1. The first freedom of the air is: The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another state. The right to land for a technical stop. The right to overfly without landing. The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
2. The loading limitations shall include: All limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loadings. All limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings. All limiting mass and centers of gravity. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity.
3. Load factors has the following meaning: The loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions. The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions. The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces.
4. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: The state of registry. The international civil aviation organization. The state of registry and accepted by the international telecommunication union. The international telecommunication union.
5. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: The state of registry or common mark registering authority. The international civil aviation organization. The state of registry only. The international telecommunication union.
6. The certificate of registration shall: Be visible to the passengers at all times. Be carried on board the aircraft at all times. Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger. Both a and c are correct.
7. The validity of the instrument-rating airplane - IR(A) is : 6 months 5 years 1 year 2 years.
8. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot license shall not be less than : 18 years of age 21 years of age 17 years of age 16 years of age.
9. An applicant for a commercial pilot license shall hold: A current class 1 medical assessment A current class 3 medical assessment A current class 2 medical assessment A current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the license.
10. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: The license is issued or validated The medical assessment is issued The license is issued or renewed The license is delivered to the pilot.
11. A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a: Base turn. Procedure turn. Race track. Reversal track.
12. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should not be made until: 1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. The required obstacle clearance can be
maintained and a landing can be made. The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: 1, 2, 3. 2, 3. 1, 2. 1, 3.
13. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Initial approach segment. Intermediate approach segment. Arrival segment. Final approach segment.
14. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1,968 ft). 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft). 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2,955 ft).
15. In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to: 1 minute. 2 minutes. 1 minute 30 seconds. 3 minutes.
16. How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have?: 3 4 Up to 5 Up to 4.
17. In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories c, d, e aircraft for: 1 minute 30 seconds. 1 minute. 2 minutes. 1 minute 15 seconds.
18. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline, after being established on track, more than: One and a half of scale deflection. Half a scale deflection. One scale deflection. A quarter of scale deflection.
19. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?: Initial, intermediate and final. Arrival, intermediate and final. Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. Initial and final.
20. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: 0.8%. 3.3%. 2.5%. 5%.
21. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: Visual maneuvering (circling). Contact approach. Visual approach. Aerodrome traffic pattern.
22. A circling approach is: A flight maneuver to be performed only under radar vectoring. A visual flight maneuver keeping the runway in sight. A visual maneuver to be conducted only in IMC. A contact flight maneuver.
23. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: Map FAF Landing runway Final missed approach track.
24. On a non-precision approach, a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is: 30 degrees or less 40 degrees or less 20 degrees or less 10 degrees or less.
25. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is : 6,5%. 8%. 5%. 7%.
26. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: 30 m (98 ft) 90 m (295 ft) 50 m (164 ft) 120 m (384 ft).
27. Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: 5 nm 25 nm 20 nm 10 nm.
28. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: 200 ft The OCH 350 ft 400 ft.
29. (IR) If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall: Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to maintain obstacle clearance. Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach procedures. Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained. Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude.
30. (IR) Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?: It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment. This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted. Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC. Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance a high rate of descent.
31. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licenses - airplane and helicopter - have passed their 40th birthday, the medical examination shall be reduced from : 12 months to 6 months 24 months to 12 months 12 months to 3 months None of the answers are correct.
32. Type ratings shall be established: Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority All the answers are correct.
33. According to VAR, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and maneuvers of an airplane type certificated for: A minimum crew of two pilots under IFR Operations by pilots under training For the carriage of passengers at night A minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.
34. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than: 1,500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 2,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 1,000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km.
35. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: The airliner operator The commander The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace The aircraft owner.
36. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?: Military aircraft Emergency aircraft VIP (head of state) aircraft Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.
37. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following codes in mode "A": 7500 7600 7700 7000.
38. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz.
39. Which maneuver shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "you may proceed”?: Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
40. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?: Switching on and off three times the landing lights The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights Switching on and off four times the landing lights Switching on and off four times the navigation lights.
41. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling Give way to other aircraft in emergency Continue circling and wait for further instructions The airport is unsafe, do not land.
42. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?: Inform the ATC unit immediately Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions.
43. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?: Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Squawk 7700 The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit.
44. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist Crossing arms extended above his head Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
45. An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise air traffic services of landing Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan. Descend to en-route minimum safe altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
46. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : Dangerous airfield. Do not land. Come back and land. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
47. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: On the ground when the engines are running Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed While taxiing, but not when it is being towed.
48. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: Taxiing needs not be confined to the taxiways Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only Glider-flying is performed outside the landing area This aerodrome is using parallel runways.
49. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: Fly the emergency triangle Declare an emergency Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1,000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure.
50. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. Must give way to another aircraft. Is cleared to land. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.
51. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower, series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: Must stop Must vacate the landing area in use Must return to its point of departure May continue to taxi to the take-off area.
52. According to the Chicago convention, aircraft of contracting states shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting states and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights: To aircraft on non-commercial flights only. To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services. To aircraft of scheduled air services only. To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.
53. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?: The rules established under the convention of international civil aviation. The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft. The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft. The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown.
54. Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and recommended practices (SARPS)?: Procedures for air navigation services (PANS). Regional supplementary procedures (SUPPS). Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation. ICAO technical manuals.
55. According to which convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?: The convention of Rome. The convention of Tokyo. The convention of Warsaw. The convention of Chicago.
56. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?: The Montreal convention. The Rome convention. The Tokyo convention. The Guatemala convention.
57. Annex 17 to the convention of Chicago covers: Aerodromes Security Facilitation Operation of aircraft.
58. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO) establishes: Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
59. The international civil aviation organization (ICAO.) was established by the international convention of: Chicago Warsaw The Hague Montreal.
60. The second freedom of the air is the: Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. Right to land for a technical stop. Right to overfly without landing. Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
61. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: 7500 7000 7700 7600.
62. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?: Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
63. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of: 60 nm or more 100 nm or more 75 nm or more 50 nm or more.
64. Required navigation performance (RNP) shall be prescribed: By regional air navigation agreements By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
65. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.
66. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes. 15 minutes.
67. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes. 3 minutes. 6 minutes. 10 minutes.
68. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: 20 nm. 5 nm. 10 nm. 20 nm when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or faster than the
succeeding aircraft.
69. When applying longitudinal separation based on distance (DME), the minimum separation between two aircraft on reciprocal tracks climbing or descending through the same flight level shall be at least: 6 nm 10 km 3 nm 2 km.
70. Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level?: 30° and a distance of 15 nm or more. 15° and a distance of 15 nm or more. 15° and a distance of 15 km or more. 30° and a distance of 15 km or more.
71. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are: Below 1,500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater Below 2,000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater Below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater Cumulonimbus.
72. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated a342 z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of : 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 15 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 22.5 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL250 25 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190.
73. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated b235 y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of: 25.0 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL250 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 260 22.5 nm between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 20 nm on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200.
74. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks. 10 minutes prior to departure. 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks. 60 minutes prior to departure.
75. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
76. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?: The aircraft operator. The pilot in command. The ATC. The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
77. In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
78. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : When the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC On the initiative of the aircraft commander At the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions As instructed by an air traffic control unit.
79. Aircraft in which wake turbulence category shall include their category immediately after the call sign in the initial radiotelephony contact with the aerodrome control tower or the approach control office prior to departure or arrival?: Medium aircraft. Heavy aircraft. Medium and heavy aircraft. Medium, heavy and light aircraft.
80. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with all engines operating. Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed all engines operating.
81. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
82. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board. All the flight crew be on board. The aircraft's stairs be completely extended. Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
83. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : The manufacturer The aircraft manufacturer's list The operator The aircraft state of registry.
84. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : The operator. The aircraft manufacturer's list. The manufacturer. The aircraft state of registry.
85. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : 550 m 800 m 350 m 500 m.
86. The term decision height (DH) is used for : A conventional approach. An indirect approach. A precision approach. A conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
87. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than : 50 NM 100 NM 200 NM 400 NM.
88. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account: 1. Equipment available for navigation 2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. Composition of the flight crew 4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions: 1,2,4,5 2,4,5 1,2,3,4,5 2,3,5.
89. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of: 0.6 0.5 0.7 0.8.
90. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : 50 m 200 m 100 m 250 m.
91. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?: 3° 3.3 % 2.5 % 2.5°.
92. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?: Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. Follow the radio communication failure procedure. A non-standard holding pattern is permitted. It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion.
93. In a holding pattern, all turns are to be made at a : Rate of 3°per second. Maximum bank angle of 25°. Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank. Rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
94. Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?: 230 kt IAS. 230 kt TAS. 240 kt IAS. 240 kt TAS.
95. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?: To the right. Teardrop to the left and then to the right. To the left. First right and then to the left.
96. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?: 1 minute 30 seconds 2 minutes 1,5 minutes.
97. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?: 2 minutes 30 seconds 1 minute 30 seconds 1 minute 2 minutes.
98. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: Bearing Course Track Heading.
99. In a standard holding pattern, turns are made: In a direction depending on the entry. To the right. To the left. In a direction depending on the wind direction.
100. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft: Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
101. (IR) The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to: Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors. Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors. True heading in relation to the three entry sectors. True track in relation to the three entry sectors.
102. (IR) Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?: Yes. Yes even where DME is used, the maximum length is always in time. No, where DME is used, it may be specified in terms of distance. No, where g/s is less than 65 kt, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long. .
103. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: 1,500 ft. 2,500 ft. 1,000 f. 3,000 ft.
104. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude Flight level on or below the transition level Flight level on or below the transition altitude.
105. During flight through the transition layer, the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as: Altitude above mean sea level during descent Flight level during descent Altitude above mean sea level during climb Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb .
106. The transition level: Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established For the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established Is calculated and decided by the commander.
107. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent. At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. Only at transition altitude. Only at transition level.
108. What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?: Mode A code 7600. Mode B code 7600. Mode A code 7500. Mode A code 7700.
109. When the aircraft carries serviceable mode C equipment, the pilot: Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC. Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions. Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC. Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
110. (IR) Where does the missed approach procedure start?: At the missed approach point. At DH/MDH. At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost. Over the threshold of the instrument runway.
111. To cross lighted stop bars on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome, the following applies: Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorization of the aerodrome control tower. An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower. An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control tower. An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off.
112. When has a flight plan to be filed at the latest?: 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route. 60 minutes before the flight plan becomes active. 10 minutes before departure into an advisory area. 60 minutes before departure or, if filed in flight, 30 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.
113. If the time estimated for the next reporting point differs from that notified to ATS, a revised estimate shall be notified to ATS if the time difference is: Three minutes or more. Plus or minus two minutes or more. In excess of three minutes. None of the above is correct.
114. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?: A parachute flare showing a red light. In radiotelephony the spoken words pan, pan. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights.
115. A horizontal white dumb-bell when displayed on a signal area of an aerodrome means: Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other maneuvers need not be confined to runways and taxiways. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only. Aircraft are not required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways.
116. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall set its transponder to: Mode A, code 2000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. Mode A, code 7000 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. Mode A, code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit. Mode A, code 7600 unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
117. "Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist". This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means: Start engines. Chocks removed. Engage brakes. Release brakes.
118. (IR) An ETA for an IFR flight refers to the following: FAF/FAP. IAF. Touch down. None of the above.
119. Aircraft on the maneuvering area have to give way to: Aircraft landing. Aircraft taking off. Aircraft landing and taking off. Follow-me vehicles (and pedestrians).
120. What defines a danger area?: A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded. Airspace of defined dimension where activities dangerous to flight may exist.
122. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that airplane has a climb gradient of: 3.3% with all engines operating. 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines. 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative. 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative.
123. If in an instrument departure procedure, the track to be followed by the airplane is published, the pilot is expected: To request from ATC different heading for wind correction. To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track. To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
124. In an instrument departure procedure, the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: 0 ft. 35 ft. 3.3 % gradient. 0.8 % gradient.
125. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway center line within: 45° 30° 12.5° 15°.
126. Turning departures provide track guidance within: 20 km 10 km 5 km 15 km.
127. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks). 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for
missed approach procedures. 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures. The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to airplane categories.
128. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA?: When the aircraft has the control tower in sight. When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet. When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight. When it seems possible to land.
129. If a step down fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to : Pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. Follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. Leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT. Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
130. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: Prescribed by the aircraft operations. Decided on pilot's discretion. The weather permits. Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
121. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of : 25 nm 30 nm 10 nm 15 nm.
131. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track"way-point. This minimum is: 80 nm. 50 nm. 60 nm. 20 nm.
132. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: 45° immediately after take-off. 15° immediately after take-off. 30° immediately after take-off. 25° immediately after take-off.
133. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or faster than the following aircraft.
134. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?: 500 feet 1,500 feet 1,000 feet 2,000 feet.
135. During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling, the pilot should contact departure control: Before penetrating the clouds. When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. When advised by tower. After take-off.
136. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
137. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than : 25 degrees 20 degrees 30 degrees 15 degrees.
138. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?: If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach. If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure. Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure. None of the above is correct.
139. Which wake turbulence radar separation minima shall be applied between a heavy aircraft and a succeeding medium aircraft during the approach and departure phases of a flight? 5 nm. 2.5 nm. 4 nm. 6 nm.
140. What is meant when a departure controller instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?: Radar service is terminated. Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC. You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
141. The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?: The radar identity of the aircraft has been established Position reports may be omitted The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft The aircraft is subject to positive control.
142. When a radar operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track) 030° true 030° magnetic 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track).
143. "A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for: Stopway. Runway strip. Runway end safety area. Clearway.
144. "An area symmetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an airplane undershooting or overrunning the runway" is the definition for: Clearway Stopway Runway end safety area None of the above.
145. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
146. "ASDA" (acceleration stop distance available) is: The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
147. "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures: Precision approach runways in general. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. Precision approach runways category I, II and III. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
148. "TODA" take-off distance available is: The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
149. In the "PAPI" system, the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: Above the approach slope. Below the approach slope. Only on the approach slope. On or close to the approach slope.
150. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: Mean sea level. Aerodrome elevation. Aerodrome reference point. Relevant runway threshold.
151. Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1. remain on the runway, 2. clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3. keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4. turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,4. 2,3. 1,3. 2,4.
152. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is: An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board A landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants.
153. If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so: Under flight level 50 (FL50). In a holding stack, after control clearance. In a straight line and at a relatively high flight level. During final phase of approach.
154. The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by : The operator. The captain. The shipper. The handling agent.
155. In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods : English English, French or Spanish French Spanish.
156. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the : Aircraft's weight. Strength of the headwind. Depth of the standing water on the runway. Amount of the lift off speed.
157. In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain : 1. You increase your approach speed, 2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear, 3. You decrease your approach speed, 4. You use systematically
all the lift dumper devices, 5. You land as smoothly as possible, 6. You brake energetically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 5 1, 2, 4 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5, 6.
158. A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: Contaminated Flooded Wet Damp.
159. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : 12 hours 24 hours 6 hours 3 hours.
160. Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by: 15 % 20 % 18 % 17,6 %.
161. The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS Airspace is: 30 NM. 60 NM. 90 NM. 120 NM.
162. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock- on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly : About the optimum altitude Between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude About the lock-on altitude Just below the optimum altitude.
163. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts: At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage). At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage). At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage). At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
164. When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1. an increase in the take-off distance 2. a diminution of the take-off run 3. an increase in the stalling speed 4. a diminution of the stalling speed 5. a diminution of the climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5.
165. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. The type and intensity of the showers 2. The ambient temperature 3. The relative humidity 4. The direction and speed of the wind 5. The temperature of the airplane skin 6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 3, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 4, 6.
166. The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of: Freezing fog Rain on a cold soaked wing Frost Steady snow.
167. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ? Freezing rain Frost Steady snow Freezing fog.
168. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear? Pitch angle. Vertical speed. Indicated airspeed. Groundspeed.
169. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. Set the maximum take-off thrust 2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. Pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps) 4. Keep the airplane's current configuration 5. Try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 4 3, 5 1, 3, 5 2, 3.
170. Windshear is: A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction variation over a short distance A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance.
171. To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should maneuver : Below and downwind from the larger aircraft Above and upwind from the larger aircraft Above and downwind from the larger aircraft Below and upwind from the larger aircraft.
172. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a : High weight and high speed Low weight and low speed High weight and low speed Low weight and high speed.
173. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy airplane is following directly behind another heavy airplane on the approach to the same runway?: 9.3 km (5 NM) 11.1 km (6 NM) 3.7 km (2 NM) 7.4 km (4 NM).
174. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to : MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
175. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to : LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
176. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category includes all aircraft types of : 136,000 Kg or more 146,000 Kg or more 135,000 Kg or more Less than 136,000 Kg but more than 126,000 Kg.
177. In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations: You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration. You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach. You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude. You climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization. .
178. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an airplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act?: The Authority of the State of the operator only The local authority only Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator The Authority of the State within which the airplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference.
179. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference : Code 7700 Code 7500 Code 7600 Code 2000.
180. An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to : Increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer Carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain Reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing Maintain the normal approach speed up to landing.
181. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : 75 m 250 m 150 m 200 m.
182. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with : A decision height of at least 200 ft A decision height of at least 50 ft A decision height of at least 100 ft No decision height.
183. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is: The outer marker (OM). The start final descent point (glide slope intersection). The FAF. The middle marker.
184. In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the: Mach number. Indicated airspeed. Ground speed. True airspeed.
185. For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least: One Inertial Navigation System (INS). Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS). One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS). Two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
186. In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is: 118.800 MHz 121.800 MHz 131.800 MHz 128.800 MHz.
187. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from : 30° North to 90° North. 27° North to 70° North. 27° North to 90° North. 30° North to 70° North.
188. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels: 275 and 400. 280 and 400. 280 and 390. 285 and 420.
189. The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is : 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 20 minutes. 10 minutes.
190. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request. He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance. The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
191. Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing green. Fixed showing yellow. Flashing showing blue. Fixed showing blue.
192. Runway end lights shall be: Fixed lights showing variable white. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. Fixed lights showing variable red. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
193. Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed lights green colors. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed lights showing green or white colors.
194. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: Fixed lights, white or yellow color. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. Fixed lights showing variable white. Flashing white.
195. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Fixed green. Flashing white. Flashing green. Fixed white.
196. The light shown by an "aerodrome identification beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: Green color identification given by Morse code. White and green color identification given by Morse code. Blue color identification given by Morse code. White color identification given by Morse code.
197. In the "VASIS", how many light units are in each wing bar? 3 4 2 5.
198. What color is taxiway edge lighting?: Blue White Green Yellow.
199. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?: The threshold. The beginning of the touch down zone. A displaced threshold. 1,000 ft from the end zone.
200. What color are runway edge lights?: White Blue Yellow Red.
201. Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what color are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing in the direction of the approach? Red Blue White Green.
202. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?: Centerline lighting. Edge lighting. Edge lighting and centerline lighting. Either edge lighting or centerline lighting.
203. High intensity obstacle lights should be: Fixed orange. Flashing white. Flashing red. Fixed red.
204. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Fixed red. Flashing yellow. Flashing red. Fixed orange.
205. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code: Blue for blankets and protective clothing. Black for food and water. Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment. Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
206. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code: Red for food and water. Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment. Yellow for blankets and protective clothing. Black for food and water.
207. The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of colored streamers according to the following code: Blue for food and water. Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. Black for food and water. Red for miscellaneous equipment.
208. The ground - air visual code illustrated means: Require assistance Proceeding in the direction shown Please indicate direction Require medical assistance.
209. Which of the following is not an international distress frequency?: 2430 kHz 2.182 kHz 121.5 MHz 243.0 MHz.
210. Selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within: 80% of the landing distance available. 70% of the landing distance available. 50% of the landing distance available. 60% of the landing distance available.
211. Last minute change means any change concerning passengers, crew or cargo occurring after the using of the load sheet. This LMC must immediately be communicated as soon as noticed by traffic agent if take-off weight variation exceeds the following values per aircraft type: B787-9: 1850kgs; A350-9: 1750kgs B787-9: 2000kgs; A350-9: 1500kgs B787-9: 1500kgs; A350-9: 1500kgs.
212. A pilot ------accept a clearance with which he cannot safely comply or which exceeds the capabilities of the aircraft. The commander is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft: Must. May co-operate and. Must not.
213. If a flight is cleared to hold, ATC holding instructions must be complied with. … These instructions may be issued by the controller or they may be required on the charts. These instructions may be issued by the controller only. These instructions may be required on the charts only.
214. Airport Rescue and Fire-fighting category for B787-9/A350-900 is: 10 9 8.
215. For ETOPS flights above 120 minutes, take-off alternate distance for B787-9/ A350-900 is: 830 NM. 840 NM. 850 NM.
216. Airport categories B and C are considered special airports and: Special flight crew qualifications are required. Special flight crew qualifications are required for airport category C only. None of them requires special flight crew qualifications.
217. Company aircraft are categorized as follows: a. B787-9 is category D, A350-900 is category C Both are category D. Both are category C.
218. Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists the pilot in command shall make the decision to continue or stop the approach before descending below --------------- on the final approach segment: 1,500 AGL MDA. 1,000 feet above the airport.
219. All flight crew members when on duty MUST bring: Their licenses and medical certificates. Their licenses only. Their licenses, medical certificates and logbooks.
220. A pilot shall not be assigned to operate an airplane as part of the minimum certified crew, either as pilot flying or pilot non-flying: Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 120 days as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 90 days as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator. Unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings in the previous 06 calendar months as pilot flying in an aircraft or an approved flight simulator.
221. As a relief pilot, a first officer can operate on the left hand seat as PNF/PM only: At take-off and landing. From 20,000 feet and above. At any time during the flight.
222. An augmented flight crew is scheduled to carry out no more than: 02 landings within a flight duty period. 03 landings provided that the block time for one sector ≤ 03 hours and the rest period immediately following this flight duty period is increased by 06 hours. Both a and b are correct.
223. Block time calculation method for each duty augmented flight crew member: Block time for each flight crew member = (Block time of a sector of flight x 2) / Number of duty flight crew member. Block time is the period of time from “wheel chocks away” to “wheel chocks on”. None is correct.
224. If the time difference (TD) between the countries of origin and destination is 04 hours or more: 04 hours ≤ TD ≤ 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty period or 14 hours, whichever is greater. TD > 06 hours: the subsequent rest period is at least as long as the preceding flight duty period or 16 hours, whichever is greater. Both a and b are correct.
225. A clearance must be read back to ATC and for a confirmation between both pilot crew members in the case of clearances received: In areas of high terrain. That include heading, flight level, frequency, route/waypoint changes. That include instructions for holding short of a runway. All of the above are correct.
226. Which statement is correct?: When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to the full wingspan but not less than 35 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than 25°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled. When showing compliance with the take-off obstacle clearance: Track changes shall not be allowed up to the point at which the net take-off flight path has achieved a height equal to one half the wingspan but not less than 50 ft above the elevation of the end of the take-off run available. Thereafter, up to a height of 400 ft it is assumed that the aircraft is banked by no more than 15°. Above 400 ft height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25° may be scheduled. Both a and b are incorrect.
227. For depressurization, it may be necessary to descend below the en-route minimum altitude determined for normal operation in order to cope with passenger oxygen requirements. At any time, the aircraft gross (actual) flight path must clear vertically all obstacles by: 2,000 ft. 1,500 ft. 1,000 ft.
228. Temperature correction: The calculated minimum safe altitudes/heights must be corrected when the OAT is much ----- than that predicted by the standard atmosphere. Higher More Lower.
229. Pressure correction: When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013hPa, theminimum safe altitude must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is -----------than the standard atmosphere (1013hPa). Higher More Lower.
230. Final Reserve Fuel is the amount of fuel to fly: For 30 minutes at holding speed at FL150 at last holding pattern of airport’s STAR in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport. For 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 FT above airport elevation in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport. For 30 minutes at holding speed at go-around altitude at the holding pattern of the approach in standard conditions, calculated at the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate airport.
231. For IFR planning purposes, a destination alternate is not required if the airport isisolated and no suitable alternate is available, but a -----------will be calculated andincluded in the flight plan remarks: ETP CP Point-of-no-return.
232. ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet must show name and staff ID number of the person preparing the sheet. The Commander acknowledges his receipt of ACARS computerized Load and trim sheet via ACARS data link network, giving his …. Full name. ID number. Name and his position.
233. Which statement is correct?: A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be recorded on any paper adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was issued. A pilot should make a visible record of each ATC clearance, and all route changes should be recorded on the flight plan log adjacent to the waypoint where the clearance for route change was issued.
234. The objective of CRM is to enhance: The communication skills of the flight crew. The management skills of the flight crew. Both a and b are correct.
235. Crew members should keep walking in line (single or double) when walking in the terminal or public areas in the following orders: Double line: Captain - First officer, female cabin crew, male cabin crew. Single line: Captain, First officer, female Purser, female cabin crew and male cabin crew. Single line: Female crew followed by male crew.
236. Crew members shall, on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, yield to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or psychoactive substances in the blood at any time: Up to 8 hours before acting as a crew member. Immediately after attempting to act as a crew member. Immediately after acting as a crew member. All of the above are correct.
237. Crew members must not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of: 0.05 grams per litre. 0.15 grams per litre. 0.2 grams per litre.
238. A crew member should not donate blood within: 48 hours before a flight assignment. 36 hours before a flight assignment. 24 hours before a flight assignment.
239. The standard weight of crew, passengers and cargo for normal flights is as follows: Flight crew: 75kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 90kgs; Children: 37kgs Flight crew: 80kgs, Cabin crew: 70kgs; Passengers: 70kgs; Children: 30kgs Flight crew: 90kgs, Cabin crew: 75kgs; Passengers: 75kgs; Children: 35kgs.
240. When the passenger checked baggage (loaded in the cargo compartment) is not weighed, the following standard weight per piece of checked baggage is used: Domestic flights: 11kgs; International flights: 15kgs Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 25kgs Domestic flights: 15kgs; International flights: 15kgs.
241. Oxygen masks automatically drop prior to cabin altitude reaching the greater of: Origin or destination altitude + 2,000ft or 15,000ft. Origin or destination altitude + 1,000ft or 10,000ft. Origin or destination altitude + 1,000ft or 15,000ft. Origin or destination altitude + 1,000ft or 14,000ft.
242. Do not operate the entry and cargo doors with winds in excess of: 40 knots 50 knots 60 knots 65 knots.
243. How long is passenger oxygen available for after activation?: 14 minutes. 22 minutes. 30 minutes. 60 minutes.
244. When using flight crew oxygen, how is the mask microphone activate?: By moving the MASK/BOOM switch to MASK. Automatically when cabin different altitude greater than 9.1 psi. Automatically when the left-hand door of the oxygen stowage is opened. Automatically when the right- hand door of the oxygen stowage is opened. .
245. The emergency lighting system is powered by: The main battery. The standby battery. The APU battery. The remote batteries.
246. How many passenger doors are there?: 8 - 4 each side of fuselage. There are no other passenger cabin exits. 6 - 3 each side of fuselage plus 2 over-wing emergency exits. 4 - 2 each side of fuselage plus 4 over-wing emergency exits. 10 - 4 each side of fuselage plus 2 over-wing emergency exits.
247. The flight deck overhead door can be opened: In-flight or on the ground and opens inwards. On the ground only and opens inwards. On the ground only and opened outwards. In-flight or on ground and opened outwards.
248. The fasten seatbelt signs automatically illuminate when: Passenger oxygen is ON and cabin altitude is above 10,000ft. Passenger oxygen is ON irrespective of SEAT BELT SIGNS switch position. Passenger oxygen is ON and SEAT BELT SIGNS switch positioned to AUTO. Flight crew must be set the seat belt sign to ON manually.
249. The keypad for the Flight Deck Access System contains a light that illuminates RED when: The system has failed or is switched off. The door is commanded locked. That is a normal indication when a request entering the cockpit was sent. The door is commanded unlocked.
250. If a door is opened from the outside: The slide/raft is automatically disarmed. The mode select lever automatically moves to manual mode and the door opened quickly with the slide/raft deployment. The slide/raft will deploy if the mode select lever is in automatic mode. The door must be disarmed to prevent slide/raft deployment. .
251. If the EVA COMMAND switch is in the OFF position: All emergency evacuation panel switches in the cabin are disabled. The emergency evacuation switch on the master attendant panel is enabled, all others are disabled. All emergency evacuation panel switches can override the EVAC COMMAND switch position.
252. The two taxi lights on the nose strut illuminate: When taxi lights are selected ON only. During ground roll when nose gear landing lights are selected ON irrespective of the taxi light switch position. When taxi lights are selected ON irrespective of nose gear position. On ground or in the air whenever the nose gear landing lights are selected ON irrespective of the taxi light switch position.
253. Which of following is true regarding flashlights?: They can be controlled via an ON/OFF switch on the casing. They illuminate automatically and operate in an emergency only, once activation they could not be switched OFF until they are out of energy. They illuminate automatically and can be switched off via an ON/OFF switch on the casing. They illuminate automatically and can only be extinguished by placing it back into the stowage.
254. A fully charged battery provides at least … minutes of emergency lighting: 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 20 minutes. 30 minutes.
255. The Flight Lock system automatically locks the doors when: TOGA is pressed for takeoff. Groundspeed is greater than 60knots. Groundspeed is greater than 70knots. Groundspeed is greater than 80knots.
256. Wing anti-ice system is powered: Pneumatically by bleed air from each respective engine. Electrically by 3 separate mats on 4 mid-wing leading edge slats on each wing. Electrically by 4 separate mats on 4 mid-wing leading edge slats on each wing. Electrically by 4 separate mats on 3 mid-wing leading edge slats on each wing.
257. Stick shaker logic is modified with flaps out of up position and engine or wing anti-ice use. Stick shaker logic returns to normal when: No icing conditions have been detected for a certain time and TAT > 10º C. No icing conditions have been detected for a certain time. TAT > 10º C. No icing conditions have been detected for a certain time or TAT > 10º C.
258. Which flight deck windows have interior surface anti fogging protection?: Forward windows only. Side window only. Both forward and side windows. Either forward or side windows - they are controlled via anti fogging selector on overhead panel.
259. Automatic ice detection is inhibited on the ground below: 60 knots 75 knots 80 knots 85 knots.
260. When a bleed air leak is detected: The respective engine anti-ice valves close automatically. The engine anti-ice valves must be manually closed by selecting OFF on the ENGIN ANTI-ICE selectors. Both engine anti-ice valves closed.
261. Automatic wing anti-ice operation: Is available in flight only. Is available in flight or on the ground. Is available in flight or on the ground above 75 knots. Is available in flight or on the ground at or above 80 knots.
262. Pack inlet anti-ice system is inhibited when: On the ground. In-flight. On the ground or in flight when TAT is above 10ºC. On the ground when TAT is above 10º C.
263. How many pitot and angle of attack probes are there?: 2 pitot probes and 2 angle of attack probes. 3 pitot probes and 2 angle of attack probes. 2 pitot probes and 3 angle of attack probes. 3 pitot probes and 3 angle of attack probes.
264. During an automatic go-around, the auto-throttle establishes a minimum climb rate of: 1,200 FPM. 1,500 FPM. 2,000 FPM. 2,500 FPM.
265. When can the auto-throttle support stall protection?: Below 400ft after takeoff. When the auto-throttle is not armed and connected. When the auto-throttle is armed and disconnected. When the auto-throttle is not armed and disconnected.
266. Auto-throttle mode THR indicates which of following?: Thrust set to the reference thrust limit displayed on EICAS. Thrust set to IDLE, the rate of descent is controlled by the pitch. Thrust lever servos are inhibited and the pilot can set thrust levers manually. Auto-throttle applies thrust to maintain the climb/descent rate required.
267. On the ground, activation of TO/GA roll and pitch modes occurs when: TO/GA switch is pressed. One or both flight directors are switched to ON and TO/GA switch is pressed. The first flight director switch is positioned ON. When both flight directors switches are positioned ON.
268. With LOC armed, the AFDS will capture the localizer when: Within range. Within range and within 90 degrees of localizer course. Within range and within 110 degrees of localizer course. Within range and within 120 degrees of localizer course.
269. When a go-around is initiated, what is the commanded speed?: Current airspeed. MCP IAS/MACH window speed. MCP IAS/MACH window speed or current airspeed, whichever is higher. Vref+80 knots.
270. If an engine failure occurs after lift-off, pitch command target speed is: V2 to V2+15 knots. V2 speed. V2 to V2+20 knots. V2 to V2+25 knots.
271. Ground Deviation on HUD takeoff guidance: Requires the ILS to be auto tuned. Becomes active when airplane approaches RWY center line and within 45 degrees of RWY heading. Requires a manual set ILS frequency on the FMC. Requires the GLS to be auto tuned.
272. What kind of approaches can be flown using Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN)?: Non-ILS approaches only. RNAV approaches only. Visual approach only. Any approaches that has a glide path angle published in the navigation database. .
273. The AFDS consists of: 1 auto-flight computing systems and the MCP. 2 auto-flight computing systems and the MCP. 3 auto-flight computing systems and the MCP. 4 auto-flight computing systems and the MCP.
274. The IAN glide-path is: A variable angle that clears all altitude constraints prior to the MAP. A constant angle that joins the FAF with the MAP regardless of altitude constraints in between. The steeper of the published angle or the constants angle that clear the altitude constraint prior to the MAP.
275. A light on an MCP switch indicates: The mode is armed or active. The mode is active but not armed. The mode is active and can be de-selected. The mode is active but cannot be de-selected.
276. When is AUTOPILOT DISC displayed?: When the autopilot is manually disengaged. When the autopilot is automatically disengaged. When the autopilot is manually or automatically disengaged. When the autopilot has failed and could not be engaged again.
277. On an approach to auto-land, when is FLARE armed?: When APP is pressed. Below 1,500ft AGL. At 25ft AGL. When LAND3 or LAND2 is annunciated.
278. What is the minimum VNAV activation altitude?: 50ft AGL. 200ft AGL. 400ft AGL. 1,000ft AGL.
279. If a flight director is off and TO/GA is pushed with airspeed > 80knots and flaps are not up: No steering indications display. Steering indications can be displayed by turning flight directors ON. Steering indications automatically display. Steering indications are inhibited until airplane reaches 400ft AGL - VNAV become active. .
280. With regard to ROLLOUT mode, which of the following is true?: Rollout mode disconnects at touchdown with weight on the wheels. Rollout guidance continues until the autopilots are disengaged. Rollout mode arms when APP switch on MCP panel is pressed. Rollout mode become active at 25ft AGL.
281. During auto-land, FLARE mode activates: At 27ft RA. At 50ft RA. Between 60ft to 40ft RA. At 75ft RA.
282. AFDS flight mode annunciations are indicated above the PFD and HUD AFDS status annunciations from left to right in which order?: Autothrottle | roll | pitch Autothrottle | pitch | roll Roll | autothrottle | pitch Pitch | autothrottle | roll.
283. Overspeed protection is available with flaps up in: All flight modes except G/S. All flight modes except G/S and G/P. All flight modes except G/P. All flight modes.
284. When does the EICAS message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC display?: When the auto-throttle is disconnected because of reverse thrust. When the auto-throttle is automatically disconnected. When the auto-throttle is failed of operation and could be engaged again on ground only. When the auto-throttle is manually or automatically disconnected.
285. When does LNAV activate?: After takeoff, when the autopilot is engaged. When above 50ft and in position to turn onto the active route leg. When above 200ft and in position to turn onto the active route leg. When above 400ft and in position to turn onto the active route leg.
286. If an engine failure occurs on the ground, the pitch command target speed at lift-off is: V2 + 15 knots. Air speed at liftoff. V2 or airspeed at liftoff, whichever is greater. V2 + 15 or airspeed at liftoff, whichever is greater.
287. In flight, when is TO/GA armed?: When flaps are out of up position and glideslope captured. When flaps are out of up position. When flaps are out of up position or glideslope captured. When glideslope captured.
288. If armed for takeoff, when does LNAV activate?: 50ft AGL. 200ft AGL. 400ft AGL. 1,000ft AGL.
289. When is ROLLOUT armed mode displayed?: Below 2,500ft AGL. Below 1,500ft AGL. Below 1,000ft AGL. Below 500ft AGL.
290. The following PITCH and ROLL modes are displayed during an IAN localizer only approach: LOC | G/S. LOC | G/P. FAC | G/S. FAC | G/P.
291. Autopilot rudder commands are: Available through the entire flight envelope. Available only during an autopilot approach and landing. Not available. After automatic landing right away the pilot flying must disconnect the autopilot and apply manually ruder to keep the aircraft maintain on center line.
292. IAN approach are armed using: The LNAV and VNAV switches. The APP switch. The FMC selection. HDG select and FPA switch.
293. Which MCP modes can be deselected by selecting another mode?: G/S. G/P. LOC. Both G/S and G/P.
294. After liftoff, the AFDS commands a pitch attitude to maintain: A target speed of V2 plus 25 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 15knots, whichever is greater. A target speed of V2 plus 15 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 15knots, whichever is greater. A target speed of V2 plus 25 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 25knots, whichever is greater. A target speed of V2 plus 15 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 25knots, whichever is greater.
295. During an approach to auto-land, with a crosswind requiring a drift angle of less than 5 degrees: No runway alignment occurs until 200ft AGL. An initial alignment begins at 500ft AGL followed by a second alignment at 200ft AGL. Runway alignment occurs at 500ft AGL. Runway alignment occurs at 250ft RA.
296. During the flare when does the auto-throttle begin retarding thrust lever to IDLE?: Between 25ft and 50ft. Between 40ft and 60ft. At 50ft. At 60ft.
297. LAND2 displayed above the PFD and HUD attitude display indicates: A single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing. A single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path. The aircraft only capable of making a CAT II approach and landing. LAND2 indicates that the aircraft is fail operational, the pilot flying must complete the landing manually.
298. Using the MFD, which menu can be selected to obtain an oceanic clearance?: ATC. FLIGHT INFORMATION. COMPANY. MASTER.
299. Which radios can be used for data communication?: VHF L, C, R. VHF L, C. VHF C, R. VHF L, R.
300. Call queue priority as follows: PILOT ALERT, cabin calls, conference calls, other calls. PILOT ALERT, cabin calls, other calls, conference calls. PILOT ALERT, conference calls, cabin calls, other calls. PILOT ALERT, conference calls, other calls, cabin calls.
301. How many frequencies can be stored on VHF pages 2, 3 and 4?: 4 each, 12 total. 6 each, 18 total. 8 each, 24 total. 10 each, 40 total.
302. When tuning a frequency with an HF radio, no tone is heard. What does this indicate?: The HF radio has failed to tune the frequency. That indication is normal while tuning the HF frequency. The HF radio antenna has disconnected. The frequency was previously stored in memory.
303. When dashes are displayed in a text entry field on the MFD, this indicates: Normal indication, no crew action required. Text entry is optional. Text entry is required. Text entry is inhibited.
304. When tuning an HF radio, a tone that lasts longer than 7 seconds indicates: The HF radio is tuning normally. The HF radio has failed to tune the frequency. The HF frequency is being used. SELCAL is inoperative.
305. Cabin PC announcement priorities are: Priority (all area) announcement, flight deck ACP, flight attendant handset. Priority (all area) announcement, flight attendant handset, flight deck ACP. Flight deck ACP, priority (all area) announcements, flight attendant handset. Flight deck handsets, priority (all area) announcement, flight attendant handset. .
306. A communication Crew Alert categorized as “Low” is indicated by: A high-low chime. A high-low chime and a status message alert. A high-low chime and a communication EICAS alert. A communication EICAS alert.
307. Priority calls placed from the cabin while another priority call is in progress will: Disconnect all other cabin interphone calls. Automatically connect as a conference call. Be displayed in the call queue, and the CABIN CALL memo message will display on EICAS. Automatically connect the lower priority cabin interphone calls.
308. In the event of electrical power loss: The left VHF radio and left TCP continue to operate on standby power. The center VHF radio and center TCP continue to operate on standby power. The right VHF radio and right TCP continue to operate on standby power.
309. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR): Records continuously. Starts recording after the last cabin door closes and ends after the first door opens. Starts recording after an oil pressure switch closes after first engine starts. Starts recording after the parking brake releases.
310. If the EICAS message RADIO TRANSMIT CAPT is displayed what does this mean?: The captain is transmitting on VHF L. The captain transmitter is failed. VHF L has failed. Captain’s MIC-PTT switch is keyed for more than 30 seconds.
311. When is oxygen mask microphone enable?: When the oxygen mask is donned. When the oxygen mask door is closed and the RESET/TEST lever is pushed. When the RESET/TEST lever is pushed. When the left oxygen mask door is opened.
312. On the ground, with only forward external power selected ON: The 115Vac system is energized directly. The 235Vac bus system powers the 115Vac system though power conversion devices. The 25Vdc system is energized directly. The large motor system is energized directly.
313. Electrical power for APU start can be provided by: Forward external power, aircraft main battery or engine generated power. Aft external power, aircraft main battery or engine generated power. Aft external power, aircraft APU battery or engine generated power. Forward external power, APU main battery or engine generated power.
314. How many main 235Vac busses are there?: 2 3 4 Multiple.
315. Which system provides power for the electrical brake power supply units?: 115Vac primary, 28Vdc backup. 28Vdc primary, main battery backup. 235Vac primary, 115Vac backup. 235Vac primary, 28Vdc backup.
316. Which of following are not energized in the towing power mode?: Radio communication systems. Captain’s flight interphone. Aisle stand flood lights. Brakes.
317. The ground service mode is activated: Automatically when ground handling mode is active. Manually when the switch on the master attendant switch panel is selected ON. Automatically when the on-ground battery only mode is active. Manually when the switch on the master attendant switch panel is selected ON while in the on-ground mode only mode.
318. In-Air Battery Only mode energizes the same equipment as the In-Air RAT only mode with the exception of: Center pitot heat. Miscellaneous lighting. ISFD. Captain’s/first officer’s flight interphone. .
319. Flight control power is provided by: The airplane’s 28Vdc bus, main battery and a dedicated battery backup system. 3 independent PMGs, the airplane’s 28Vdc bus, main battery and a dedicated battery backup system. 3 independent PMGs, the airplane’s 28Vdc bus, main battery. 3 independent PMGs, the airplane’s 28Vdc bus, APU battery and a dedicated battery backup system.
320. Circuit breakers: Can be opened or closed using CBIC on the ground only. Can be opened or closed using CBIC in-flight only. Are controlled automatically and cannot be opened or closed by flight crew. Can be opened or closed using CBIC on the ground or in-flight.
321. The engine starters/generators are: Variable frequency, 115Vac. Variable frequency, 235Vac. Constant frequency, 115Vac. Constant frequency, 235Vac.
322. What is the primary power source for the EECs?: Two engine driven PMAs. The airplane’s 115Vac bus. The aircraft main battery. The airplane’s 28Vdc bus.
323. How many 115Vac busses are there?: 2 3 4 Multiple.
324. The forward electrical system has: 3 power receptacles: 2 on the left forward fuselage, 1 on the right forward fuselage. 2 power receptacles: 1 on the left forward fuselage, 1 on the right forward fuselage. 2 power receptacles: 2 on the left forward fuselage. 3 power receptacles: 1 on the left forward fuselage, 2 on the right forward fuselage.
325. How is power supplied to the 28Vdc distribution system?: Directly from the aircraft main battery. Directly from the aircraft APU battery. The 115Vac system provides power through power conversion devices. The 235Vac system provides power through power conversion devices.
326. On the ground, which of following does the APU battery provide power for?: Airplane power up. Captain’s flight instruments. Navigation lights. Captain’s flight interphone.
327. Once disconnected, the engine generator drive: Can be reconnected by flight crew - associated with a checklist. Cannot be reconnected by flight crew. Can be reconnected by flight crew in the case of an automatic disconnect. Can be reconnected by flight crew in the case of a manually disconnect.
328. If the APU is not available, optimal start performance is achieved by: Connecting the two forward and one aft external power receptacle. Connecting any single external power receptacle. Connecting the two forward external power receptacles. Connecting one forward external power and one aft external power receptacle.
329. The large motor power system is powered by: 28Vdc bus distribution system. Main battery power system. 115Vac bus distribution system. 235Vac bus distribution system.
330. Which of following is true?: The on-ground battery only mode has priority over the ground handling mode. The ground handling mode is active when the first forward external power receptacle is selected ON. The ground handling mode initializes regardless of BATTERY switch position.
331. If the APU is started with the APU battery as the power source, which starter generator is used?: Left. Right. Both left and right. Left or right alternately.
332. When External Power On mode is active with one forward external power source connected, which of following loads are energized?: Packs and cargo heat. Hydraulics. PECS (single loop only).
333. The electrical system contains: 4 engine starters/generators, 2 APU starters/generators. 4 engine starters/generators, 1 APU starter/generator. 2 engine starters/generators, 2 APU starters/generators. 2 engine starters/generators, 1 APU starters/generators.
334. A load inhibit occurs: In order to stay within the capacity of the available power source. Because the affected system is not required. Because of the failure of the 235Vac bus distribution system. Because of the failure of the 115Vac bus distribution system.
335. The APU starters/generators are: Variable frequency, 115Vac. Variable frequency, 235Vac. Constant frequency, 115Vac. Constant frequency, 235Vac.
336. On the ground, with one engine and the APU running: 235Vac busses L1, L2, R1 and R2 are powered by the engine starters/generators. 235Vac busses L1, L2, R1 and R2 are powered by the APU starters/generators. Two related 235Vac busses are powered directly by the engine starters/generators and the
other two busses are powered by the APU starters/generators.
337. What powers the DC pump to supply fuel to the APU when no AC power is available?: Main airplane battery. APU battery. It's own battery. Either the main airplane battery or the APU battery depending on current electrical loads.
338. If secondary engine indications are displayed because a secondary engine parameter is exceeded: The indications can be cleared by pressing the ENG display switch. The indications cannot be cleared until the conditions are no longer present. The indications automatically cleared when the conditions are no longer present. The indication cannot be cleared once displayed.
339. If an N1, N2 or EGT red line is exceeded: The box enclosing the digital readout remains red after returning to normal range. The box enclosing the digital readout changes to white after returning to normal range. The box and the digital readout remain red after returning to normal range. The box and the digital readout change to amber after returning to normal range.
340. In the attended mode, which of the following faults will cause the APU to shut down?: High EGT. Low oil pressure. APU over-speed.
341. Reverse thrust is: Hydraulically actuated. Pneumatically actuated. Electrically actuated. Mechanically actuated.
342. For airspeeds where TAP limits thrust: Climb gradient is higher with TAP limiting thrust. Climb gradient is lower with TAP limiting thrust. Climb gradient remains the same as if TAP did not limit thrust.
343. When does approach idle be selected?: Flaps commanded to 25 or greater and landing gear is selected DOWN. Flaps commanded to 25 or greater or landing gear is selected DOWN. Ground operation and most phases of flight. All phases of flight except on ground.
344. On the ground the auto-start sequence is initiated by: Rotating the START selector to START and moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN. Rotating the START selector to START. Moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN.
345. When an EEC is in Soft Alternate mode: Thrust does not change. Thrust may change to set the commanded N1. The switch position is in ALTN. Thrust protection is still available.
346. When is the fuel spar valve opened?: Engine fire switch IN and the START selector in START or FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN. Engine fire switch PULL and the START selector in START and FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN. Engine fire switch IN and the START selector in START and FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN. START selector in START or FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN irrespective of fire switch position.
347. Thrust control malfunction accommodation will: Provide over-speed protection with the EECs in ALTN. Slowly increase thrust until takeoff thrust is achieved. Shut down the affected engine when required.
348. In EEC alternate mode, which of the following is true?: Maximum rated thrust is available by moving thrust levers to full forward. The alternate mode schedule provides equal or less thrust than normal mode. Thrust protection is not provided. Over-speed protection is not provided.
349. What does the EICAS caution message ENG REV AIR/GRD mean?: The left or right reverse thrust lever is not down in flight. The left or right reverse thrust lever is deployed in the air. There is a reverse system fault, the reverse thrust is not available. The air/ground logic that prevents in-flight thrust reverse deployment has failed.
350. When is thrust ramping active?: On the ground with EEC in normal mode. On the ground or in the air with EEC in normal mode. On the ground with EEC in normal mode or soft alternate mode. In the air with EEC in normal mode.
351. The airborne vibration monitoring system indicates vibration by: Displaying a red line limit. Displaying an amber line limit. Displaying secondary engine parameters and black digits on a white background. Displaying secondary engine parameters and amber digits on a white background.
352. For an engine out condition, Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) will: Reduce thrust when airspeed decreases below V2 on takeoff. Reduce thrust when airspeed decreases below Vref on go-around. Increase thrust when airspeed decreases below Vref on go-around. Increase thrust when airspeed decreases below V2 on takeoff. .
353. When is TAP available?: Flight controls in normal mode, EEC in normal mode. Flight controls in normal mode, EEC in normal mode or soft alternate mode. Flight controls in normal mode, EEC in normal mode or alternate mode. Flight controls in alternate mode, EEC in normal mode.
354. When the APU automatic start condition is valid, the APU can be shut down by following action: Positioning the selector to ON then OFF. Positioning the selector to OFF. Once APU has an automatically start, it could not be shut down by flight crew. Pulling the APU fire switch.
355. During engine start: Load shed occurs only during simultaneous engine start. Load shed occurs only when starting using forward external power source. Load shed occurs only when starting the engines one by one. Load shed always occurs.
356. If a sub-idle is detected, engine auto-relight protection will: Energize both ignitors until the engine again reaches idle. Shut fuel off for 1 second to clear the stall and then reduce the fuel schedule to return the engine to idle. Provide continuous ignition until the engine again reaches idle. Shut fuel off for 1 second to clear the stall and then increase the fuel schedule to return the engine to idle.
357. The EEC alternate mode N1 reference/target values are computed by: EEC. The autothrottle computer. The FMC. The EFB/OPT.
358. Low engine oil quantity is displayed: By an amber line limit. By a red line limit. By automatic display of secondary engine display and display of amber numbers on a grey background. By automatic display of secondary engine display and display of black numbers on a white background.
359. Which of following is true about over-speed protection?: If RPM limiting fails and overspeed persists, the engine will shut down. Overspeed protection is provided on the N1 shaft. Overspeed protection is provided on the N2 shaft primarily and N1 as backup. Overspeed protection is provided on the N2 shaft.
360. What is the maximum number of consecutive start attempts when starting the APU?: 2 3 4 5.
361. If a Transient Bleed System (TBV) valve fails open: An EICAS warning ENG TBV OPEN is displayed. Thrust reverse operation is inhibited. The respective EEC will provide EGT redline protection.
362. During the APU shut down sequence, when does the air inlet door close?: At 15% RPM. After 2 minutes cool down circle. After 5 minutes cool down circle. When the overspeed and fuel shutoff protection test is complete. .
363. When does ice crystal icing mitigation become operative?: Above 28,500ft and terminates when descending below 30,000ft. Above 30,000ft and terminates when descending below 30,000ft. Above 30,000ft and terminates when descending below 20,000ft. Above 30,000ft and terminates when descending below 28,500ft.
364. In the unattended mode, which of the following faults will cause the APU to shut down?: High EGT. High oil temperature. Low oil pressure. All answers above are correct.
365. On the ground, there is a limit of start: 2 start attempts per start sequence. 3 start attempts per start sequence. 4 start attempts per start sequence. There are no limits to the number of start attempts while aircraft is on ground.
366. Which of the following have both digital and vertical indication/moving pointers?: Oil pressure, oil quantity and fuel flow. Vibration, fuel flow and oil quantity. Oil pressure, fuel flow and vibration. Oil pressure, oil temperature and vibration.
367. How many fire bottles does the main wheel well fire protection system have?: 1 2 3 None.
368. Each lavatory have: 1 fire bottle and operation is automatic. 2 fire bottles and operation is automatic with the second bottle discharging 15 minutes after the first. 1 fire bottle and operation is manual. No fire bottle.
369. In flight, cargo compartment fire extinguishing is: Automatic and a fire warning causes immediate discharge of 1 bottle. Automatic and a fire warning causes immediate discharge of 2 bottles. Automatic and a fire warning causes immediate discharge of 3 bottles. Manual and the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch activates the extinguishing system.
370. Which of the following is an indication of a main wheel well overheat?: The fire bell sounds. The master WARNING lights illuminate. The caution beeper sounds. EICAS warning OVERHEAT WHEEL WELL is displayed.
371. How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are there?: 1 - the bottle is automatically discharged after 15 seconds. 1 - the bottle must be manually discharged. 2 - the first bottle is automatically discharged after 15 seconds. 2 - both bottles must be manually discharge.
372. When the EICAS message SMOKE REST UPR DR 4 is displayed, this indicates: Smoke is detected in the crew rest compartment. Smoke is detected at door 4. A smoke detector in the crew rest compartment has failed.
373. If both main engine detector elements on a single assembly are faulted: An engine fire warning occurs. No fire or overheat detection is provided. Only overheat protection is provided. The system automatically reconfigures for single loop operation.
374. How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for cargo compartment fire extinguishing?: 2 4 5 6.
375. The nose wheel well has: Fire and overheat detection. Fire detection only. Overheat detection but no fire extinguishing system. No fire or overheat detection system.
376. The APU has: Dual fire detector loops. A single fire detector loop. Overheat detection.
377. On the ground if the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch is pushed: 1 extinguisher bottle discharge. 2 extinguisher bottles discharge. 3 extinguisher bottles discharge. 4 extinguisher bottles discharge.
378. In order for an engine fire warning to occur: Both elements on each channel must detect a fire condition. Both elements on both channels must detect a fire condition. At least one element on each channel must detect a fire condition. A minimum of one element on a single channel must detect a fire condition. .
379. The bulk cargo compartment is: Included in the FWD cargo fire detection system and has 2 detectors. Included in the FWD cargo fire detection system and has 11 detectors. Included in the AFT cargo fire detection system and has 2 detectors. Included in the AFT cargo fire detection system and has 18 detectors.
380. Slat autogap function is available in: Primary and Secondary modes. Primary mode only. Secondary mode only.
381. The rudder ratio changer: Automatically increases the sideslip command as airspeed increases. Automatically decreases the sideslip command as airspeed decreases. Has no effect on the sideslip command.
382. On the ground above 60 kts, in the event of an engine failure, the flight control system: Maintains a yaw rate near zero and the rudder pedals move. Maintains a yaw rate near zero and the rudder pedals do not move. Maintains a yaw rate of zero and the rudder pedals move. Maintains a yaw rate of zero and the rudder pedals do not move.
383. In normal mode, the stabilizer is directly positioned when operating pith trim: On the ground. In flight. On the ground and in flight.
384. When is the cruise-flaps function available?: Normal mode, above 20,000ft and between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach. Normal mode, above 25,000ft and between 0.74 and 0.87 Mach. Normal mode, above 20,000ft and between 0.74 and 0.87 Mach. Normal mode, above 25,000ft and between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach.
385. Autodrag functions when the thrust levers are in idle and: Flaps 20, 25 or 30 only. Flaps 25 or 30 only. Flaps 30 only. Flaps 20 only.
386. When is the column cutout function available?: In normal and secondary modes in flight and on the ground. In normal mode when in flight. In secondary mode when in flight. In normal and secondary modes in flight. .
387. Secondary control mode: Is manually select. Is automatically selected. Can be either manually or automatically selected. .
388. Slat load relief is available in: Primary mode only. Secondary mode only. Alternate mode only. Primary and secondary modes only.
389. How many sets of spoilers are there?: 7-4 outboard and 3 inboard of the flaperons. 5-3 outboard and 2 inboard of the flaperons. 7-4 outboard and 4 inboard of the flaperons. 7-3 outboard and 2 inboard of the flaperons.
390. Tail strike protection calculates if tail strike is imminent and: Decreases elevator deflection. Feedback is not provided to the control column. Decreases elevator deflection. Feedback is provided to the control column. Decreases elevator deflection. Takeoff performance is degraded in this case. Decreases elevator deflection. Protection is not compatible with autoland system.
391. The EICAS message FLT CONTROL LOCKED is displayed when: Ailerons are locked out during high speed flight. Flaperons are locked out during high speed flight. A flight control surface lock switch is in the LOCK position.
392. Flap operation in secondary mode is limited to: Flaps 15. Flaps 20. Flaps 25. No limit flap operation.
393. Lateral and vertical gust suppression is available in: Normal and secondary modes and controls move. Normal and secondary modes and controls do not move. Normal mode and controls move. Normal mode and controls do not move.
394. Overspeed protection: Inhibits trim in the nose up direction. Inhibits trim in the nose down direction. Inhibits trim.
395. Where are the flaperons located?: Inboard of the inboard flaps on both wings. Inboard of the outboard flaps on both wings. Outboard of the outboard flaps on both wings. Between the inboard and outboard flaps on both wings.
396. Which of the following are normal landing flaps positions?: a. 15, 20, 25 and 30. b. 20, 25 and 30. c.25 and 30. 30 only.
397. When the autopilot is engaged, moving the primary pitch trim switches: Will disconnect the autopilot. Will move the control column. Will have no effect as they are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged. .
398. When is the slat pregap function available?: In the primary and secondary modes when the flap lever is UP and airspeed < 240kts. In the primary and secondary modes when the flap lever is not UP and airspeed < 240kts. In the primary mode when the flap lever is not UP and airspeed < 240kts. In the secondary mode when the flap lever is not UP and airspeed < 240kts. .
399. Automatic speedbrakes are available in: Normal, secondary and direct modes. Normal and secondary modes only. Normal mode only.
400. If the EICAS message STABILIZER CUTOUT is displayed, this means: Uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed and the channel has been automatically shutdown. Uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed and the relevant stabilizer cutout switch must be placed to CUTOUT. Both stabilizer cutout switches have been placed to the CUTOUT position. .
401. Autopilot is available in: Primary, Secondary and Direct control modes. Primary and Secondary control modes only. Primary control mode only.
402. If a flap overspeed exists, load relief prevents flap extension beyond: 1, 5, 15, 17, 18 or 20/25 positions. 5, 15, 17, 18 or 20/25 positions. 15 or 20/25 positions. 20/25 positions.
403. In secondary and direct modes which of the following is not inoperative: Gust suppression. Yaw damping. Asymmetry compensation.
404. Which of the following is true regarding elevator variable feel?: Control column forces increase as airspeed increases. Control column forces remain the same at all airspeeds in the normal flight envelope. Control column forces decrease as airspeed increases.
405. During high speed flight: The flaperons are locked out. The ailerons are locked out. The spoilers are locked out.
406. In secondary mode, flaps and slats are controlled by: Hydraulic motors. Electric motors. Either hydraulic or electric motors.
407. The wheel to rudder cross-tie function is available in the following modes: Normal, secondary and direct. Normal and secondary. Secondary and direct. Normal mode only.
408. Alternate pitch trim directly positions the stabilizer: In normal, secondary and direct modes. In secondary and direct modes. In secondary and direct modes; and in normal mode on the ground. In direct mode only.
409. When is flap and slat asymmetric detection available?: Primary, secondary and alternate modes. Primary and secondary modes. Primary mode only.
410. In the event of loss of all hydraulic power: All pitch and roll control is lost. Only pitch control is available through the use of stabilizer trim. Only roll control is available through the use of control wheel. Pitch and roll control is available through pitch trim and control wheel. .
411. Which of the following are takeoff flap positions?: 1, 5, 10, 15, 17, 18 and 20. 5, 10, 15, 17, 18 and 20. 1, 5, 10, 15 and 20. 1, 5, 10 and 15.
412. Bank angle protection provides roll inputs when bank angle exceeds approximately: 30 degrees and the control wheel force rolls the airplane back within 30 degrees bank. 35 degrees and the control wheel force rolls the airplane back within 30 degrees bank. 35 degrees and the control wheel force rolls the airplane back within 35 degrees bank .
413. Direct control mode: Is manually selected. Is automatically selected. Is either manually or automatically selected.
414. When the speedbrake lever is not in the ARMED position, the spoilers still automatically extend when: Main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in takeoff range. On the ground and both thrust levers are moved to the reverse idle detent. On the ground with groundspeed above 60kts and both thrust levers are moved from takeoff range to idle.
415. The stabilizer is positioned by an ECU that is powered by: L1 and R1 AC buses. L2 and R2 AC buses. 28Vdc bus system.
416. When do flight control self-tests run?: After landing when flaps retracted and Ground speed < 30kts. After landing when speed brakes retracted and Ground speed < 30kts. After landing when speed brakes and flaps are retracted and Ground speed < 30kts. After landing whenever speed brakes and flaps are retracted.
417. Flap load relief is available: At flaps 15 through 30 and LOAD RELIEF displays if flap retraction does not occur. At flaps 15 through 30 and LOAD RELIEF is displayed. At flaps 25 through 30 and LOAD RELIEF is displayed.
418. Which of the following is true regarding manual rudder trim: It is zero during the takeoff roll when ground speed > 30kts. Available throughout all phases of flight. The rudder pedals do not move when manual rudder trim is applied.
419. Stall protection: Inhibits trim in nose up direction. Inhibits trim in nose down direction. Inhibit trims.
420. With regard to ailerons and flaperons: They both droop with trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed performance. The flaperons droop with trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed performance. The ailerons droop with trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed performance.
421. Which of the following is correct flap and slat sequence?: Flaps 1: Flap position - 1, slat position - middle. Flaps 10: Flap position - 10, slat position - fully extend. Flaps 20: Flap position - 20, slat position - fully extend. Flap 25: Flap position - 20, slat position - fully extend.
422. If both pilots select an ND into a window on the lower DU: A single full display ND is shown and both pilots can control the ND. A single full display ND is shown and the pilot that first selects it can control the ND. The message SELECT MFD is displayed as this exceeds the maximum number of instances allowed.
423. The airport map may be displayed at: 5 NM, 2 NM, 1 NM and 0.5 NM range only. 10 NM, 5 NM, 2 NM, 1 NM and 0.5 NM range only. 5 NM, 2 NM and 1 NM range only. 2 NM, 1 NM and 0.5 NM range only.
424. Vertical speed is displayed digitally above or below VSD when: Vertical speed is not zero. Vertical speed is > 400 fpm. Vertical speed is > 1,000 fpm. Vertical speed is > 1,200 fpm.
425. The flight path acceleration symbol is removed from display when: The airplane is not in flight. The airplane is not accelerating. A low-level decreasing performance windshear is detected below 400ft AGL. .
426. When does current radio altitude be displayed?: Below 2,500ft AGL. Below 2,000ft AGL. Below 1,500ft AGL. elow 500ft AGL.
427. The HUD and the PFD receive flight data: From the same sources. Data format and symbology are the same. From different sources. Data format and symbology may differ. From the same sources. Data format and symbology may differ. From different sources. Data format and symbology are the same.
428. If the flight path angle is excessively high, the HUD pitch scale displays a downward pointing chevron at the: + 20 degrees pitch scale line. + 25 degrees pitch scale line. + 30 degrees pitch scale line. + 45 degrees pitch scale line.
429. When the HUD is displaying decluttered mode: The LNAV and VNAV performance scales are removed. The airspeed and altitude tapes are replaced with digital values and partial compass rose is removed. FMAs, LNAV/VNAV performance scales and partial compass rose are removed.
430. Each clock can provide elapsed time which starts automatically: When TO/GA switches are pushed at the starting of takeoff roll and ends at weight on wheels + 30 seconds. When TO/GA switches are pushed at the starting of takeoff roll and ends at weight on wheels. With thrust levers in the takeoff range and ends at weight on wheels. At weight off wheel and ends at weight on wheels + 30 seconds.
431. Which of following statement is correct regarding open loop action items on the electronic checklist?: They continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever or selector. They continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever or selector and also monitor actual system state such as flap or landing gear position. Flight crew must manually confirm completion with the CCD.
432. During a windshear alert condition, the guidance cue will: Change from hollow to solid. Change from solid to hollow and flashing. Chang from hollow to solid and flashing. Be inhibited.
433. In-flight, if an ATT: RST message appears on the ISFD: Attitude display on the ISFD is lost for the duration of the flight. Pushing the attitude reset switch will reset the attitude display regardless of aircraft attitude. Pushing the attitude reset switch will reset the attitude display in wings level, no-accelerate flight.
434. The flight path angle symbol shows the selected flight path angle when the MCP FPA reference switch is on with: An autopilot engaged. An autopilot engaged and a flight director on. An autopilot engaged or a flight director on. A flight director on.
435. If an outboard DU fails, the PFD: Is displayed on the inboard DU after manually selecting INBD on the PFD/MFD selector. Is automatically displayed in full on the inboard DU. Is automatically displayed in cropped format on the inboard DU.
436. Which of the following statements are false regarding operational notes on the electronic checklist?: Unneeded operational notes are stored on the operational notes page for review later in flight. Access to the operational notes page is by the operational key at the bottom of the checklist page. They have a checklist reference with the title of the checklist from which they came.
437. When normal checklist is completed, the checklist complete indicator is displayed as: White text on a cyan background. Green text on a white background. White text on a green background.
438. Which of the following are not displayed on the PFD mini maps? Weather radar return patterns. Alternate airports. Background waypoints. Terrain map.
439. How many pitot probes are there?: 3 - 2 mounted on the right forward section and 1 on the left forward section of the airplane. 2 - 1 mounted on the right forward section and 1 on the left forward section of the airplane. 3 - 1 mounted on the right forward section and 2 on the left forward section of the airplane. 4 - 2 mounted on the right forward section and 2 on the left forward section of the airplane.
440. How many Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes are there?: 1 2 3 4.
441. How many databases are there for the electronic checklist?: One. Two - selectable on the ground only with engines shutdown. Two - selectable whenever on ground nor in the air. Two - selectable but for mechanic engineer only.
442. On the ND the PLAN mode is presented: Track up. Heading up True north up. Optional - pilot can select one of : track up or heading up or true north up.
443. Integrated Approach Navigation glidepath and final approach course deviation indications are displayed: Like Navigation Performance indications. Like an ILS. With QFE selected in the FMC.
444. The altitude trend vector indicates predicted altitude in: 6 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds. 30 seconds.
445. The electronic flight bag display units: Operational independently but can display information from the off-side unit. Data is not exchanged with the FMC. Operational independently but can display information from the off-side unit. Data is exchanged with the FMC. Operational independently and cannot display information from the off-side unit. Data is not exchanged with the FMC. Operational independently and cannot display information from the off-side unit. Data is exchanged with the FMC.
446. A ground deceleration rate scale: Is displayed on all landings and takeoff. Is displayed on landing or when a deceleration is sensed on takeoff. Displays the in-use auto-brake setting on landing. Display only on takeoff when a deceleration is sensed.
447. When is the AOA limit symbol first display on the HUD?: When AOA is within 2 degrees of stick shaker. When AOA is within 5 degrees of stick shaker. When the stick shaker activates.
448. When does ILS auto tuning occur?: When an ILS, LOC, Back Course, LDA or SDF approach has been selected to the active route. The airplane is within 50NM from top of descent, 150NM from the landing runway or FMC is in descent mode. Both a and b are correct.
449. Enroute wind data can be entered on the: WIND page. ROUTE LEGS page. ROUTE DATA page. PROGRESS page 4.
450. IRS alignment time is approximately: 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 7-10 minutes. 7-10 minutes at mid latitudes and 17 minutes at high latitudes.
451. When is ILS auto tuning inhibited?: During all takeoffs. On initial takeoff for 10 minutes. On initial takeoff until above thrust reduction high. On initial takeoff until above 1500ft AGL.
452. A route offset can be selected: On the RTE LEGS page. On the RTE page 1. On PROGRESS page 1. On FIX page.
453. In order to commence an early descent in VNAV, press the MCP altitude selector or: Select DES NOW from the DES page. Select DES NOW from the DESCENT FORECAST page. Select DES NOW from the PROGRESS page 2. Aircraft automatically descends after 2 minutes from RESET MCP ALT message displays on CDU.
454. In order for LNAV to engage, the aircraft must be: Within 2.5NM or on an intercept heading to the active leg. Within 5NM or on an intercept heading to the active leg. On an intercept of 90 degrees or less. On an intercept of 120 degrees or less.
455. Left and Right GPS receivers supply position data directly to: The FMC. The IRS. The ADRS. The ISFD.
456. The top of climb point is displayed as: An open blue circle. An open green circle. An open amber circle. An open white circle.
457. When more accurate sources are not available, the FMC uses: VOR/VOR radio position updates. VOR/DME radio position updates. DME/DME radio position updates.
458. Wind and temperature for the descent can be entered on the: DESCENT page. LEGS page. DESCENT FORECAST page. PROGRESS page 4.
459. When entering the polar regions, in order to switch to a true north reference: The HEADING REF switch must be manually placed to TRUE. The autopilot will automatically switch to true north reference and this cannot be switched manually. A true heading reference can be either manually selected or automatically switched.
460. In flight, there is a loss of alignment due to a power interruption: The IRUs cannot be reset in flight. When power is restored, full navigation capability is restored within about 10 minutes. When power is restored, full navigation capability is restored within about 10 minutes if the GPS receivers are functioning. When power is restored, attitude information is restored but full navigation capability is lost.
461. How many FMCs are installed?: 1 2 3 4.
462. If electrical power is removed from the airplane and the battery switch is switched OFF: The hot battery bus supplies electrical power to the IRS and a horn in the wheel well sounds. The hot battery bus supplies electrical power to the IRS and a horn sounds after 5 minutes on battery power. IRS inertial position outputs are lost. IRS stops working due to unpowered.
463. Conditional waypoints are: Manually entered by the pilot. Automatically entered by selecting a SID or a STAR. Manually entered by the pilot after selecting a procedure on the DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS page. At a geographically fixed position.
464. ADF data is displayed on the PDF mini-map and is: Green. Cyan. Blue. Not installed on VNA’s B787.
465. Derated climb thrust is maintained until: 25,000ft and increases linearly to achieve full climb thrust by 33,000ft. 12,500ft and increases linearly to achieve full climb thrust by 15,000ft. 12,500ft and increases linearly to achieve full climb thrust by cruising level. 15,000ft and increases linearly to achieve full climb thrust by 30,000ft.
466. If the engines remain operating between flights, how can you prompt the FMC to recalculate a full vertical profile?: Enter a new route destination. Enter a new route departure. Enter a new cruise altitude. Entering new preflight data.
467. If a new airplane present position entry fails the internal check twice: IRSs must be cycled OFF then ON again to reset the system. Flight crew must manually enter the position on the CDU POS INIT page to reinitiate the alignment cycle. The message ALIGNMENT REINITIATED is displayed on CDU help window and the system automatically starts a new alignment cycle.
468. A route offset can be removed by: Selecting END OFFSET on RTE page. Entering an offset of 0. Line selecting OFFSET on the RTE page followed by the DEL key. All of the above are correct.
469. The weather radar display can display: At ND ranges 320NM or less. At ND ranges 10NM or greater. At all ND ranges. At ND ranges greater than 320NM but weather returns are only shown to 320NM. .
470. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the ADRS: The ADRS receives data from the left, center and right pitot and static systems. The ADRS receives data from the IRS. The ADRS is completely independent of the IRS. The ADRS sends trusted voted air data to the PFDs.
471. An inactive route is displayed in MAP mode as a: Cyan solid line. Cyan dashed line. Magenta dashed line. White solid line.
472. If armed on takeoff, when does LNAV engage?: When TOGA is pressed. 50ft. 200ft. 400ft.
473. Where are VOR/DME distances displayed?: On the PFD mini-map display. On upper left corner of the PDF. On the lower right corner of the PDF. On the ND map.
474. GPS, VOR/DME and DME/DME updates can be inhibited on which page?: POS REF page 3. POS REF page 4. RNP PROGRESS page 4. REF NAV DATA.
475. The Attitude and Heading Reference Unit (AHRU): Provides independent inertial position to the FMC. Contributes to a hybrid GPS inertial position to the FMC. Does not provide inertial position data to the FMC.
476. Static Air Temperature can be found on: PROGRESS page 1. PROGRESS page 2. CRZ page. PERF INIT page.
477. When entering preflight information into the FMC: Some data is transmitted to the EFB. EFB generated takeoff data must be manually entered in FMC. Some data is transmitted to the EFB. EFB generated takeoff data can be sent to the FMC. The FMC cannot communicate directly with the EFB but EFB generated takeoff data can be sent to the FMC. The FMC cannot communicate 2-way directly with the EFB.
478. When the GPS system is operating normally: Flight crew must enter present position on the CDU POS INIT page. Flight crew must enter present position in the SET INERTIAL POS line. There is no requirement for flight crew to enter present position on the CDU POS INIT page. Flight crew cannot manually enter present position on the CDU POS INIT page.
479. In flight, route modifications, and waypoint constraints can be added on: RTE page. RTE LEGS page. PROGRESS page 1.
480. Normally, fuel quantity is displayed on the primary EICAS display as: Total fuel quantity. Left and right main tank quantities. Left main, center and right main tank quantities. Total fuel quantity and left main, center and right main tank quantities.
481. If the CROSSFEED switch VALVE light is illuminated, this means: That the crossfeed valve is open. That the crossfeed valve position does not agree with the switch position. That the crossfeed valve is close.
482. APU fuel is supplied from the: Left fuel manifold. Center fuel manifold. Right fuel manifold. Left main tank AC fuel pump.
483. What are the indications that a fuel pump has been load shed?: The pump switch PRESS light is inhibited and the pump is labelled LOAD SHED on the fuel synoptic. The pump switch PRESS light is illuminated and the pump is labelled LOAD SHED on the fuel synoptic. There are no indications as no flight crew response is required. The fuel pump has never been load shed.
484. Which tank has a DC-powered fuel pump?: Left. Center. Right. Fuel tank has AC-powered-only fuel pump.
485. The fuel jettison system automatically sets the fuel-to-remain to: The maximum landing weight quantity and cannot be changed. The maximum landing weight quantity and can be changed. 3,900kg of fuel in each main tank and can be changed. 3,900kg of fuel in each main tank and cannot be changed.
486. The scavenge system operates automatically when: Both main tank quantity is below 16,000kg. There is center tank fuel and center tank pumps are off. Either main tank quantity is below 16,000kg, or the center main tank pumps are off. Engine is on suction feed.
487. The fuel jettison system allows jettison from: Left and right main tank. Left main tank only. Center tank only. All fuel tanks.
488. Where is fuel temperature displayed?: PROGRESS page 1. Primary EICAS display only. On the fuel synoptic display only. Primary EICAS display and on the fuel synoptic display.
489. When EICAS alert message FUEL IMBALANCE displays, fuel balancing is accomplished by: Using the fuel balance system. Using manual crossfeed. Using the fuel balance system and manual crossfeed. Using the fuel balance system or manual crossfeed.
490. If the FUEL BALANCE SYS EICAS message is displayed, this means: The left and right main tanks are out of balance. The left and right main tanks are in balance after using manual crossfeed. The fuel balance system is operating. The fuel balance system is selected ON but there is a system failure or the system is inhibited.
491. During flight, when a center pump has low output pressure: No flight crew action is required as the pump will automatically switch off. The fuel pump switch PRESS light illuminates only. The fuel pump switch PRESS light illuminates and the message FUEL PUMP CENTER (L or R) displays.
492. How many fuel pumps are there?: 1 in each tank. 2 in each tank. The wing tanks have a higher output pressure than the center pumps. 2 in each tank. The center pumps have a higher output pressure than the wing tank pumps. 2 in each tank and all pumps have the same output pressure.
493. A hydraulic reservoir requires refilling when hydraulic system indications display: 0.4. 0.67. 0.73. RF.
494. Left and right hydraulic system primary pumps are: Engine driven. Electric motor driven. Demand pumps.
495. Left and right system demand pumps are: Engine driven. Electric motor driven. For periods of high demand only.
496. The center demand pump operates when: System low pressure, or flaps or slats in motion. During descent from gear lever down and RA < 2000ft to ground speed < 40kts. From takeoff until landing gear lever positioned up. On ground after the second engine is started.
497. In the AUTO position, L & R demand pumps operate under the following conditions: System low pressure, from takeoff thrust to gear up. System low pressure, from takeoff thrust to flaps retracted. System low pressure, during descent and landing from flaps extended to ground speed of 40kts.
498. The right hydraulic system powers: Flight controls, right engine thrust reverser, leading edge slats. Flight controls, right engine thrust reverser, trailing edge flaps. Flight controls, right engine thrust reverser, right and left wing spoilers. Flight controls, right engine thrust reverser, nose gear steering. .
499. The center hydraulic system pumps: Operate only as demand pumps. Alternate as primary pump and demand pump. Operate as primary pumps only.
500. The left hydraulic system powers: Flight control, nose wheel steering, left thrust reverser. Flight control, landing gear, left thrust reverser. Flight controls, right and left wing spoilers, left thrust reverser.
501. When a L/R ENG PRIMARY Pump Switch FAULT light illuminates, this indicates: Excessive primary pump fluid temperature. Excessive primary pump fluid pressure. Excessive primary pump fluid temperature and pressure.
502. The RAM Air Turbine will deploy automatically when: Loss of all four EMPs. Loss of all four EMPs and an engine fails on takeoff or landing. Two hydraulic system pressures are low. d. Loss of all electrical power to first officer’s flight instruments.
503. The RAT will provide hydraulic power of: 2150 psi. 2800 psi. 3000 psi. 5000 psi.
504. The hydraulic systems power the: Flight control, thrust reversers, normal brakes. Flight control, landing gear, normal brakes. Landing gear, normal brakes, trailing edge flaps. Nose gear steering, leading edge slats, trailing edge flaps. .
505. In the event of a leak in the center hydraulic system: The reservoir standpipe preserves hydraulic fluid to ensure nose wheel steering is operational for landing. A single isolation system removes the requirement for standpipe in the center system. The hydraulic isolation systems ensure that landing gear & nose wheel steering is operational. The isolation valves can operate automatically or be controlled by the crew.
506. The airplane has three independent hydraulic systems: Left, right and center. Left, right and standby. Primary, secondary and alternate.
507. Each hydraulic system is powered to: 3000 psi. 4000 psi. 5000 psi. 6000 psi.
508. The center hydraulic system does not power: Engine thrust reversers. Nose gear steering. Leading edge slats. Trailing edge flaps.
509. The center hydraulic system is powered by: Left and right engine driven pumps. 2 electric motor-driven pumps. Ram air turbine.
510. Maximum speed for landing gear extend is: 235kt/.82M 270kt/.82M 310kt/.84M 320kt/.85M.
511. If the gear position indication is fully white, this indicates: One or more landing gear are in transit. All landing gear position indicators are inoperative. All landing gear are up and locked.
512. Nose wheel steering is power by: Left hydraulic system. Center hydraulic system. Right hydraulic system. Electrical system.
513. Alternate landing gear extension system uses: Center hydraulic system fluid. Left hydraulic system fluid. Right hydraulic system fluid. Center hydraulic system fluid and a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump. .
514. Antiskid protection is provided: To all individual main gear wheels. To main gear wheel pair. To each main gear truck. To nose wheel pair.
515. During alternate landing gear extension, the gear doors: Close using hydraulic power from a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump. Remain open. Close using hydraulic power from the center hydraulic system. Close using hydraulic power from the left hydraulic system.
516. The EICAS message BRAKE TEMP displays when any brake registers: 3.0 or more. 4.0 or more. 5.0 or more. None of above is correct.
517. The electro-mechanic brake system has: 2 electric brake actuators per brake. 4 electric brake actuators per brake. 6 electric brake actuators per brake. 8 electric brake actuators per brake.
518. After gear retraction, the landing gear hydraulic system is depressurized: Automatically when all doors are closed. By placing the landing gear lever in the OFF position. Automatically 10 seconds after positions the landing gear lever UP. Automatically 30 seconds after positions the landing gear lever UP.
519. For alternate landing gear extension, the landing gear lever: Must be in the DN position. Must be in the OFF position. Must be remained in the present position. Can be in any position.
520. Maximum braking is achieved during: Landing with AUTOBRAKE MAX. Rejected takeoff with AUTOBRAKE RTO above 85kt. Rejected takeoff with AUTOBRAKE RTO below 85kt. Full pedal braking.
521. Following an alternate extension, the landing gear: Cannot be retracted. Can be retracted by a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump. Can be retracted by the center hydraulic system.
522. All active brakes are applied for: Taxi, landing rollout and RTO braking. Taxi, landing rollout and setting the parking brake. Taxi, RTO braking and setting the parking brake. Landing rollout, RTO or when setting the parking brake.
523. The nose wheel steering tiller turns the nose wheels up to: 35 degrees in either direction. 45 degrees in either direction. 70 degrees in either direction. 90 degrees in either direction.
524. Alternate gear extension may be selected with the landing gear lever: In the UP position. In the DOWN position. In any position.
525. If the EICAS message CONFIG GEAR is displayed because the FLAP lever is in the landing position: The siren cannot be silenced by pushing a Master WARING/CAUTION reset switch. The siren can be silenced by pushing a Master CAUTION/WARNING reset switch. The siren cannot be silenced unless the landing gear is down and locked. The siren cannot be silenced by selecting GEAR OVRD to OVRD on the GPWS page of the TCP.
526. A TA is a prediction that another airplane will enter the conflict airspace in: 10 to 30 seconds. 15 to 35 seconds. 20 to 48 seconds. 25 to 54 seconds.
527. In the event of an overspeed, the following occurs: A siren. A siren and a Master WARNING light. A Master WARNING light and EICAS message OVERSPEED is displayed. A siren, a Master WARNING light and EICAS message OVERSPEED is displayed.
528. The aural “FIVE HUNDRED” callout is announced: On all approaches. When no valid localizer or glideslope signal is received. On all ILS approaches. If the flight path within +/- 2 dots of valid glideslope or localizer.
529. Which EICAS messages can be cancelled?: Amber messages. Red messages. Amber and Red messages.
530. The voice alert BANK ANGLE sounds if bank angle exceeds: 5 degrees at low altitudes during takeoff and landing 25 degrees. 30 degrees. 35 degrees.
531. The MCP Selected Altitude Alert occurs: At 800ft prior to selected altitude and a white box displays around selected and current altitude. At 800ft prior to selected altitude and an amber box displays around selected and current altitude. At 900ft prior to selected altitude and an amber box displays around selected and current altitude. At 900ft prior to selected altitude and a white box displays around selected and current altitude.
532. Proximate traffic is another airplane that is neither RA or TA but is within: 15-35 seconds of TCAS conflict airspace. 20-48 seconds of TCAS conflict airspace. 6 miles and 1,200ft vertically. 6 miles and 2,400ft vertically.
533. EICAS warning CONFIG GEAR is displayed if the airplane is in flight, any landing gear not down and locked and: Either thrust lever closed and RAD ALT < 800ft or FLAP lever in landing position. Thrust lever closed and RAD ALT < 1,500ft and FLAP lever in landing position. Thrust lever closed and RAD ALT < 1,500ft. RAD ALT < 1,500ft.
534. The TCAS RA Traffic symbol is a: Filled white diamond. Hollow white diamond. Filled red square. Filled amber circle.
535. When airspeed is below minimum maneuvering speed the airspeed indication on the PFD turns amber, there is a beeper and: A Master WARNING/CAUTION light illuminates and the aural warning AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED sounds. An EICAS caution message AIRSPEED LOW and a Master WARNING/CAUTION light illuminates. An EICAS caution message AIRSPEED LOW and the aural warning AIRSPEED/AIRSPEED sounds. An EICAS caution message AIRSPEED LOW and a Master WARNING/CAUTION light illuminates and the aural warning AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED sounds.
536. If thrust is reduced after a takeoff configuration warning occurs and speed is less than V1: The siren is silenced but the Master WARNING lights and CONFIG message remain displayed for 10s. The Master WARNING lights extinguish but the siren and EICAS alert message remain until the configuration is corrected. The Master WARNING lights are extinguished, siren is silenced and CONFIG message remains 10s.
537. An EICAS advisory message is displayed in: White Amber Red Cyan.
538. When does an RA prediction occur?: When another airplane will enter TCAS conflict airspace within 15 to 35 seconds. When another airplane will enter TCAS conflict airspace within 20 to 48 seconds. When another airplane will enter TCAS conflict airspace within 10 to 30 seconds. If altitude data from the other airplane is not available.
539. When are PWS alerts enabled?: When TOGA is pressed on takeoff. When the WXR switch is pushed on the EFIS control panel. Approximately 12 seconds after weather radar begins scanning for windshear. Only on the ground with WXR switch pushed.
540. GPWS look-ahead alerts are based on airplane position, barometric altitude, ground speed and: FMC VNAV and LNAV path. FMC VNAV and current track. FMC LNAV path and current vertical path. Present track and vertical path.
541. When departing the selected altitude by 200ft: A highlighted white box is displayed around the current altitude and is removed when departing by > 900ft. A highlighted amber box is displayed around the current altitude and is removed when departing by > 900ft. A highlighted white box is displayed around the current altitude. A highlighted amber box is displayed around the current altitude.
542. When a system parameter is exceeded: The EICAS EVENT RCD switch must be pressed to record out of limit parameters. The out of limit parameters are automatically recorded. The EICAS EVENT RCD switch will record up to 10 out of limit events.
543. When are MCP selected altitude alerts inhibited?: Glideslope captured and landing flaps selected. Glideslope captured and landing gear down and locked. Glideslope captured and landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked.
544. When an OBSTACLE alert occurs while a TERRAIN alert message is displayed: The OBSTACLE alert message replaces the TERRAIN alert message. The TERRAIN alert message remains as it overrides the OBSTACLE alert message. Both the OBSTACLE and TERRAIN alert messages display.
545. If there are multiple pages of EICAS warning messages: No page number is displayed and it is not possible to display other pages. Pushing the CANC/RCL switch displays the next page. Next page inhibit can be removed by pushing and holding the CANC/RCL switch.
546. The PILOT RESPONSE EICAS message: Is inhibited below 20,000ft. Is inhibited during climb below 20,000ft when flaps not up. Is inhibited during climb or descent below 20,000ft when flaps not up.
547. With RA > 15ft, which of the following will cause the EICAS message SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED to display?: Radio altitude is < 800ft or FLAP lever in landing position. Thrust lever angle 5 degrees or more above idle stop for 15 seconds. Both a and b are correct.
548. Each trim air system supplies: 1 cabin zone duct and 1 flight deck zone duct. 2 cabin zone ducts. 2 cabin zone ducts and 1 flight deck zone duct. 3 cabin zone ducts and 1 flight deck zone duct.
549. Outside air is supplied to: 2 electric cabin air compressors - 1 for each pack. 3 electric cabin air compressors - 1 for left pack and 2 for right pack. 4 electric cabin air compressors - 2 for each pack. 6 electric cabin air compressors - 3 for each pack.
550. The Power Electronics Cooling System (PECS) controls the liquid coolant supply temperature of each loop to: 25º C 26º C 27º C 28º C.
551. During engine starts, CACs are commanded off and packs do not restart until: 2 minutes after the first engine started. 2 minutes after engine start sequence initiated and the engine is running. 2 minutes after the second engine is started. Immediately after the second engine is started.
552. The humidification system: Operates automatically when the HUDMID switch is ON for the duration of the flight. Operates automatically, there is no indication and control from flight deck. Operates automatically when the HUDMID switch is ON and automatically switches off about 1 to 1.5 hours prior to touchdown. Operates manually via the HUDMID switch.
553. The EQUIP OVBD VLV AFT message indicates: The aft equipment cooling system is operating in override mode. The airflow through the aft E/E equipment racks has reversed. The aft equipment cooling overboard valve is failed in the opened position. The aft equipment cooling overboard valve is failed in the closed position.
554. During normal operations in the cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is no more than: 5,000ft. 6,000ft. 7,000ft 8,000ft.
555. Some re-circulated air is delivered to the flight deck: Never. When one pack is OFF and on the ground only. When one pack is off and its associated lower re-circulation fan is ON. When one pack is OFF.
556. If the flight deck FWD CARGO A/C control fails: The packs maintain the last selected target temperature. The packs maintain a mid-temperature of 16º C. The packs maintain a temperature of 21º C. The packs maintain a temperature of 19º C.
557. Flight crew foot heaters are available: On the ground only. In-flight only. In-flight or on the ground.
558. The aft cargo compartment: Is heated but compartment temperature is uncontrolled. Is not heated. Is heated and temperature is controllable.
559. If the outflow valve position is not available on EICAS, holding the OUTFLOW VALVE MANUAL switch to CLOSE will result in the outflow valve being: Fully closed after 15 seconds. Fully closed after 25 seconds. Fully closed after 30 seconds. Fully closed after 60 seconds.
560. How many outflow valves are installed?: 2 - one forward and one aft. 3 - one forward and two aft. 3 - two forward and one aft. 4 - two forward and two aft.
561. Flight crew shoulder heat is available: On the ground only. In-flight only. On ground or in-flight.
562. Turning the re-circulation fans off: Increases the amount of fresh air to the passenger cabin. Results in increased airflow. Results in decrease airflow. Increases the amount of fresh air to the cockpit.
563. On the ground: Both CACs run when using the APU as a power source. Both CACs run during cold weather operations. Both CACs run when the temperature is above 30º C. Both CACs run when temperature is above 35º C.
564. The CABIN TEMP selector sets a master reference temperature between: 18º C and 29º C. 60º C and 29º C. 18º C and 24º C. 60º C and 24º C.
565. If in-flight both FWD equipment cooling supply fans fail: The FWD EQUIP COOLING switch must be selected to OVRD to activate override mode. The forward system reconfigures automatically to override mode. The backup supply fans operate automatically. There is no indication or procedure for the failure of these fans.
566. Miscellaneous cooling system power can be removed using the: Cannot because the miscellaneous cooling system is totally automatic. MISC COOLING switch on the flight deck overhead panel. IFE switch on the flight deck overhead panel. IFE switch on the FWD attendants control panel.
567. If a pack overheat is detected: The pack must be shut down by pressing the associated pack switch. The pack shuts down automatically. The pack is shut down by pressing the AIR CONDITIONING RESET switch. After 2.5minutes the pack will shut down automatically.
568. If a depressurization occurs, the outflow valves: Remain closed for the remainder of the flight. Must be closed manually. Remain closed until the airplane reaches 15,000ft then drive open for the remainder of flight. Remain closed until the airplane reaches 10,000ft then drive open for the remainder of flight.
569. If one pack is in standby cooling mode and the other pack is operating normally: Standby cooling shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures. Standby cooling shuts down at lower altitudes and lower outside air temperatures. Standby cooling shuts down at higher altitudes and higher outside air temperatures. Standby cooling remains operational throughout the entire flight envelope.
570. Bleed air supplied by the engines is used for: Pressurization, engines core and inlet cowl anti-ice operation. Pressurization, engines core and inlet wing anti-ice operation. Engine core, inlet cowl and wing anti-ice operation. Engine core, inlet cowl anti-ice operation.
571. The alternate Ventilation System (AVS) provides an alternate means of ventilating the cabin and flight deck when: One pack is inoperative. One pack is inoperative and the AVS switch is in the ALTN position. Both packs are inoperative and the AVS switch is in the ALTN position. .
572. The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate until the nose gear is: Down and locked. In transit. With wheels in motion. With weight on wheels.
573. The Overhead Flight Attendant Rest (OFAR) may not be occupied during: Taxi, takeoff, and landing. Landing only. Takeoff and landing. Climb and descent.
574. What is the correct indication of a properly entered emergency access code in the flight deck access keypad? The entry of the correct emergency access code produces an EICAS caution message and illuminates a red light on the keypad. The entry of the correct emergency access code produces an EICAS Advisory message and illuminates a green light on the keypad. Entry of the correct emergency access code sounds a flight deck chime. The entry of the correct emergency access code initiates the EICAS warning message FD DOOR AUTO UNLOCK and illuminates the amber light on the keypad.
575. During normal ground operations and landings, what prevents debris from entering the CACs?: Deflector doors. Dedicated inlets. Pack control systems. Ram fan.
576. What controls the de humidification system located in the crown area of the passenger compartment?: Push ventilation switch to NORM. Push RECIRC FANS switches to ON. Operation is automatic when electrical power is available. Push Trim Air switches to ON.
577. What provides forward cargo compartment ventilation and conditioned air?: Forward E/E cooling exhaust, exhaust fan, in line heater, and refrigeration unit. Recirculated cabin air. Residual heat from the aft E/E cooling. The left and right A/C packs.
578. What is the EICAS indication that the engine anti ice valve is open?: ANTI-ICE. EAI. ENGINE ANTI-ICE. EICAS N1.
579. Which of the following statements about Wing ANTI-ICE Selector is correct?: AUTO-in flight, wing ice protection system is powered on and off automatically by the ice protection system. On- wing anti-ice protection system is powered on and operates without input from the automatic ice detection system. Wing anti-ice is inhibited on the ground below 60 knots. The selector can be rotated on and off the same way.
580. Which statement is NOT correct regarding the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors?: OFF- the engine anti-ice valves are commanded closed. Auto- the engine anti-ice valves are opened or closed automatically by the ice detection system. Approach idle is selected by the EEC only when the Engine Anti-Ice selector is ON. ON - the engine anti-ice valves are commanded open.
581. What is displayed in the IAS/MACH Window when the FMC is controlling the speed?: The IAS/MACH Window is blank when the FMC controls the speed. When the flaps are extended, the flap placard speed minus 5 knots is displayed. The selected speed. When the flaps are UP, 250 knots is displayed when the airplane is below 10,000 feet MSL or the Transition Altitude, whichever is lower.
582. What happens in-flight when the IAS/MACH Selector is pushed when VNAV is active?: The IAS/MACH Window always closes and the Window is blank. Alternately opens and closes the IAS/MACH Window. When the window is open, FMC speed-intervention is active and the IAS/MACH Selector may be used to set the desired airspeed. VNAV disengages and the AFDS Pitch Mode changes to Vertical Speed (V/S) and the Autothrottle Mode changes to THR REF. VNAV disengages and FMC speed-intervention is active and the IAS/MACH Selector may be used to set the desired airspeed.
583. How can the pilot disengage the autopilot?: Push the autopilot disconnect switch on either Thrust Lever or pull down the MCP autopilot disengage bar. ush either control wheel autopilot disconnect switch or push both Takeoff/Go around (TO/GA) switches at the same time with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated. Push either control wheel autopilot disconnect switch or pull down the MCP autopilot disengage bar. Override the autopilot with the control column, or the control wheel, or the rudder pedals (when LAND 2 or LAND 3 are not annunciated).
584. What power source is available in the event of electrical power loss the left VHF radio and left TCP?: Standby power. 235 Vac power. Main battery. 115 Vac power.
585. In the Automatic Dependent Surveillance Manager (ADSM), the Manager menu page provides access to the manager functions. Which statement below is correct?: Normally ACARS is enabled with VHF, SATCOM, or HF and permits ACARS to automatically use all three. If one or more boxes are deselected, those systems lose their capability to downlink or uplink. The VHF manager page on the center VHF radio is always the default data radio. When the automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) is armed, AUTOMATIC position report messages can be requested by ATC and/or COMPANY. The HF manager page on the left HF radio is always the default data radio. .
586. Which statement about the tuning and control panels (TCP) is correct?: The tuning and control panels (TCP) are used to tune and control the VHF, HF, SATCOM, cabin interphone, and other airplane systems. The TCPs are designated left and right and are normally associated with their respective VHF radio. The TCP menu can be switched between MFDs with the DSP. Each TCP has a light sensor that can be adjusted on the main TCP menu.
587. What provides power to the 28 Vdc system when the 235 Vac system is energized?: Four DC generators. Two standby inverters. Auto Transformer Units (ATUs). Power conversion devices.
588. Choose one of the loads energized by the TOWING POWER switch being placed in the ON position. The Captain’s audio control panel. The Brake Pressure Accumulator. The Brake Source Light. The Captain’s instrument panel flood lights.
589. Following the loss of all electrical power to the captain’s and first officer’s flight instruments in flight, what provides standby power, until RAT deployment?: The APU battery. The backup generators. The APU. The main battery.
590. What is the number of engine driven Permanent Magnet Generators (PMG) available?: One Two Four Three.
591. What provides a secondary source of power for the flight controls?: Permanent Magnet Alternators. Permanent Magnet Generators. The 28 Vdc distribution system and main battery. The 28 Vac distribution system.
592. How are the 235 Vac buses energized when on the ground with only forward external power selected ON (no engine or APU generator power)?: 115 Vac distribution system. Four main 235 Vac buses. Two main 235 Vac buses. Large motor controller system.
593. The APU starter/generators produce what type of electrical power?: 12 Vd 115 Va 28 Vd 235 Va.
594. If an engine is running or forward external power is selected ON which APU starter/generator is used for engine start?: Either the left or right starter generator. Both APU starter/generators. The right starter/generator. The left starter/generator.
595. What is the primary function of the engine driven Permanent Magnet Generators?: To provide power to the Air Data Reference System and the Global Positioning System. To provide power to the alternate landing gear extension system. To provide power to the electric brake actuators and the autobrake system. Three engine driven Permanent Magnet Generators (PMG) are the primary source of power for the flight control electronics.
596. Regarding the Main 235 Vac Bus Distribution system, what happens when APU is started while the airplane is on the ground, with only forward external power selected ON?: External power energizes the 115 Vac and 28 Vdc buses and the APU energizes the 235 Vac and 270 Vdc buses. If the APU or an engine(s) is subsequently started it energizes the four main 235 Vac buses, and external power transitions from ON to AVAIL. The buses remain powered by external power until the APU starter generators are manually selected online. The APU energizes the 235 Vac and 115 Vac systems and external power continues to energize the 28Vdc system through power conversion devices until deselected or disconnected.
597. Which statement about Electrical load management in the 787 is correct?: Consists of load sheds controlled by the Electrical Load Management System. The BPCU provides flight deck control / indication, power transfer functions and overall load management and protection. Is galleys first, then utility busses. Utility busses are followed by individual equipment items. Occurs only during engine start or with an electrical failure.
598. What is the primary purpose of the Main 235 VAC BUS Distribution System?: Provide power to the large motor controllers located in the aft E/E Bay. Provide power to the flight instruments. Provide power to the four electrical brake power supply units. They distribute power directly to a limited number of high voltage AC airplane systems. .
599. Which statement is true about the 787 external power system?: To receive the benefit of the aft power source, both forward power sources must be connected, and the right engine must be started first. If only two external power connections are available to support main engine start (APU not operating) one forward and one aft connection are require. Aft external power can be used as a single source to start the left engine only. The second forward external power receptacle provides additional power for large electrical loads.
600. What is the function of the aft external power system?: Energize the motor controller required to perform a right engine start using external power as the sole power source. Energize the large motor power distribution system when the airplane is on external power. Provide power to start the APU with external power. Provide power to the Power Electronics Cooling System and the aft galley complex.
601. Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation is an EEC function that provides thrust asymmetry protection under what circumstances?: At any time a thrust asymmetry is detected by the EE. In the event of an engine failure on takeoff below 1,000 feet AGL. During a go-around at light weights and aft center of gravity. Against idle thrust asymmetry while on the ground.
602. If starting the APU from an unpowered airplane (battery switch recently moved to ON), what does the APU controller (APUC) wait for before proceeding with the APU start?: The battery voltage of the main battery. APU inlet door position. That the common core system (CCS) applications are available. Fuel pressure from the right fuel manifold.
603. When the fuel control switch is in the RUN position and the engine is at or above idle, how long before the green RUNNING indication blanks on the secondary engine display?: 30 Seconds. 20 Seconds. 15 Seconds. 10 Seconds.
604. At what altitude is the APU designed to be started with no pumps operating?: Only on the ground. Only in-flight up to 10,000 feet. On the ground or in-flight up to 14,000 feet. On the ground or in-flight up to 22,000 feet.
605. When does the engine failure alert system provide a red ENG FAIL annunciation on both PFDs and ENG FAIL on both HUDs?: During takeoff with the airspeed between 65 knots and 6 knots prior to V1 if actual thrust is less than commanded thrust. Anytime time during flight where the engine performance is more than the commanded engine performance. During approach when less than 1,000 feet AGL and the engine is producing more than commanded thrust, and the actual thrust is not satisfactorily decreasing towards the
commanded thrust. During takeoff at any speed if the engine is producing less than commanded thrust, and the actual thrust is not satisfactorily increasing towards the commanded thrust.
606. When is the magenta X-START displayed on the EICAS?: When the in-flight envelope information is displayed. When engine N1 is below idle. When current altitude and/or airspeed are outside the windmilling start envelope. Starter assist is recommended for an in-flight start. When the airspeed range is accurate for an in-flight start.
607. How often does load shed occur during the engine start?: Sometimes, depending upon the electrical load before the start is initiate. Always. During the first engine start only with external power. Only when using external power.
608. During ground starts, which one of the following malfunctions will abort the autostart sequence?: Low oil pressure. High oil temperature. The loss of both starters. Hot start.
609. How can it be determined that the left Common Core Resource (CCR) is on-line for a battery only APU start?: The EICAS advisory message CCS NORM is displayed on the MF. The APU RUN message is displayed for 15 seconds on the PF. The left CCR is on-line when the Captain’s inboard and lower display units show the default format (CDU pages). The APU CONTROL advisory message is displayed on the EICAS.
610. What will display secondary engine indications other than selecting ENG on the Display Select Panel (DSP)?: An engine fire switch is pulled in flight, A secondary engine parameter is exceeded in flight. Move the fuel control switch to RUN in flight. The START selector is in the NORM position. Engine N2 RPM is above idle.
611. On the ground, what is the limit to the start attempts per start sequence before the EEC cancels the autostart (GE)?: 3. No limit. 2. 5.
612. Which of the following have fire detection and extinguishing systems that include fire and overheat detection as well as fire extinguishing systems?: Cargo compartments and wheel wells. Engines, APU, cargo compartments, lavatories. Overhead flight crew and flight attendant rest compartments. APU, wheel wells, and lower crew rest compartments.
613. Which statement accurately describes and element of the 787 engine fire and overheat detection system?: Both loops must detect a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution. There are multiple dual-channel detector assemblies in each engine nacelle. Each detector channel provides both fire and overheat detection. There are two detector loops in each engine nacelle. Each detector loop provides both fire and overheat detection. If a fault is detected in one loop, no further fire or overheat protection is provide.
614. What happens in-flight when the Cargo Fire Discharge Switch is pushed after a Cargo Fire Arm Switch has been pushed?: Activates the extinguishing system. The EICAS message DET FIRE CARGO displays. The master CAUTION lights illuminate. It silences the Fire Bell.
615. What fire protection is available for the engines?: Fire detection and fire extinguishing. Two Fire Extinguishing Bottles. The Left Bottle is for the Left Engine only and the Right Bottle is for the Right Engine only. Smoke detection and fire extinguishing. Smoke detection.
616. What component of the Communication System is NOT powered when smoke is detected in the aft cargo compartment?: The VHF radios. The HF radios. The SATCOM system. The SELCAL system.
617. What happens on the ground when the Cargo Fire Discharge Switch is pushed after a Cargo Fire Arm Switch has been pushed?: Three extinguisher bottles discharge simultaneously into the selected compartment with the third bottle discharging at a reduced flow rate. The immediate discharge of two extinguisher bottles into the affected compartment. After a 15 minute delay three extinguisher bottles discharge at a reduced flow rate. One extinguisher bottle discharge at a reduced rate.
618. What happens when an Engine Fire Switch is pulled out?: Arms the same-side Fire Extinguisher Bottle, closes the engine and spar fuel valves, trips the engine generators off and shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine-driven hydraulic pump. Arms both Fire Extinguisher Bottles, opens the engine and spar valves, trips the engine generators off and shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine-driven hydraulic pump. Arms both Fire Extinguisher Bottles, closes the engine and spar valves, trips the engine generators off and shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine-driven hydraulic pump, and
provides power to the Thrust Reverser Isolation Valve. Arms both Fire Extinguisher Bottles, closes the engine and spar valves, trips the engine generators off, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine-driven hydraulic pump, and removes
power to the Thrust Reverser Isolation Valve.
619. What is an indication of an engine fire?: The fire bell sounds, the Master WARNING lights illuminate, the EICAS warning message FIRE ENG (L, R) is displayed, The engine FUEL CONTROL (L, R) switch fire warning
light illuminates. The fire bell sounds and the ENG BTL (1 or 2) DISCH Light illuminates and the EICAS advisory message BTL (1 or 2) DISCH ENG shows. The EICAS message OVERHEAT ENG L, R shows. A caution beeper sounds.
620. What components of a Fire Protection system are NOT installed in the main gear wheel well?: A fire extinguishing system. A fire detection system. Dual detector channels. An overheat detection system.
621. In the normal mode, airplane roll control characteristics are similar to conventional airplanes. Unlike conventional airplane, the control wheel does not directly position the lateral surface in flight. (select the correct statement about the Normal Mode Roll Control): Control wheel forces do not increase with control displacement increases, but do change with airspeed changes. Aileron displacement is proportionately reduced by the primary flight control computer at airspeeds above 250 knots. The flight control system automatically positions the ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers to generate the commanded maneuver. Aileron and flaperon surface deflections are proportional to control wheel displacement. Spoilers begin to extend to augment roll control after several degrees of control wheel
rotation.
622. In the secondary flight control mode, the flap system utilizes the flap lever to: Select the flap position only as the slats and flaps are moved by the Alternate Flaps Selector in the secondary mode. Position the slats and flaps hydraulically using left hydraulic system pressure. Position the flight controls electrically utilizing the standby DC electrical bus. Position the slats and flaps hydraulically and/or electrically.
623. How is the horizontal stabilizer powered in the 787?: It is powered by the left and right hydraulic systems. It is powered by the right and center hydraulic systems. It is powered by an electric control unit powered by the L2 and R2 AC busses. It is powered by the center hydraulic system.
624. Which flight control surfaces provide Roll Control in the 787?: Flaperons. Kruger flaps. and slats. Kruger flaps, slats and spoilers. Flaperons, ailerons and spoilers. Slats and spoilers.
625. Which of the 787 high lift functions is specifically designed to increase lift and the margin to stall when the airspeed is below 225 KIAS and the slats are in the middle position?: Approach slats. Flap/slat relief. Autogap flaps. Slat autogap and slat pregap.
626. Which statement is an accurate description on the function of the navigation performance scales and pointers on the PFD?: When the RNP bars touch at the center of the scale, the scale turns red and the pointers flash while the UNABLE NAV EICAS message is displayed. Navigation performance scales and pointers present a real-time display of the location of the LNAV and VNAV path relative to the airplane. The ANP bars are anchored to the inner index of the deviation scales. The scales and pointers show approach reference data.
627. The airplane’s angle-of-attack (AOA) limit is depicted on the HUD by the angle-of-attack limit symbol. When does the AOA limit symbol display?: When angle of attack is within five degrees of stick shaker, or the stick shaker is active. When angle of attack is within seven degrees of stick shaker. During the flight with the flaps are not up. Symbology control switches on each control wheel allow the pilot to alternate between the two display modes.
628. On the EFB what is the meaning of a soft key with a cyan (blue) outline?: The function is ready for selection. The function is available for use. The function can be transferred. The function is unavailable.
629. Which statement of Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) function is correct?: The EFB is an operating system with applications designed to assist the flight crew with routine tasks, enhance security and reduce the reliance on paper documents. The primary method of flight crew interaction with the EFB is with the full-size keyboard on the flight deck. Under typical flight conditions, the majority of pilot interaction with the EFB consists of downloading and printing FMC data. The EFBs can exchange data with the FMC, but they cannot display information from the off - side unit.
630. The VSD can display an FMC approach glidepath angle line for approaches that have a designated approach angle. This display…… Has a dashed line that extends 10 NM for situational awareness that is anchored to the missed approach point. Indicates the current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and airspeed. Has a three degree reference line for pilot reference during the final approach. Has a solid magenta line that extends 10 NM for situational awareness and that is anchored to the runway threshold.
631. Which statement is true about the airport map display on the Navigation Display (ND)?: The airport map on Navigation Display shows the effectivity dates for the airport map database in the ICAO ID box of the airport map. The airport map on ND automatically displays at ranges of 5 NM or less if the airport is the ORIGIN or DESTINATION airport in the active flight plan. The Navigation Display always displays the airport map at ranges of 10 NM or less. The airport map on the Navigation Display is available only through the drop-down menu.
632. What does the EICAS message HUD TAKEOFF indicate?: The head-up display takeoff guidance has been selected. Head-up display takeoff guidance is available for takeoff. Head-up display takeoff guidance is not available. Only one head-up display is functional.
633. Which statement about the HUD Symbology Modes is correct?: The decluttered symbology mode is available whenever the HUD is in operation. Symbology control switches on each control wheel allow the pilot to alternate between the two display modes. All HUD symbology is the same as the PFD Symbology. Airspeed and Altitude Tapes are displayed in the decluttered mode.
634. The EFIS/DSP systems display provides an alternate way to control the functions of the EFIS Control Panel and/or DSP. How is the alternate control function selected?: It is selected by pushing the DSP key on the CDU Menu page. It is selected by pushing the SYS switch on an operating DSP or on either Lower MFD Multifunction Keypad, and then selecting the EFIS/DSP Select Key on the Systems MFD
Control Selection page displayed on the selected MF. It is selected on the STAT page. The controls must be enabled prior to activation. It is selected by pushing the EFIS CTRL select key on the CDU Menu page.
635. What would cause the Angle of Attack AOA limit symbol to be displayed?: Angle of attack within 5 degrees of stick shaker, Stick shaker is active, Windshear alert with solid guidance cue. Takeoff, Over 50 feet radio altitude. A low altitude go-around. The flight directors are selected ON A low altitude go around.
636. What is the first checklist to appear when the checklist display switch is pushed when the airplane is on the ground when an EICAS warning message is displayed?: Checklists associated with any EICAS warning message. Checklists associated with any EICAS caution message. Checklists associated with any EICAS advisory message. Normal Checklists (incomplete or not yet displayed).
637. The FMC message NAV DATA OUT OF DATE is displayed in the CDU help window. What does this message indicate?: The correct database has been selected on the IDENT page. The current date is not within the ACTIVE database cycle. LNAV has been selected an a route has not been activate. FMC performance predictions are not available.
638. Which statement accurately describes the ADF displays?: ADFs are not installed on the 787. If all three FMCs fail, the left and right ADF bearings are tuned on the related left and right CDU ALTN NAV RADIO page. Left and right ADF bearings display on the ND when the related VOR/ADF switch is in the ADF position. ADF data is cyan. Left and right ADF bearings are automatically displayed on the PFD mini-map when manually tuned through the CDU. ADF data is cyan.
639. What happens if two FMCs fail in flight?: The third FMC automatically takes over in single FMC configuration. The EICAS advisory message SINGLE FMC is displayed. All data is retained, NDs continue to operate, but
LNAV and VNAV is disengaged. Reactivate and execute the flight plan, and reselect LNAV and VNAV. LNAV and VNAV fail. The EICAS advisory message FMC displays. The CDUs supply route data to the NDs, and one of the CDUs supplies LNAV guidance to the autopilot. The TCPs provide the capability to enter a single latitude/longitude waypoint. The TCPs then provide the heading, distance to go, and groundspeed to the entered waypoint. The EICAS advisory message FMC is displayed There is a loss of PFD mini-map displays, ND map displays, loss of the CDU pages on the MFD and no LNAV or VNAV operation or
guidance.
640. What causes the FMC Communications Message: ALTN UPLINK to display in the CDU Help Window Title?: A company list of 20 airports has been received and is available on the ALTN LIST page 1/ 2. Up to four company preferred alternate airports and associated data are available for preview on the ALTN page. A route modification has been automatically loaded into the route page 1 and is ready for route activation. Alternate airports and associated data has been received but the data is not valid and can not be displayed.
641. If the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) fails, the transponder and TCAS modes must be set using the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP). Pushing the ALERT/XPDR
CTL prompt… Cancels an alert. Places the transponder in the standby mode. Toggles transponder control between the ATP and TCP. Disables transponder altitude reporting.
642. What happens if a new airplane present position entry fails the internal check two times?: The alignment cycle stops and the present position must be entered manually. An EICAS message INERTIAL/ ORIGIN DISAGREE displays. An EICAS message ENTER INERTIAL POSITION displays. The system automatically starts a new alignment cycle.
643. When will the EICAS fuel temperature display in amber?: When the fuel temperature approaches maximum or the fuel freeze temperature entered on the flight management system CDU. When the fuel temperature is normal. During fuel jettison. When the minimum fuel quantity is reached.
644. The EICAS Caution message FUEL AUTO JETTISON is displayed. What does this indicate?: The fuel jettison automatic shutoff failed or the total fuel quantity is less than the FUEL TO REMAIN. The fuel jettison system is operating normally. The fuel jettison nozzle valves are close. The fuel jettison system has been activated by selecting the FUEL JETTISON ARM switch to ARMED.
645. Which of the following reasons will inhibit the fuel balance operation?: The airplane is in flight and the fuel jettison system is NOT active. The airplane is in flight and the fuel jettison system is active, or a center tank pump is on. Both center tank pumps are off. The airplane is on the ground and both engines are shutdown.
646. Where is the Jettison Time shown?: On the EICAS Fuel Jettison Indications Display. On the Status Page. On the Fuel Synoptic. On the AUX Panel.
647. What problem may be encountered on climb out when using engine suction feed to bypass the pumps?: Air may collect in the fuel line and restrict fuel flow. A fuel imbalance may result. The APU will not receive adequate fuel. Fuel in the surge tanks is inaccessible.
648. Which statement accurately describes fuel pump operation when there is not sufficient power to operate all fuel pumps?: The fuel system automatically determines the best pumps to operate depending on how much electrical power is available. When there is not sufficient electrical power to operate all the fuel pumps, system logic dictates that the DC fuel pump is the first to be load shed Because fuel pump operation is a function of the CCS, pumps are inhibited on the ground by programming until the flaps are extended. On the ground, the center tank pumps only operate when four VDSGs are powered and two electrical sources are available, so the center tank pumps are load shed first.
649. What is the position of crossfeed valve during the normal operations?: Cycled during preflight. Open. Close. Operated automatically to maintain a balanced fuel quantity.
650. What does the FUEL QTY LOW caution EICAS message indicate?: The fuel quantity is low in a main tank. The predicted fuel at destination is less than the FMC reserves. The fuel quantity is low in both main tanks. The fuel quantity is low in all of the fuel tanks (left, center, right).
651. What is the power source for the Hydraulic System Primary Pumps?: Electric motor driven pumps. Engine driven pumps. Hydraulic motor driven pump powered by the center system. Hydraulic System Demand Pumps.
652. What components are powered by hydraulics?: Flight controls, landing gear, slats, flaps, nose gear steering, thrust reversers and main gear brakes. Flight controls, landing gear, slats, flaps, nose gear steering, thrust reversers. Ailerons, spoilers, rudder, elevator, stabilizer, landing gear, slats, flaps, nose gear steering, thrust reversers. Flight controls, landing gear, slats, flaps, nose gear steering, thrust reversers and main gear steering.
653. What happens to the left or right hydraulic system when the associated Engine Fire Switch is pulled? The demand pump pressurizes the system when the engine-driven pump stops. The opposite side engine-driven pump pressurizes the system when the engine-driven pump stops. The engine-driven pump hydraulic supply shutoff valve closes and the engine-driven pump is depressurized. The engine-driven pump stops, and the center hydraulic system pressurizes the system when the gear lever is down and radio altitude is less than 2000 feet until the groundspeed is less than 60 knots, to provide power for the Thrust Reverser after landing.
654. The left and right hydraulic systems each have a demand pump known as an electric motor-driven pump (EMP). With the pump selector in the AUTO position, these L and R demand pumps operate under which of the following conditions?: Whenever the flaps are extended. During descent from when the gear lever is down and radio altitude is less than 1000 feet until groundspeed is less than 40 knots. Only when a backup hydraulic power source is required for aircraft configuration change when directed by a non-normal checklist or supplemental procedure. During ground operations and configuration changes while airborne.
655. When the Ram Air Turbine Pressure (PRESS) light on the hydraulic panel is illuminated white, which statement is correct?: The RAT is providing insufficient hydraulic pressure to the flight controls. The RAT is deployed and the center system hydraulic pressure is greater than 1500 psi. The RAT is deployed and the center system primary hydraulic pressure is 5000 psi. The RAT is deployed and the center system primary hydraulic pressure is greater than 3000 psi.
656. What does the Hydraulics EICAS Message HYD PRESS DEM L, R indicate?: All hydraulic system pressures are low. The affected hydraulic system pressure is high. The affected demand pump pressure is low when commanded on. The affected primary hydraulic pump pressure is low.
657. If the gear is not up and locked after normal transit time what EICAS caution message is displayed?: GEAR DOOR. GEAR DISAGREE. GEAR DOWN. GEAR CONTROL.
658. What is the limit of nose wheel steering turn when using the rudder pedals?: 20 degrees in either direction. 70 degrees in either direction. 5 degrees in either direction. 8 degrees in either direction.
659. Which statement about landing gear extension is correct when the landing gear lever is moved to DN?: The EICAS message GEAR DISAGREE is displayed while the gear is in transit. A dedicated DC powered electric motor and hydraulic pump extends the landing gear. The landing gear free-fall without hydraulic power to the down and locked position. The landing gear doors free-fall to open position and automatically lock.
660. A crew alert having an EICAS display, voice alerts, PFD and HUD indications, would represent what type of alert?: A Time Critical Warning alert. A Warning alert. A Caution alert. An advisory alert.
661. What alerts are given for a Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed (TAMS) when airspeed decreases to a critical level?: AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED aural alert and Master WARNING light. An EICAS TAMS message. A Master CAUTION light and EICAS alert. A siren and Master WARNING.
662. When multiple EICAS messages exist for multiple system malfunctions; The menu text for the last displayed synoptic is highlighted in red Only the system menu is displayed. The flight crew has to select the desired system synoptic The last synoptic becomes the default display upon the selection of the Display Select Panel SYS key The first synoptic becomes the default display upon the selection of the Display Select Panel SYS key.
663. TCAS proximate traffic is another airplane that is within: Approximately 30 to 46 seconds. ND display limits. Three miles. Proximate traffic is another airplane that is neither an RA or a TA but is within six miles and 1,200 feet vertically.
664. What alerts the flight crew that the airplane is not configured for a normal landing?: The EICAS warning message CONFIG GEAR is displayed. An EICAS caution message CONFIG is displayed. An EICAS warning message CONFIG WARNING SYS is displayed. An EICAS warning message TOO LOW GEAR is displayed.
665. What conditions must exist for the SPEEDBRAKE warning to display on the PFDs and HUDs?: The airplane on the ground, thrust levers not in takeoff position, and groundspeed in excess of 85 knots. Airplane on the ground, and thrust levers in takeoff position. Airplane on the ground and groundspeed less than 85 knots with thrust levers in takeoff position. The airplane is in flight and the speedbrakes deploy.
666. When does the TCAS predict that another airplane will enter the TCAS conflict airspace when it displays a Resolution Advisory (RA)?: Within approximately 20 to 48 seconds. Within approximately 15 to 35 seconds. Within approximately 30 to 60 seconds. Within approximately 10 to 30 seconds.
667. When does the TCAS predict that another airplane will enter the TCAS conflict airspace when it displays a Traffic Advisory (TA)?: Within approximately 15 to 35 seconds. In 20 to 48 seconds. In 60 to 90 seconds. Within approximately 30 to 60 seconds.
668. What is the turbulent air penetration speed (in severe turbulence)?: 310 KIAS/.84 Mach (whichever is lower) at 25,000 feet or above. 270 knots below 25,000 feet. 280 knots/.82 Mach (whichever is lower) at 25,000 feet or above. 290 KIAS/.84 Mach above 25,000 feet.
669. What is the use of a TCAS (Terrain Alert and Collision Avoidance System) resolution advisory?: TCAS resolution advisory authorizes pilot deviation from the current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with resolution advisory. Is only advisory in nature; pilots require ATC authorization to deviate from the current clearance. TCAS resolution advisory alert to require maintenance action prior to departure. TCAS is only advisory in nature; a TCAS resolution requires an immediate course deviation.
670. Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged before descending below which height?: 15 feet AGL 100 feet AGL 200 feet AGL 50 feet AGL.
671. What is required when conducting autoland operation?: A minimum of two operational FMCs are required. Autoland capability may be used when headwind is predicted at 40 knots or below. The minimum glideslope angle is 2.75 degrees. Autoland capability may be used with flaps 20, 25, or 30 with both engines operative or one engine inoperative.
672. Which condition causes the passenger oxygen masks to drop from the Passenger Service Units? (Select all that apply): Cabin altitude 1200 feet or greater than the origin airport altitude. Cabin altitude 10,000 feet or greater. Press the PASS OXYGEN switch on the overhead panel in the cockpit. Cabin altitude 2000 feet or greater than the destination airport altitude.
673. The pressurization system indications are automatically shown on EICAS when you select which synoptic?: Electrical Hydraulic Air Fuel.
674. How can the cabin altitude be controlled?: Manually with 2 outflow valves. Automatically with the AFT outflow valves. Manually with the FMC. Automatically with the FWD outflow valves.
675. With these indications, which bottles have discharged?: Three high-rate extinguisher bottles automatically released after the DISCH swich was pusher. Two low-rate extinguisher bottles were released manually. Three low-rate bottles were released manually. Two high-rate extinguisher bottles were released automatically.
676. A fire is in a lavatory. Which statement is correct?: The cabin crew can release the lavatory fire bottle with the lavatory controls. The smoke detector controls the release of the fire bottle. The sound and red light at the lavatory, and an advisory message on the flight deck are the lavatory fire indications.
677. What occurs if there is a resolution advisory command and then a windshear alert?: The RA overrides the windshear alert. The windshear has no effect on the R. The RA changes to a traffic advisory during a windshear alert. The windshear alert is inhibited during the R.
678. Which type of traffic is shown on the ND?: Proximate traffic. Other traffic. Traffic advisory. Relative traffic.
679. What conditions cause a “TOO LOW TERRAIN” caution?: Gear NOT down and radio altitude high. Flaps and gear set for landing and radio altitude low. Airplane NOT in landing configuration and radio altitude low.
680. Predictive windshear alerts only occur below which altitude?: 2,300 feet AGL. 1,200 feet AGL. 1,000 feet AGL.
681. When does the flap override reset?: At engine shutdown. 10 minutes after first cabin door opens. 10 minutes after last cabin door opens.
682. With these indications, how much time is there before you impact the terrain?: 90 to 70 seconds. 80 to 60 seconds. 70 to 50 seconds. 60 to 40 seconds.
683. What does the amber REV on the EICAS indicate?: When thrust reverser is fully deployed. When thrust reverser is stowed. When thrust reverser is in transit. Thrust reverser system has fault.
684. What keeps the reverse thrust lever from moving beyond the reverse idle position when first pulled?: The speedbrake is NOT armed. The main landing gear is NOT on the ground. Forward thrust lever blocks the reverse thrust lever when in idle position. Solenoid-operated interlock blocks the reverse thrust lever until thrust reverse deploys. .
685. Which flap mode uses this indication?: Primary mode. Secondary mode. Alternate mode. Direct mode.
686. If the center hydraulic system is inoperative, which flap/slat mode is engaged?: Primary mode. Secondary mode. Alternate mode. Direct mode.
687. Select the correct statement about rudder pedals: Have no effect on nose wheel steering. Are best used for sharp turns. Are locked to center at high speeds. Control nose wheel steering and the rudder.
688. Which statement about the landing gear and the landing gear indications is true?: The landing gear have been up and locked for more than 10 seconds. The landing gear are in transit. The landing gear have been down and locked less than 10 seconds. The landing gear are down.
689. Which statement about alternate gear extension is true?: The landing gear cannot be retracted after alternate gear extension. Hydraulic pressure extends the gear. The landing gear fall to the extended position. The main gear doors retract after the main landing gear extend.
690. Which is the hottest brake?: Brake number 8. Brake number 3. Brake number 1. Brake number 6.
691. Which statement about engine out performance is correct?: You must first start a drift down descent before you can see the engine out performance data. An engine must be failed or shutdown to see the engine out performance data. Select the ENG OUT prompt on the VNAV page to start an immediate descent. Select ENG OUT on the VNAV page to see the engine out performance data.
692. Which statement about the FUEL TO REMAIN indication is true?: It is the minimum fuel for the maximum landing weight. It is automatically set when the jettison nozzle valve is open. It is the weight of the fuel that will be jettisoned. It can be manually set after the jettison system is armed.
693. Which statement about this approach is correct?: The airplane has captured the ILS course and is on glideslope. The airplane is on course and on glidepath for the NDB16R approach. The airplane is on course and on glidepath for the VOR34L approach. The airplane is on an intercept heading to the VOR34L approach.
694. Which statement about the glideslope is correct?: If G/S is selected OFF, the airplane will use a glidepath from the FMC for an IAN approach. G/S must be selected OFF to fly an ILS approach. G/S must be selected ON for all IAN approach. The G/S ON indication cannot change.
695. Which statement about this approach is correct?: An automatic landing CANNOT be made from this approach. An automatic landing can only be made if you are in visual conditions. QNH or QFE can be used for this approach. This approach provides no deviation alerts.
696. During cruise, which flight controls are used for roll control?: Ailerons. Flaperons and spoilers. Only flaperons. Only spoilers.
697. What are the flight control system modes?: Normal, secondary and direct. Primary, secondary and standby. Automatic, secondary and manual. Electronic, secondary and manual.
698. In which mode(s) is the autopilot available?: Normal Secondary Direct Normal and secondary.
699. What is the source of air to packs?: Four electrical cabin air compressors. Bleed air from the APU or ram air. Recirculated cabin air. Engine bleed air.
700. When do you use the alternate ventilation system?: When live animals are transported. When the flight deck door is closed. When all packs are inoperative. When galley and lavatory odors are strong.
701. Does the equipment cooling system automatically change to the override mode when smoke is detected?: Yes, the change is always automatic. No, override is only mechanically positioned on the ground. No, override is never automatic. Yes, after the air conditioning reset switch is pushed.
702. Which statement about cabin temperature control is true?: Cabin temperature can be controlled only from flight deck. The cabin crew can adjust only the doorway and galley temperatures. The cabin crew must adjust all zones at the same time. The cabin crew can adjust each zone +/- 6 degrees.
703. Which cargo compartment(s) can be used to carry live animals?: Forward and Bulk. Aft and Bulk. Forward only. All compartments.
704. Which statement about the synoptic indications is true?: The left pack is inoperative. The right pack is inoperative. The left trim air is normal. The right trim air is inoperative.
705. What will the air conditioning reset switch NOT do?: Reset a trim air valve. Reset fault protection. Reset the ventilation system. Reset a recirculation fan.
706. How is the temperature controlled for each cabin zone?: Electric heaters in-line with conditioned air ducts control the temperature for each cabin zone. Warm recirculated air is returned to the cabin to control the temperature. Trim air from the compressors mixes with conditioned air for each zone. Trim air from the bleed system mixes with conditioned air for each zone.
707. When does the descent phase start?: The top of descent. The bottom of cruise. The first altitude constraint below cruise altitude. When the pitch mode changes to VNAV PTH.
708. What effect does a stronger than entered headwind have on the descent path?: The pitch shallows, thrust is added, and the THRUST REQUIRED message can show. The path shallows, drag is added, and the DRAG REQUIRED message can show. The path steepens, thrust is added, and the THRUST REQUIRED message can show. Headwinds do not have an effect on the airplane’s descent.
709. When does the cruise phase start?: The top of climb. The top of descent. Acceleration height. Thrust Reduction point.
710. What does the phase of flight control?: Air plane pressurization. Vertical speed control. How VNAV operates. How LNAV operates.
711. Which condition(s) will cause the pitch limit indicator to show?: The airspeed is within 10 knots of VmoiMmo. The flaps are out of UP. The airspeed is more than 10 knots below the minimum airspeed for the flap setting.
712. Which description of the compass rose indications is correct?: Current. Current. Selected
heading. track. heading
208 200 230 200 208 230 200 230 208 208 230 200.
713. What does this advisory message tell you if the airplane is on the ground?: Incorrect airplane landing configuration is selected. Incorrect airplane takeoff configuration is selected. There is a malfunction in the landing configuration warning system. There is a malfunction in the takeoff configuration warning system.
714. What type of message is ENG SHUTDOWN L?: Memo messages Warning alert message Caution alert message Advisory alert message.
715. Which indication shows the value is more than the maximum continuous limit?: Left N1 Left RGT Right N1 Right EGT.
716. What does the color red tell you?: The checklist timer is complete. The fire warning switch pulled. The checklist must be reset. The engine fire warning has not stopped.
717. Which statement about the NORMAL and NON- NORMAL keys is true?: The NON-NORMAL key will show a list of normal checklists. The NON-NORMAL key will show the last checklist complete. The NORMAL key will show the next incomplete normal checklist. The NORMAL key will show the last normal checklist complete.
718. What does the icon next to the EICAS message tell you?: The non-normal condition has been remove. There is NOT a checklist for the message. There is a checklist for the message and the checklist is complete. There is an electronic checklist message and the checklist is NOT complete.
719. Which statement about this checklist is correct?: The deferred items can be completed on this checklist or on the APPROACH checklist. This checklist is not complete until the deferred items are complete. The deferred items cannot be completed on this checklist. The deferred items cannot be completed on the APPROACH checklist.
720. Which statement about these FMAs is correct?: Pitch is in control of airspeed. Thrust is in control of airspeed. FMC data is in control of the lateral path. FMC data is in control of the vertical path.
721. Which statement about the level of automation in use is true?: Manual control with flight director off and autopilot NOT engaged. Manual control with flight director on and autopilot NOT engaged. Automatic control with flight director on and autopilot engaged. Automatic control with flight director off and autopilot engaged.
722. Which statement about the level of automation in use is true?: Pilot is manually flying with flight director. Autopilot is engaged, MCP modes and targets control the airplane. Pilot is manually flying without flight director. Autopilot is engaged and FMC data controls the airplane.
723. What is the first task in the PAEV procedure?: Process Perform Preview Plan.
724. Which is statement correctly describes these deviation scales?: Lateral NPS and ILS glideslope Navigation performance scales ILS expanded localizer and vertical NPS ILS deviation scales.
725. Which is this part of a navigation performance scales?: Required Navigation Performance (RNP) Maneuvering area Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) Localizer scale.
726. Which statement correctly describes the “F5” indication?: You must be at flaps 5 maneuvering speed at this point. Select flaps 5 at this point. You must not select flaps 5 until this point. Flap extension to “5” should be complete at this point.
727. When will the VSD change from the track mode to route mode?: When the airplane is on a heading to intercept the flight plan route, and LNAV is armed. When the airplane is on the flight plan route, and TRK SEL is engaged. When LNAV is engaged, and deviation from the route is less than the RNP value. At all times when the LNAV or VNAV is engaged.
728. These indications show during preflight. What has occurred?: The left IRU is in the alignment mode. The left IRU has sensed excessive airplane motion. The left IRU has failed. All IRUs and AHRUs have completed the alignment.
729. What must you do to capture the guidance cue with the FPV?: Right blank and pitch up Right bank and pitch down Left bank and pitch up Left bank and pitch down.
730. You see these indications on the HUD during and approach. What is the airplane’s flight path?: In descent above glideslope In descent below glideslope In descent at 2.5 degrees glideslope In descent 2.5 degrees above glideslope.
731. The ALIGN HUD message shows on the combiner. What can you do to remove the message?: Move the combiner to the breakaway position. Change to the full symbology mode. Push the combiner in place.
732. The MCP altitude was captured in TO/GA pitch mode with flaps 20. What speed is set automatically?: 250 knots Flap limit speed -5 VREF+5 MAX ANGLE CLB speed.
733. What is the power source to the right main AC buses?: AFT external power Left engine starter generators APU starter generators FWD external power.
734. When will the APU starter generators automatically supply power to the main AC buses?: With only battery power, after external power is connected. With external power connected, after one engine is starter. With external power connected, after the APU is starter. With the engines running, after the APU is starter.
735. What is the power source to the right main AC buses?: APU starter generators Left engine starter generators External power Right engine starter generators.
736. What is the condition of the L1 MAIN bus?: Energized Decreased capacity De-energized Overheated.
737. Which system was the first one to be load shed?: HYD AIR WINDOW HEAT FUEL.
738. Which condition is indicated by the EICAS message?: The DC fuel pump has failed The APU battery is discharged A normal shutdown has occurred The APU has automatically shutdown.
739. You see TCP display. Which statement is true?: The center VHF radio is the selected radio. The left radio has stored frequencies. The right radio is inoperative. The center radio can not be tuned for voice communications.
740. Which statement is correct for active waypoint clearances?: Changes the first waypoint after the active waypoint. Must use a waypoint from your active route. Must not use a waypoint from your active route. Changes the active waypoint.
741. What controls how VNAV operates?: Payload Phase of flight Air traffic Control Weather.
742. What does the climb phase start?: Gear retraction Takeoff thrust set V2 speed Thrust reduction point.
743. What controls how VNAV operates?: Gross weight Waypoints Engine thrust Phase of flight.
744. What is the current phase of flight?: Climb Descent Cruise Takeoff.
745. Choose the correct waypoint constraint data from the CLB page: Target. Target. Distance Error. Altitude Error
Airspeed. Altitude. At Waypoint. At Waypoint
300 Knots. FL250. 2 Miles After. 350 Feet
ELMAA 300 Knots. FL180. 3 Miles After. 318 Feet
ELMAA 300 Knots. FL250. 2 Miles After. 350 Feet
before ELMAA 300 Knots. FL300. 1 Miles After. 217 Feet
before ELMAA.
746. Which pitch mode FMA will show when the airplane levels off at the MCP altitude?: SPD. LNAV. VNAV PTH THR REF LNAVV. NAV SPD SPD. LNAV VNAV ALT THR REF. LNAV VNAV.
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