CCNA 200-301

what is the alternative notation for the IPV6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72. B514:82C3:0029::EC7A:0000:EC72. B514:82C3:0029:EC7A:EC72. B514:82C3::0029:EC7A:0:EC72. B514:82C3::0029:EC7A:EC72.

Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27. class D. class B. class A. class C.

Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies. Traceroute. SSH. Telnet. Ping.

Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer. Session, Transport, Application. Session, Presentation, Application. Presentation, Data link, Network. Session, Presentation, Network.

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?. Presentation. Application. Transport. Network.

What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point IPV6 connection?. /128. /32. /48. /127.

What is known as "one to nearest" addressing in IPV6?. Multicast. Global Unicast. Unspecified address. Anycast.

Which is a feature of IPV6. Podcast. Allcast. Anycast. Broadcast.

What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model's INTERNET layer?. Session. Data Link. Network. Application.

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPV6 address?. 4. 24. 16. 8.

Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?. Unicast. Broadcast. Multicast. Anycast.

What is a feature of the IPV6 protocol?. Checksums. No Broadcasts. Anycast. Optional IPsec.

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. Which would be the most effective step to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?. Reboot all of the devices. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. Ensure the switch has power. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.

Which command enables IPV6 forwarding on a Cisco router?. ipv6 host. ipv6 neighbor. ipv6 unicast-routing. ipv6 local.

On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?. A hub. A layer 2 switch. A router. A layer 3 switch.

Which statement about IPV6 prefixes is true. FE80::/8 is used for link local unicast. 2001::1/27 is used for loopback addresses. FEC0::/10 is used for IPV6 boradcast. FEC0::/8 is used for IPV6 multicast.

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. Which would be the most effective step to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?. Ensure the switch has power. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. Reboot all the devices.

-What 8 bit field exists in IP packet for QoS. DSCP. Tos Field. COS. IP presedence.

Which type of IPV6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?. Link local. Compatible. Global. Unique local.

Which feature can dinamically assign ipv6 addresses?. NHRP. DHCP. IPV6 stateless configuration. ISATAP tunneling.

Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?. Bootstrap. POST. ROMMON mode. Mini-IOS.

Which entity assigns IPV6 addresses to end users?. ISPs. ICANN. RIR. APNIC.

Which statement about access point are true?. They can protect a network from intenal and external threats. They must be hardwired to a modem. In most cases, they are physically connected to other network connectivity. They can provide access within enterprises and to the public.

What is the binary pattern of unique IPV6 unique local address?. 00000000. 11111101. 11111111. 11111100.

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.

Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0 one of the following addresses is valid host address.What is that address?. 172.0.0.0. 172.16.32.0. 172.16.16.0. 172.16.9.0.

How many hosts addresses are available on the network 192.168.1.0 subnet 255.255.255.240. 8. 16. 6. 14.

Which statement about unique local IPV6 addresses is true?. They are defined by RFC 1884. They can be routed on the IPV6 global internet. They use the prefix FEC0::/10. They are identical to IPV4 private addresses.

Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN roting?. Layer 2 bridge. Router. Layer 2 switch. Layer 3 switch.

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. Addresses in a private range will not be routed on the internet backbone. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Which statement about Ethernet standars is true?. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs.

What is one benefit of private IPV4 IP addresses?. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. They are routed to the internet the same as public IP addresses. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts. They are less costly than public IP addresses.

Which ipv6 address is the equivalent of the IPV4 inteface loopback address 127.0.0.1. 0::/10. ::. 2000::/3. ::1.

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?. OUI. NIC. VAI. BIA.

-If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?. 2. 5. 4. 6.

What does split horizon prevent?. Switching loops, VTP. Switching loops, STP. Routing loops, distance vector. Routing loops, link-sate.

Which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64.

Which header field is new on IPV6?. Flow label. Hop limit. Version. Traffic class.

What is one characteristic of the TCP protocol?. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP. The connection is established after data is transmitted. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.

Which ipv6 address is the all-router multicast group?. FF02::4. FF02::3. FF02::1. FF02::2.

Which option is the best reason to use an IPV4 private IP space?. To connect apllications. To conserve global address space. To manage routing overhead. To implement NAT.

What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.0/32. 172.16.1.0/25. 172.16.1.0/26. The default route. 172.16.1.0/24.

Which is one characteristic of an ipv6 anycast address?. One to many communication model. One to one communication model. Any to many communication model. One to nearest communication model.

Which command can you enter to verify that a 128 bit address is live and responding. telnet. ping. traceroute. show ipv6.

Which statement about IPV6 and routing protocols are true?. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPV6 routing. EIGRP, OSPF and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPV6. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPV6 routing.

Which IPV6 address is valid?. 2031::130F::9C0::876A:130B. 2001:0DB8:0:130H::87C:140B. 2001:0DB8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B.

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?. One. Twelve. Two. Six.

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?. 5. 3. 4. 2.

Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252. 31. 30. 32. 33.

Which statement about wireless LAN controllers is true?. They are the best suited to smaller wireless networks. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.

How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?. It broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router. It routes the packet to the default route. It broadcasts the packet to each network on the router. It discards the packet.

A network administrator is verifing the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?. Presentation. Application. Transport. Session.

What is a advantage of layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs?. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling betwen devices. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses. Decreasing the number of colision domains. Increasing the size of broadcast domains.

What is the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements?. 10.0.0.0. 10.0.0.1. 10.4.0.0. 10.4.3.0.

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?. DHCP. ESRP. FHRP. RSMLT.

In which circumstance are private IPV4 addresses appropriate. To allow hosts inside an enterprise to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the enterprise. On host that communicates only with other internal hosts. On internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources. On the public-facing interface of a firewall.

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?. ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64. ipv6 autoconfig.

Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?. Change one variable at a time. Create an action plan. Gather facts. Implement an action plan.

Which name describes an IPV6 host-enable tunneling technique that uses IPV4 UDP, does not requiere dedicated gateway tunnels, and can pass through existing IPV4 NAT gateways?. Teredo. Dynamic. Manual 6 to 4. Dual stack.

Which destination address will be used by Host A to send data to Host C?. The IP address of the router's E0 interface. The IP address of Host C. The MAC address of switch 1. The IP address of switch 1.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?. Data link layer. Session layer. Application layer. Network layer.

For which reason was RFC 1918 address space defining?. To preserve public IPV4 address space. To preserve private IPV6 address space. To support the NAT protocol. To reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses.

The network administrator has been asked to give reason for moving from ipv4 to ipv6. What is one valid reason for adopting ipv6 over ipv4. No broadcast. Chnage of source address in the ipv6 header. NAT. Change of destination adddress in the IPV6 header.

Which of the following services use UDP?. SNMP. HTTP. SMTP. Telnet.

What is a broadcast wireless technology?. DSL. WiMax. DSLAM. CMTS.

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarted. At which OSI layer did this happen?. Data link. Transport. Session. Network.

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?. Inside Global. Inside local. Outside global. Outside local.

Which tunneling mechanism embeds and IPV4 address within an IPV6 address?. Teredo. 6to4. 4to6. ISATAP.

Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of public IP addresses?. RFC 1918. NTP. RFC 1631. NAT.

Which IPV6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?. Hop Limit. TTD. Flow label. Hop Count.

Which of the following is a type of flow control?. Load Balancing. Cut-through. Store and Forward. Buffering.

Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?. 239.255.0.1. 127.0.0.1. 192.168.0.119. 172.20.1.0.

Based on the network shown in the graphic. Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?. Routing loops, hold down timers. Switching loops, split horizon. Switching loops, STP. Routing loops, STP.

What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?. Ping the remote network. Ping the default gateway. Ping the local interface address. Ping the loopback address.

While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?. show interface brief. show ip nat statics. show ip statics. show ip route.

What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPV6?. An ipv4 address must be configured. An ipv6 address must be configured on the interface. IPV6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enablig ipv6 on the interface.

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.). There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?. The MAC address of router interface e0. The MAC address of router interface e1. The MAC address of the server network interface. The MAC address fo host A.

If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage server, which destination MAC address does host Z use to transmit packets?. The MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to host Z. The host Z MAC address?. The MAC address of the storage server interface. The MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to the storage server.

What the following statements is a approach that is used when migrating from an IPV4 addressing scheme to an IPV6 scheme?. Configure IPV6 directly. Use DHCPv6 to map IPV4 addresses to IPV6 addresses. Statically map IPV4 addresses to IPV6 addresses. Enable dual-stack routing.

Refer to exhibit. You determine that computer a cannot ping Computer B. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?. The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect. The subnet mask for computer A is incorrect. The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect. The default gateway address for computer A is incorrect.

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?. By appending 0xFF to the MAC address. By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE.

At which layer if the OSI model does PPP perform?. Layer 4. Layer 5. Layer 2. Layer 3.

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the max number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252.

Which statement about EUI-64 addressing is true?. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address. A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address. A locally administered address has the universal/local bit set to 0. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address.

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?. 1600. 1500. 1518. 9216.

Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of 115.64.4.0/22 ?. 115.64.7.64. 115.64.8.32. 115.64.3.255. 115.64.12.128.

When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is recived form one network and destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace?. Layer 4 protocol. Layer 5 session. Layer 3 IP address. Layer 2 frame header and trailer.

Which of the following correctly describe a step in the OSI data encapsulation process?. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. The presentationlayer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and FCS to the segment. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?. More collision domains will be created. IP address utilization will be more efficient. An additional broadcast domain will be created. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?. 10.0.0.0/22. 10.0.0.0/23. 10.0.0.0/21. 10.0.0.0/24.

Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?. When the network must route UDP traffic. When traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal host. When traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts. When the network has few public IP addresses requiere outside access.

What is the major component of ciso network virtualization?. Network access control. VPN connectivity. Policy service. IP localization.

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of ipv6 addresses?. DNS. FTP. Autoconfiguration. DHCP.

Which statement describe one characteristic of ipv6 unicast addressing?. There is only one loopback address an it is ::. Link local addresses start with FE00:/12. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. Link local addresses start with FF00::/10.

When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min. When you have gathered all available information about an issue. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected. When you lack the proper resources to resolve the issue.

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which destination address will host 4 use to send data to host 1?. The MAC address of host 4. The IP address of host 1. The IP address of host 4. The MAC address of host 1.

A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?. VLSM capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router. The Ethernet interface is faulty. This address is a network address. This address is a broadcast address.

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?. 172.16.16.0. 172.16.24.0. 172.16.0.0. 172.16.28.0.

Which statement about IPV6 router advertisement messages is true (Choose two)?. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits. They are sourced from the configured ipv6 interface address. They use ICMPv6 type 134. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.

Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.). It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth. It is bandwidth-intensive. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.). reduces routing table entries. auto-negotiation of media rates. efficient utilization of MAC addresses. dedicated communications between devices. ease of management and troubleshooting.

Which three technical services support cloud computing?. network-monitored power sources. layer 3 network routing. ip localization. redundant connections. VPN connectivity. extended SAN services.

Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true?(choose two). The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed. It is used for an ISATAP tunnel. The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address. The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address. It is used for a 6to4 tunnel.

What are the three major components of Cisco network virtualization? (Choose three). network access control. path isolation. virtual network services. policy enforcement.

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?. A. enable secret. service password-encryption. username Cisco password encrypt. enable password.

In order to be managed by cisco Wireless LAN controllers, access point need to be configured in which mode?. Mobility express. Bridge. Autonomous. Lightweight.

Which of the following is an advantage of using Cisco Wireless LAN controllers?. Impossibility of using the same authentication method across unique SSIDs. Eliminating the need to configure multiple access points one by one. Supporting lightweight and autonomous APs. High complexity of the configurations required by central AP management.

What distingiushes Cisco DNA center device management form traditional campus device management and in terms of deployment. Traditional campus device management costs are usually higher than Cisco DNA Center device management. Traditional campus device management operations(patches and updates..) are quicker than those of cisco DNA Center device management. Network deployment in Cisco DNA center device management is quicker than traditional campus device management. Traditional campus device management offers greater network scalability than with cisco DNA center device management.

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two). reduced operational costs. reduced hardware footprint. faster changes with more reliable results. fewer network failures. increased network security.

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two). The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet.

What are two principles of virtualization? Choose two. A single shared physical server can host multiple operating systems and applications, and run them independently. NICs from each virtual machine can be directly connected to the network by a physical router. A hypervisor is a mandatory component of virtualized achitectures. It serves exclusively as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic. Logical network devices can move data between virtual machines and the physical network. It requires that some virtual machines, servers, and network components are hosted on the internet.

When a router running EIGRP learns the same route from two different paths, based on which parameter does it select the best path?. Cost. Administrative distance. as-path. Metric. Number of hops.

What is difference between FlexConnect and local AP modes?. FlexConnect AP mode does not work if the AP loses connection to the WLC. Local AP mode causes the AP to operate as if were an autonomous AP. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AF to the WLC. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.

Which of the following is true about three-tier network topologies?(Choose two). Both layer 2 an Layer 3 technologies coexit in the distribution layer. The access layer is responsible of the routing between devices in different domains. The core layer manages wired connections between hosts. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions. The network core is designed to ensure service continuity in case some network components fail.

Which of the following is true about three-tier network topologies?(Choose two ). Both layer 2 and layer 3 technologies coexist in the distribution layer. The access layer is responsible of the routing between devices in different domains. The core layer manages wired connections between hosts. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions. The network core is designed to ensure service continuity in case some network components fail.

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.). A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.

How does EIGRP,by default, calculate the metric of a route when adding it to the routing table?. It uses the bandwith and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric. It sets a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router. It uses a reference bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric. It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that values as the metric.

What is the result of enabling PortFast on an inteface that is connected to another switch?. VLAN configuration information is propagated automatically from one switch to another via VTP. All PortFast ports that receive BPDUs are shut down after spanning tree convergence. When a switch link goes down, spanning tree recalculation and root port choice run faster. A broadcast storm can occur because the spanning tree protocol may fail to detect a switching loop in the network.

A company charges its network technician to backup its 30 network router configurations globally. Using the Cisco IOS MIB, What is the protocol that allows the technician to do the job?. SNMP. SMTP. CDP. ARP. STP.

Which of the following MAC addresses is as a VRRP virtual address?. 00-00-5E-00-01-0A. 00-05-00-11-00-75. 00-00-0C-07-AC-11. 00-08-E5-70-AB-01.

When configuring IPV6 on an interface, which two IPV6 multicast groups are joined?(Choose two). ff02::1. ff02:1:1. ff02::2. ff02:1:2. 2002::5.

Which two pieces of information can be seen in the output of the show ntp status command?(Choose two). The configured NTP servers. The peer's NTP version number. The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized. Wheter or not the clock is synchronized. Wheter or not the NTP peer is statically configured.

Which of the following is true regarding spine and leaf achitecture?. Higher bandwidth can be obtained for each link between leaf switches. It facilitates STP troubleshooting because STP bloched ports can be predicted easily. By design, traveling information has variable latency between endpoint devices. Each device in the topology is separated by the same number of hops.

Which stetement correctly describes how TCP and UDP provide reliability for packets delivery?. TCP is a best effort protocol; It does no guarantee delivery or error checking to make sure that data is not corrupted. UDP uses message acknowledgement mecanism and retransmits the lost packets. TCP uses flow control to avoid inundating a receiver by sending too many packets at once. UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably. UDP establishes a three-way handshake in order to provide reliable message transfer between hosts. TCP is a connection less protocol that does not provide reliable data delievery. UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right. provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up. does not require user authentication. uses port 69. uses port 20 and 21. uses TCP. uses UDP.

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?. default route. network route. host route. floating static route.

Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?. 10.10.13.0/25. 10.10.13.208/29. 10.10.13.144/28. . 10.10.10.0/28.

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.). input errors. frame. giants. CRC. runts.

---. 172.28.228.144/18. 172.28.228.144/21. 172.28.228.144/23. 172.28.228.144/25. 172.28.228.144/29.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.

Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?. management. protected frame. action. control.

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?. ipv6 address dhcp. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64. ipv6 address autoconfig. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local.

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.). 2000::/3. 2002::5. FC00::/7. FF02::1. FF02::2.

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left into the correct values on the right. Select and Place: default gateway. host ip address. NIC MAC address. NIC vendor OUI. subnet mask.

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252.

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?. 172.9.0.0/16. 172.28.0.0/16. 192.0.0.0/8. 209.165.201.0/24.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?. It belongs to a private IP address range. The router does not support /28 mask. It is a network IP address. It is a broadcast IP address.

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?. link-local. unique local. multicast. global unicast.

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?. 2000::/3. FC00::/7. FE80::/10. FF00::/8.

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.). when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted. when the cable length limits are exceeded.

Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts.

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?. explicitly assign a link-local address. disable the EUI-64 bit process. enable SLAAC on an interface. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network.

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.). 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.). A BNC connector is used for fiber connections. The glass core component is encased in a cladding. The data can pass through the cladding. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections.

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC.

Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?. 2000::/3. FC00::/7. FE80::/10. FF00::/12.

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?. multicast. unique local. link-local. global unicast.

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification.

A corporate office uses four floors in a building. Floor 1 has 24 users. Floor 2 has 29 users. Floor 3 has 28 users. Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224.

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. It provides variable latency. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224.

--. sends transmission in sequence. transmissions include and 8 byte header. transmits packets as a stream. transmits packets individually. uses a higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive applications. uses a lower transmission rate to ensure realibility.

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?. runt. collision. late collision. CRC.

Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?. The source MAC address is changed. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?. 5, 6, 7. 1, 2, 3. 1, 6, 11. 1, 5, 10.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?. enable Band Select. enable DTIM. enable RX-SOP. enable AAA override.

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right. Select and Place: DHCP. FTP. SMTP. SSH. SNMP. TFTP.

What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff.

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2. to allow communication with devices on a different network. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first. to allow communication between different devices on the same network. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right. Select and Place: SMTP. SNMP. TFTP. VoIP. SSH. FTP.

Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?. start of frame delimiter. Type field. preamble. Data field.

You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?. ip default-gateway. ip route. ip default-network. ip address dhcp. ip address dynamic.

Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.). Defines the network functions that occur at each layer. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach.

Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.). To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.

Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?. NAT. 6 to 4 tunneling. L2TPv3. dual-stack.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?. This design will function as intended. Spanning-tree will need to be used. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. The connection between switches should be a trunk. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.). It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. It uses the default administrative distance. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.). They are routed the same as public IP addresses. They are less costly than public IP addresses. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.). UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data.

Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.). Comply with PCI regulations. Conserve IPv4 address. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers. Reduce the risk of a network security breach. Comply with local law.

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?. broadband cable access. frame-relay packet switching. dedicated point-to-point leased line. Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.). asychronous routing. single-homed branches. dual-homed branches. static routing. dynamic routing.

Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.). to enable intra-enterprise communication. to implement NAT. to connect applications. to conserve global address space. to manage routing overhead.

Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2.

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode.

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.). handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests.

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?. enforcing routing policies. marking interesting traffic for data policies. applying security policies. attaching users to the edge of the network.

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain. to pass traffic between different networks.

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.). Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. Inspect packets for malicious activity. Ensure timely data transfer between layers. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?. different nonoverlapping channels. one overlapping channel. one nonoverlapping channel. different overlapping channels.

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?. infrastructure-as-a-service. platform-as-a-service. business process as service to support different types of service. software-as-a-service.

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.). acts as a central point for association and authentication servers. selects the best route between networks on a WAN. moves packets within a VLAN. moves packets between different VLANs. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet.

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right. Select and Place: DNS. HTTP. RTP. SMTP. SNMP. Telnet.

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?. Client Band Select. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients. OEAP Spilt Tunnel. 11ac MU-MIMO.

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?. processing inbound SSH management traffic. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets. facilitates spanning-tree elections. forwarding remote client/server traffic.

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?. Interface errors are incrementing. High usage is causing high latency. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type.

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B.

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?. Layer 2 switch. LAN controller. load balancer. firewall.

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network. connect wireless devices to a wired network. support secure user logins to devices on the network.

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?. router. hypervisor. switch. straight cable.

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?. It allows the administrator to assign the channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. It segregates devices from different manufactures onto different channels. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points.

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

---. sinlge devices handles the core and the distribution layer. enhances network availability. more cost-effective than other options. most appropriate for small network designs. separate devices handle the core and the distribution layer.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?. It immediately enables the port in the listening state. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded. It enables BPDU messages. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?. Platinum. Bronze. Gold. Silver.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 - SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 - SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D - SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 -. SW1. SW2. SW3. SW4.

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented?. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description. switch#lldp port-description. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description. switch(config)#lldp port-description.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?. S1. S2. S3. S4.

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?. . Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38418607. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440.

Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. There is a native VLAN mismatch.

DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Select and Place: access point. virtual interface. dynamic interface. service port. wireless LAN controller.

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?. local. mesh. flexconnect. sniffer.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?. show ip route. show cdp neighbor. ahow ip interface. show interface.

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?. active. on. auto. desirable.

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?. bridge. lightweight. mobility express. autonomous.

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.). QoS settings. IP address of one or more access points. SSID. profile name. management interface settings.

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?. lldp timer. lldp tlv-select. lldp reinit. lldp holdtime.

Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its trunk ports. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.