CCNA 1 - 100
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Título del Test:![]() CCNA 1 - 100 Descripción: Test CCNA preguntas del 1 al 100 |




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Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two). YAML. JSON. EBDCDIC. SGML. XML. How does HSRP provide first hop redundany?. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. It forward multiple packets to the same destintation over different routed links n the data path. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factir authentication?. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?. outside global. outsdwde local. inside global. insride local. outside public. inside public. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two). The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. A console password must be configured on the switch. Telnet mus be disabled on the switch. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. Which outputh display a JSON data representation?. Option A. Option B. Option C. Option D. Which command prevents password from begin in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?. enable secret. service password-encryption. username Cisco password encrypt. enable password. What are two characteristics of a controller based network? (choose two). The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. It uses northboung and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. It moves the control plane to a central point. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions. It uses thelnet to report system issues. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (choose two). The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256. The router calculates the best backupt path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?. Configure the version of SSH. Configure VTY access. Create a user with a password. Assign a DNS domain name. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?. lldp timer. lldo holdtimt. lldp reinit. lldp tlv-select. Which option about JSON is true?. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text. used to describe structured data that includes arrays. used for storing information. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?. global unicast. unique local. link-local. multicast. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two). runts. giants. frame. CRC. input errors. Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?. Physical access control. Social engineering attack. brute force attack. user awareness. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. It drops the traffic. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two). OpenFlow. NETCONF. Thrift. CORBA. DSC. In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?. 10.10.10.0/28. 10.10.13.0/25. 10.10.13.144/28. 10.10.13.208/29. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?. ip address dhcp. ip helper-address. ip dhcp pool. ip dhcp client. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?. CDP. SNMP. SMTP. ARP. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?. 20. 90. 110. 115. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two). It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. It supports protocol discovery. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two). adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center. modular design that is upgradable as needed. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?. It enables BPDU messages. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded. It immediately enables the port in the listening state. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252. Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?. The interface is not participating in OSPF. A point-to-point network type is configured. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two). management interface settings. QoS settings. Ip address of one or more access points. SSID. Profile name. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two). reduced operational costs. reduced hardware footprint. faster changes with more reliable results. fewer network failures. increased network security. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two). when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again. when the cable length limits are exceeded. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex. when Carner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch. Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?. Exchange. 2-way. Full. Init. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?. sniffer. mesh. flexconnect. local. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two). Configure the ports in an EtherChannel. Administratively shut down the ports. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99. Configure the ports as trunk ports. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol. Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?. 192.168.16.0/21. 192.168.16.0/24. 192.168 26.0/26. 192.168.16.0/27. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two). 2000::/3. 2002::5. FC00::/7. FF02::1. FF02::2. Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?. adminadmin123. default. testing1234. cisco123. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?. 2000::/3. FC00::/7. FE80::/10. FF00::/8. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?. TKIP with RC4. RC4. AES-128. AES-256. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?. dual algorithm. metric. administrative distance. hop count. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?. 10.4.4.4. 10.4.4.5. 172.23.103.10. 172.23.104.4. Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?. It is a broadcast IP address. The router does not support/28 mask. It belongs to a private IP address range. It is a network IP address. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.). Global addresses start with 2000::/3. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface. Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPvô prefix and MAC address of an interface?. ipv6 address dhcp. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64. ipv6 address autoconfig. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72. Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?. show ip route. show ip interface. show interface. show cdp neighbor. Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1. A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?. cost. adminstrative distance. metric. as-path. When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two). Enable NTP authentication. Verify the time zone. Disable NTP broadcasts. Specify the IP address of the NTP server. Set the NTP server private key. What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode. Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?. trunk mode mismatches. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination. native VLAN mismatches. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet. Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lot interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two). ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?. Bronze. Platinum. Silver. Gold. Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane. Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?. 172.9.0.0/16. 172.28.0.0/16. 192.0.0.0/8. 209.165.201.0/24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?. floating static route. host route. default route. network route. Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration started to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two). Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1. The ACL must be moved to the Gio/1 interface outbound on R2. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.). It requires the use of ARP. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link. It routes over links rather than over networks. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?. CPU ACL. TACACS. Flex ACL. RADIUS. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two). The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?. autonomous. lightweight. bridge. mobility express. Which IPv6 address is valid?. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?. on. auto. active. desirable. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?. management. protected frame. control. action. Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?. 0. 110. 38443. 3184439. Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?. overlay. northbound. underlay. southbound. When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?. IKEv2. IKEv1. IPsec. MD5. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?. port-to-multipoint. broadcast. point-to-point. nonbroadcast. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?. platform-as-a-service. software-as-a-service. network-as-a-service. infrastructure-as-a-service. R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?. IS-IS. RIP. Internal EIGRP. OSPF. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?. The link is in a down state. The link is in an error disables state. The link is becomes an access port. The link becomes a trunk port. A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?. point-to-multipoint. point-to-point. broadcast. nonbroadcast. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1. The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. Whats the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table. If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?. A network device has restarted. An ARP inspection has failed. A routing instance has flapped. A debug operation is running. Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.). Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router. Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.). one-to-many communication model. one-to-nearest communication model. any-to-many communication model. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group. the same address for multiple devices in the group. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?. 0000.5E00.010a. 0005.3711.0975. 0000.0C07.AC99. 0007.C070/AB01. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1. When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two). ASCII. base64. binary. decimal. hexadecimal. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?. passive. mode on. auto. active. Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?. WEP. RC4. AES. TKIP. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? A network enginner must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP all other computers must be able to access the web server. Config t ip access-list extended wwwblock deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80 int vlan 10 ip address-group wwwblock in. Config t ip access-list extended wwwblock deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80 permit ip any any int vlan 20 ip address-group wwwblock in. Config t ip access-list extended wwwblock permit ip any any deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80 int vlan 30 ip address-group wwwblock in. Config t ip access-list extended wwwblock permit ip any any deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80 int vlan 20 ip address-group wwwblock in. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?. 10.10.1.10. 10.10.10.20. 172.16.15.10. 192.168.0.1. Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUS. Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected?. There is a native VLAN mismatch. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk. |