valves are modulated by: a. P3 air. b. Vacuum. c. 18-psi air. d. Cabin Pressure.

What is the maximum permitted torque for prop rpm of 1,802?. a.3.138 ft/lbs. b. 3.538 ft/lbs. c. 3.580 ft/lbs. d. 5.000ft/lbs.

What is the normal pressure of the fire bottles (standard atmospheric conditions)?. a. 360 psi. b. 380 psi. c. 340 psi. d. 400 psi.

The landing gear motor will stop after _______ seconds. a. 8. b. 16. c. 4. d. 6.

What voltage is required to automatically close the GEN TIES?. a. 24 volts. b. 28 volts. c. 26 volts. d. 23 volts.

Fault isolation protection for the Triple Fed Bus is provided by: a. A single circuit breaker on the Co-Pilots side. b. High current sensing devices (Hall Effect Devices). c. Three 60 amp current limiters. d. Two ties 325 amp limiters.

Illumination of the green advisory Light MAN TIES CLOSED indicates?. a. Failure of the bus ties logic. b. Manually closed generator bus ties. c. Failure of manually closed generator bus tie system. d. Center bus short.

L/R FIRE LOOP indicates an open engine fire detector sensor loop. a. True. b. False.

L/R FUEL PRESS indicates that the fuel pressure is below _______ PSI. a. 6. b. 8. c. 10. d. 45.

What is the maximum differential between generator loadmeters?. a. 5%. b. 10%. c. 15%. d. 20%.

Flaps are _________ operated. a. Electrically and Hydraulically. b. Hydraulically. c. Electrically. d. None of the above.

Can fuel be transferred if the right firewall shut off valve is closed?. a. Yes. b. No.

The oxygen system will relieve at _______ PSI. a. 2575. b. 2675. c. 2775. d. 2875.

The compressor shaft rotates.... a. Clockwise. b. Counter clockwise.

There are _______ fire extinguisher in the plane. a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

The landing gear warning horn will sound when the power is below ______ N1. a. 80%-86%. b. 84%-86%. c. 84%-88%. d. 80%-88%.

The gear warning horn can be silenced at all times. a. True. b. False.

As oil leaves the prop dome, the prop blade angle ______. a. Increases. b. Decreases.

In the AUTO mode, all boots each prop are heated for _________ seconds. One prop is heated at a time. a. 60. b. 30. c. 120. d. 90.

What is the minimum oil temperature recommended for fuel heater operation at takeoff power?. a. 35. b. 45. c. 55. d. 65.

Which of the following use the hot battery bus as a source of electrical power?. a. Left and right fire extinguishers. b. Left and right fuel wall shutoff valves. c. GPU overvolt sensor. d. All of the above.

A squat switch on the left main landing gear and a mechanical down lock on the gear handle will prevent the gear from being retracted on the ground. a. True. b. False.

The EXTERNAL POWER light indicates that.... a. the GPU power is acceptable. b. the GPU is plugged into the receptacle and supplying adequate power. c. the GPU is plugged into the receptacle. d. All of the above.

What is the minimum airspeed to air start an engine without starter assist?. a.150 kts. b. 130 kts. c. 160 kts. d. 140 kts.

Auto ignition must be armed for.... a. takeoff from contaminated runways. b. In icing conditions. c. Heavy precipitation. d. All of the above.

Failure of the electric standby pumps will: a. Result in a flameout. b. Result in the inability to cross transfer to the opposite wing. c. Will cause the L o R FUEL PRESS enunciator to illuminate in all situations. d. Both A and B are correct.

Cual es el Radio de Giro del avión. a. 41´ 2”. b. 45´ 5”. c. 42´ 1. d. 14. 2.

Para que nos sirve la corriente AC en esta aeronave. a. Indicadores motor. b. Energizar giros. c. Indicadores de combustible.

La valvula p 2.5 comienza a cerrarse _____y cierra completamente al ____ de n1. a. 65 y 72. b. 72 y 90. c. 90 y 1000 tq.

Las etapas de la turbina de compresión son. a. 4 axiales 1 centrifuga. b. 3 axiales 1 centrifuga. c. 4 axiales y 1 desplazada.

Cuando se enciende la luz de FUEL QTY______ lbs. a. 363. b. 324. c. 364.

La luz de COL TANK LOW se enciende cuando los quedan ______ lbs a 8 min de vuelo aprox. a. 324. b. 54. c. 53.

Al oprimir el botón del control weel disconect completamente que desactivo. a. Autopilot. b. Yaw damper. c. Elevator trim. d. todos los anteriores.

Con que presión ingresa a la cabina el aire para presurización: a. 150 psi. b. 450 psi. c. 38 psi.

Cuantas bombas de aceite hay en el motor. a. 4. b. 5. c. 3.

Cuantas bombas de combustible eléctricas componen el sistema de combustible. a. 2. b. 3. c. 4.

Asimetría de flaps es de _____ grados entre. a. 3 a 6 en mismo plano. b. 3 a 6 planos diferentes.

Cual es la frecuencia y voltaje de los invertidores AC. a. 24 V 36 HZ. b. 110V 400 HZ. c. 115 V 400 HZ.

El emergency lights de la cabina esta aderido a la barra de la batería. a. Verdadero. b. Falso.

Las luces de aterrizaje tienen limitante de tiempo. a. Verdadero. b. Falso.

Al tener el enviromental mode control en off puedo operar el blower en hi. a. Verdadero. b. Falso.

Al tenfuner luz de ANN POWER SOURCE me indica que una de luces del warnig o caution panel esta fundida. a. Verdadero. b. Falso.

Flight load limits for flaps UP are: a. 3.0 positive g’s, 1.2 negative g’s. b. 2.0 positive g’s, 1.2 negative g’s. c. 2.0 positive g’s, 0.0 negative g’s. d. 3.0 positive g’s, 0.2 negative g’s.

The minimum airspeed required for an air-start without a starter assist is: a. 140 KIAS. b. 150 KIAS. c. 160 KIAS. d. 170 KIAS.

The maximum altitude to air-start an engine without a starter assis is: a. 25,000ft. b. 20,000 ft. c. 15,000ft. d. 10,000 ft.

The minimum N1 required lo air-start an engine without a starter assist is: a. 8%. b. 10%. c. 13%. d. 15%.

The Maximum Ramp Weight is___; Maximum Takeoff Weight is___;Maximum Landing Weight is ___, and the Zero Fuel Weight is___ 1. 14,000 lbs. 2. 16,100lbs. 3. 17,230 lbs. 4. 16,9501bs. 5. 16,765 lbs. 6. 16,000lbs. 7. 15,165 lbs. 8. 17,120lbs. a. 3,8,5,7. b. 5,4,7,1. c. 5,4,2,7. d. 3,4,6,1.

What is maximum demonstrated crosswind component?. a. 18 knots. b. 20 knots. c. 22 knots. d. 26 knots.

Engine operation at transient power settings is time limited to?. a. 30 seconds. b. 10 seconds. c. One minute. d. 20 seconds.

What is the maximum ITT for max continuous power settings?. a. 750°C. b. 780°C. c. 800°C. d. 870°C.

What is the starter limit for an aborted start (no ignition) followed by an attempted restart?. a. 20 seconds on-30 seconds off; 20 seconds on-60 seconds off; 20 seconds on, five minutes off. b. 20 seconds on-30 seconds off; 20 seconds on-three minutes off; 20 seconds on-five minutes off. c. 20 seconds on-60 seconds off; 20 seconds on-three minutes off; 20 seconds on-five minutes off. d. 20 seconds on-30 seconds off; 20 seconds on- five minutes off; 20 seconds on-30 minutes off.

What is the maximum permitted landing gear extension speed (V LE)?. a. 154 KIAS. b. 178 KIAS. c. 180 KIAS. d. 188 KIAS.

How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed?. a. Four, two for each engine. They are located in the respective wheel wells. b. Four, two for each engine. They are located in the respective wing. c. Two, one for each engine. They are located in the respective wheel wells. d. Two, one for each engine. They are located in the respective wing.

What is the minimum battery voltage required in order to proceed with a battery start?. a. 24 volts. b. 23 volts. c. 20 volts. d. There is no minimum battery voltage, as the generator once on line will recharge the battery.

The battery on the BE-1900 is: a. A 24V celI nickel-cadmium battery located in the right wing. b. A 20V celI nickel-cadmium battery located in the left wing. c. A 20V ceIl nickel-cadmium battery located in the right wing. d. A 24V celI nickel-cadmium battery located in the left wing.

The standby fuel pump are located: a. In their respective wheel well. b. In the nose compartment adjacent to the oxygen bottles. c. In their respective main tanks outboard of the engine nacelles. d. In their respective collector tanks.

The Fuel Flow indicators are powered by: a. 24 or 28 VDC. b. 115 VAC. c. 26 VAC. d. 28 VDC ONLY.

Maximum fuel imbalance between wings is. a. 300 lbs. b. 200 lbs. c. 300 gaI. d. 200 gaI.

The PT6A-67D utilizes: a. Two glow plug type igniters. b. Four flow plug type igniters. c. Two spark type igniters. d. Four spark type igniters.

The engine intake hp is heated by: a. Whenever the Engine Anti-ice is selected. b. Continuously by the P2.5 bleed air. c. Continuously by P3 bleed air. d. Engine exhaust air.

The BATTERY CHARGE annunciator will illuminate: a. When the battery is accepting a charge of more than 7 amps in 6 seconds. b. After a normal battery start. c. When a possible problem exists with the battery. d. All of the above are correct.

A complete failure of DC power in flight wiII cause the loss of: a. Pressurization. b. AC powered instruments. c. Cross-transfer capability. d. All of the above are correct.

The generators are rated at: a. 28 volts, 34 amps. b. 34 volts, 300 amps. c. 28 volts, 300 amps. d. 24 volts, 34 amps.

lf an AC Bus fails: a. The other inverter wiIl automatically switch on. b. AC Bus Switch (failed side) off, then on. c. The MASTER CAUTION annunciator wiII illuminate. d. None of the above are correct.

Which of the following is a true statement?. a. The position of the low pitch stop is controlled in the cockpit by the prop lever. b. To enter the Beta range, the prop lever must be in the full forward position. c. Both ground and flight low pitch stops are set by the beta valve. d. It is advisable to place the power levers in the reverse position while the props are feathered.

What procedure should be used in the event of propeller collision during ground operation if maximum braking and maxirnum reverse are insufficient and a collision is imminent?. a. Power Levers - GROUND FINE OR IDLE Condition Levers - FUEL CUTOFF; Propeller Levers - FEATHER. b. Power Levers — GROUND FINE OR IDLE; Propeller Levers — FEATHER; Condition Levers - FUEL CUTOFF. c. Condition Levers - FUEL CUTOFF. d. Power Levers - GROUND FINE OR IDLE; Condition Levers CUTOFF.

Electric elevator trim may be disconnect by _____ or by turning the system switch on the pedestal 0FF. a. Depressing the control wheel disconnect to the 1st level. b. Depressing the control wheel disconnect to the 2nd level. c. Depressing the holding (he control wheel disconnect to the 1st level. d. Depressing and holding (he control wheel disconnect Lo the 2nd level.

Any activation of the electric trim by the ___________ can be overridden by the ______. a. No override capability is provided. b. Either pilot; other pilot. c. Pilot; copilot. d. copilot; Pilot.

For the pilot to be able to breathe oxygen from his/her mask. which of the following must be done?. a. The OXYGEN PULL ON knob must be pulled. b. Cabin altitude must be above 100O0 ft. mi. c. The CABIN OXYGEN PULL ON must be pulled. d. Both A and C are correct.

El DPU (Display Processor Unit (Avionica)), ¿Qué corriente recibe?. AC. DC.

Cuales son las dimensiones del B 1900 D: a. Longitud 16,40 mts. Envergadura 17,64 mts. Alto 4,54 mts. b. Longitud 57’ 83” Envergadura 57`98” Alto 15`48”. c. Longitud 19,73 pies Envergadura 21,44 pies Alto 6,97 pies. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.

Cual es el máximo peso de despegue del B 1900 D: a. 15.100 Lbs. b. 16.600 Lbs. c. 17.120 Lbs. d.16.950 Lbs.

Cual es el Zero Fuel Weight del B 1900 D: a. 16.000 Lbs. b. 16.500 Lbs. c. 15.165 Lbs. d. 15.000 Lbs.

Que tipos de combustible son aprobados para el B 1900: a. JP 4, JP 5, JP 8. b. Jet A, Jet A1, Jet B. c. Avgas 100/130 solo en caso de emergencia. d. Todas las anteriores.

Cual es el máximo peso de Aterrizaje del B 1900 D: a. 15.100 Lbs. b. 16.600 Lbs. c. 17.120 Lbs. d. 16.765 Lbs.

Cual es el máximo desbalance permitido entre tanques de combustible: a. 300 Lbs. b. 400 Lbs. c. 200 Lbs. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.

Cual es el máximo peso en Rampa del B 1900 D: a. 17.000 Lbs. b. 17.230 Lbs. c. 18.000 Lbs. d. 15.500 lbs.

Cual es el techo de servicio con los dos motores operando: a. 20.000 Pies. b. 30.000 Pies. c. 25.000 Pies. d. FL 190.

Cual es la capacidad máxima en bodega de carga: a. C: 300 Lbs. C1: 1200 Lbs. C2: 830 Lbs. b. C: 200 Lbs. C1: 1000 Lbs. C2: 630 Lbs. c. C: 500 Lbs. C1: 500 Lbs. C2: 500 Lbs. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.

Características de los motores del B 1900 D: a. P&W PT6 A 27C de 1100 SHP. b. P&W PT6 A 65C de 1500 SHP. c. P&W PT6 A 21B de 1000 SHP. d. P&W PT6 A 67D de 1279 SHP.

Cual es la capacidad total de combustible usable del avión: a. 4484 Lbs. / 665,4 US Gallons. b. 4500 Lbs. / 650 US Gallons. c. 4000 Lbs. / 600 US Gallons. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.

Cuales son las condiciones ISA al nivel del mar: a. 20ºC, 30.00” Hg. b. 30ºC, 1015 Mb. c. 10ºC, 30.20” Hg. d. 15ºC, 1.013 Mb. ó 29,92” Hg.

El B 1900 D está autorizado para vuelo VFR, IFR, Nocturno, Hielo conocido: a. Falso. b. Verdadero.

Cuanto mide la trocha del B 1900 D: a. 5,56 m. b. 5,39 m. c. 7,57 m. d. 5,52 m.

Cual es el máximo TQ, ITT, N1 y N2 para Transient en el B 1900 D. a. 3750 Ft./Lb – 780ºC – 104% – 1700 RPM. b. 3850 Ft./Lb – 810ºC – 100% – 1780 RPM. c. 3950 Ft./Lb – 800ºC – 104% – 1700 RPM. d. 5000 Ft./Lb – 870ºC – 104% – 1870 RPM.

Cual es el máximo TQ, ITT, N1 y N2 para Max Continuous en el B 1900 D. a. 3750 Ft./Lb – 780ºC – 104% – 1700 RPM. b. 3850 Ft./Lb – 810ºC – 100% – 1780 RPM. c. 3950 Ft./Lb – 800ºC – 104% – 1700 RPM. d. 5000 Ft./Lb – 870ºC – 104% – 1870 RPM.

Cual es el máximo TQ, ITT, N1 y N2 para Despegue en el B 1900 D. a. 3750 Ft./Lb – 780ºC – 104% – 1700 RPM. b. 5000 Ft./Lb – 850ºC – 104% – 1870 RPM. c. 3950 Ft./Lb – 800ºC – 104% – 1700 RPM. d. 3850 Ft./Lb – 810ºC – 100% – 1780 RPM.

La velocidad máxima para un descenso de emergencia es: a. 140 KIAS. b. 150 KIAS. c. 180 KIAS. d. 220 KIAS.

La hélice del B 1900 D es: a. Hamilton de 3 palas, reversible, embanderable, paso variable. b. Hartzell de 3 palas, velocidad constante, reversible. c. Hamilton de 4 palas, embanderable, velocidad variable. d. Hartzell de 4 palas, velocidad constante, reversible, embanderable.

La batería del avión está ubicada en: a. La nariz del avión. b. Dentro del capot del motor derecho. c. Dentro del plano derecho. d. En la bodega de carga, debajo del piso.

La máxima temperatura de ITT en encendido es: a. 1000ºC. b. 800ºC. c. 1200ºC. d. 750ºC.

Los diferentes ángulos de pala de la hélice son: a. Feather 69º - Flight Idle 15º - Ground Idle 9º - Reverso – 19º. b. Feather 79º - Flight Idle 12,7º - Ground Idle 4,9º - Reverso – 14,5º. c. Feather 89º - Flight Idle 17º - Ground Idle 7º - Reverso – 30º. d. Feather 99º - Flight Idle 19º - Ground Idle 15º - Reverso – 17º.

El sistema hidráulico del B 1900 D es usado para: a. Flaps. b. Tren de aterrizaje. c. Rudder Boost. d. Todas las anteriores.

Las fuentes primarias de corriente DC del B 1900 D son: a. La batería. b. Los generadores. c. Los invertidores. d. A y B son correctas.

Cual es el voltaje MINIMO de Batería para conectar la planta externa (GPU). a. 18 VDC. b. 20 VDC. c. 22 VDC. d. 24 VDC.

Los indicadores de combustible son energizados por: a. 26 VAC. b. 115 VAC. c. 400 Hz. d. 24 / 28 VDC.

Cual es la resistencia del piso del B 1900: a. 100 Lbs./ pie cuadrado. b. 200 Lbs./ pie cuadrado. c. 300 Lbs./ pie cuadrado. d. Ninguna de las anteriores.

Con una Batería totalmente cargada y el Master Switch en ON, que barras son energizadas: a. Hot Battery Bus y Battery Bus únicamente. b. Todas las barras. c. Hot Battery Bus, Battery Bus, Triple Fed Bus y Center Bus. d. Generator Buses, Triple Fed Bus, Center Bus y Battery Bus.

El tren de aterrizaje del B 1900 es mantenido ABAJO asegurado por: a. Switches Eléctricos. b. Seguros mecánicos en los actuadores. c. Presión hidráulica en el sistema. d. El “Drag Brace”.

El motor de los Flaps del B 1900 mueve los flaps por acción de: a. Dos tubos de Torqueo. b. Dos tubos de Torqueo y cuatro tornillos sinfín. c. Dos guayas flexibles. d. Cuatro guayas flexibles.

Cuales son los limites delantero y trasero del centro de gravedad: a. 18% al 42% MAC. b. 10% al 38% MAC. c. 12% al 38% MAC. d. 4% al 40% MAC.

El tren de aterrizaje del B 1900 es mantenido ARRIBA por: a. Switches Eléctricos. b. Seguros mecánicos en los actuadores. c. Presión hidráulica en el sistema. d. El “Drag Brace”.