Cessna Grand Caravan EX - PTM y otras.

The lead-acid battery case is vented to prevent: A. Concentrated accumulation of hydrogen gas in the airframe. B. Pressure differencial in the battery. C. Contamination from ambient air. D. Overcharging of the battery.

The battery is: A. In the tail cone. B. Under the right front seat. C. On a swing out tray in front of the firewall. D. On the floor behind the pilot seat.

The generator control unit (GCU) controls operation of the: A. Generator only. B. Starter only. C. Starter-generator. D. Standby electrical system.

The ground power monitor: A. Protects the electrical system. B. Controls the external generator. C. Senses operation of the starter generator. D. Regulates generator output.

The voltmeter and its associated selector button are used to read: A. Generator current. B. Alternator current. C. Battery current. D. All of the above.

Positioning the AVIONICS BUS TIE switch to ON: A. Ties the avionics bus to the battery. B. Ties the No. 1 avionics bus to the generator. C. Ties the No.1 avionics bus to the No.2 avionics bus. D. Disconnects the avionics buses from each other.

When the EXTERNAL POWER switch is positioned to BUS: A. External power is applied to the starter. B. External power is applied to the avionics bus. C. External power is applied to the main bus. D. Power is sent from the main bus to the external power receptacle.

The standby electrical system: A. Is powered by the battery. B. Is powered by the engine-driven generator. C. Is powered by a belt-driven alternator. D. Is actuated by the ground power monitor.

Use landing lights during: A. Landing and takeoff. B. Landing only. C. Taxiing. D. Cruising.

The taxi/recognition lights are: A. On the nose gear. B. On the wingtips. C. In the wing leading edges. D. In the front of the engine cowl.

The strobe lights are required: A. In instrument conditions. B. During night operations. C. Whenever the engine is operating. D. Only when taxiing.

The courtesy lights are controlled by: A. Exterior lighting switch. B. Cabin light switch. C. Landing light switch. D. Battery switch.

The flashing beacon is used for: A. Anticollision protection. B. Recognition during ground operations. C. Operation in instrument conditions. D. Both A and B.

A WARNING ALERT accompanied by a continuous chime indicates a condition that: A. Is advisory in nature. B. Is normal during takeoff and landing. C. Requires immediate attention. D. The warning system is in error.

Pressing the ALERTS softkey for the crew alert system displays the: A. ALERTS window. B. Status of scheduled maintenance. C. Next waypoint in the flight plan. D. Hazardous weather detected within 100 NM of the aircraft position.

Fuel flows from the wing tanks to the reservoir tank by: A. Fuel boost pump pressure. B. Ejector pump pressure. C. Gravity. D. Fuel control unit pressure.

Fuel is pumped from the reservoir tank primarily by the: A. Main ejector pump. B. Boost pump. C. Engine-driven fuel pump. D. Fuel control unit.

If the fuel filter becomes blocked: A. Fuel starvation occurs and the engine stops. B. A CAS message appears. C. The red fuel filter bypass flag appears. D. The fuel filter bypass horn sounds.

Fuel rejected during engine shutdown: A. Drains onto the ground from the manifold. B. Drains into a fireproof fuel can on the firewall. C. Drains into the reservoir tank. D. Is pumped into the left wing tank.

The two FUEL TANK SELECTOR knobs on the overhead panel: A. Are both normally ON in flight. B. Are both normally OFF during refueling. C. Are OFF during ground operations. D. Both A and B.

The fuel-selector-off warning system sounds when: A. Both left and right fuel tanks shutoff valves are closed. B. Either the left or right fuel tanks shutoff valves are closed during an engine start operation. C. One fuel slector is at OFF and fuel remaining in the tank being used is less than 25 gallons. D. All of the above.

The auxiliary fuel boost pump switch: A. Is positioned to NORM during all normal engine operations. B. Is positioned to OFF except in emergency fuel situations. C. Is positioned to ON at all times to prevent fuel starvation. D. Is positioned to OFF during all normal engine operations.

The PT6A-140 engine is defined as a: A. Fixed-shaft, constant-speed engine. B. Free-turbine, turboprop engine. C. Single-spool, variable-speed engine. D. None of the above.

The torque indication indicates the power: A. Developed by the gas generator. B. Delivered by the propeller. C. Of the combined gas generator and power turbine. D. Delivered to the propeller.

The power turbine is on a shaft that: A. Drives the gas generator. B. Drives the accesory section. C. Drives the reduction gear. D. Both A. and B. above.

Air induced into the engine: A. Enters at the rear and is exhausted at the front. B. Enters at the front and is exhausted at the rear. C. Passes from the power turbine to the compressor wheels. D. Must be cooled by the compressor section.

During operations using the emergency power lever: A. Extreme caution should be used when advancing the EMERG PWR LVR. B. The EMERG PWR LVR CAS message appears when the lever is not stowed in the NORMAL position and engine not running. C. Only partial engine power is available. D. Engine response may be slower than when using the power lever.

With the propeller control lever positioned to MAX: A. The propeller speed is governed at 1.900 rpm. B. The engine delivers maximum torque. C. The propeller governor is bypassed. D. The gas generator rpm is at maximum.

Engine oil level should be: A. Maintained full at all times. B. Checked only before the first flight of the day. C. Lower for cold weather operations. D. Maintained to within 1 to 1.5 quarts of MAX HOT or MAX COLD as appropriate.

The IGNITION switch should be positioned to ON: A. For airstarts without starter assist. B. For operation on water-covered runways. C. During flight in heavy precipitation. D. All of the above.

The inertial separator should be positioned to the bypass position: A. To increase engine rpm. B. When flying through visible moisture at low temperatures. C. For all takeoffs. D. During all operations above 5.000 feet.

Loss of any pneumatic signal to the fuel control unit causes: A. The engine to shut down. B. The engine to drop to idle rpm. C. The engine rpm to increase rapidly. D. A complete stoppage of fuel flow.

When the STARTER switch is positioned to START: A. The IGNITION switch must be positioned to ON. B. The ignition system is energized. C. The starter-generator functions as a generator. D. The ignition system is deenergized.

During the overspeed governor test, the propeller rpm should not exceed: A. 1.900 +/- 60 rpm. B. 1.250 +/- 60 rpm. C. 1.765 +/- 35 rpm. D. 2.000 +/- 60 rpm.

The fire-detection test function assures: A. Firewall is intact. B. Fire detection loop has proper integrity. C. Nonfire exists in the engine compartment. D. Fire detection system cannot gice false warnings.

The fire-detection system warns of excessive temperature in the engine compartment. A. True. B. False.

The temperature at which the fire warning initiates is: A. 218°C - 329°C. B. 100°C - 200°C. C. 510°F - 900°F. D. 220°F - 330°F.

The CABIN HEAT FIREWALL SHUTOFF knob: A. Activates an engine fire extinguisher. B. Secures the firewall if an engine fire occurs. C. Turns off the bleed-air heat if the passengers are too hot. D. Deactivates the engine fire extinguisher.

According to the "Engine Fire in Flight" checklist, a red ENGINE FIRE CAS annunciation and warning chime: A. Requires activation of the FIRE DETECT switch. B. Requires declaration of an emergency. C. Requires considering the five memory ítems associated with the "Engine Fire in Flight" checklist. D. Requires activation of the fire extinguisher.

The in-flight ice protection equipment provides: A. Unlimited ability to opérate in icing conditions. B. Ice protection through use of bleed air. C. Adequate ice protection during normal icing conditions. D. The ability to de-ice the aircraft on the ramp.

The anti-ice fluid tank has a capacity of: A. 15 gallons. B. 20.8 gallons. C. 11.7 gallons. D. 9.3 gallons.

The standby electrical power system is required to be installed and functional for: A. IMC conditions. B. Night operations. C. Commercial operations. D. Icing conditions.

The minumum de-ice fluid level for dis-patch into forecast icing conditions is: A. 20 gallons. B. 15 gallons. C 11.7 gallons. D. 9.3 gallons.

When operating with the anti-ice fluid control switch in NORMAL, a Green readout on the MFD indicates that at least: A. 20 min of fluid remain. B. 15 min of fluid remain. C. 10 min of fluid remain. D. 5 min of fluid remain.

When the anti-ice fluid control switch operates in MAX FLOW AIRFRAME, a red readout on the MFD indicates: A. 10 min or less of fluid remain. B. 5 min or less of fluid remain. C. 2.5 min or less of fluid remain. D. 1 min or less of fluid remain.

The máximum endurance level with a fully serviced anti-ice fluid tank in NORMAL is: A. 5 hs. B. 3 hs 25 min. C. 2 hs. D. 1 hs 30 min.

The máximum endurance level with a fully serviced anti-ice fluid tank in MAX FLOW AIRFRAME is: A. 1 hs. B. 40 min. C. 30 min. D. 15 min.

The ice detector light is used: A. Momentarily to detect ice accumulations at night. B. At all times during flight in icing conditions. C. Only When visible moisture is present. D. Also as a courtesy light on the ground.

The mínimum Ng When operating the air conditioning on the ground is: A. 70%. B. 65%. C. 56%. D. 55%.

What must be accomplished When operating the air conditioning on the ground if ITT threatens to exceed 700°C: A. Advance the condition lever. B. Open outside air vents. C. Position AC FANS to HIGH. D. Position the BLEED AIR HEAT switch to ON.

Operation of the air conditioner can cause compass deviation of more tan: A. 10°. B. 15°. C. 18°. D. 20°.

The air conditioning system is: A. Powered bu the propeller reduction system. B. Electrically operated. C. Belt operated by the engine accesory section. D. Extracts energy from exhaust gases at its power source.

If the nose gear is turned past the máximum placarded travel limit: A. The frangible stop will be sheared off. B. The entire nose gear must be replaced. C. No damage has been done. D. The aircraft must not be moved.

The rudder pedals can be used to steer the nose gear approximately: A. 50° either side of center. B. 26° either side of center. C. 15° either side of center. D. 10° either side of center.

The parking brake is applied by: A. Pumping the parking brake handle until the brakes are set. B. Setting the brakes with the rudder pedals and pulling the parking brake handle aft. C. Pressing the toe brakes and pulling the parking brake handle aft. D. None of the above.

The wing spoilers: A. Are used as speed reduction devices. B. Improve lateral control of the aircraft at low speeds. C. Increase the effectiveness of the flaps. D. Balance control forces in the aileron system.

The rudder lock: A. Must be pulled out during engine start. B. Must be pushed in to lock the rudder. C. Must be released before towing the aircraft. D. Is on the center pedestal.

The rudder trim system: A. Operates a trim tab on the rudder. B. Is operated electrically. C. Moves only the rudder. D. Is controlled by a knob on the instrument panel.

The standby flap system is operated: A. Until the flaps reach their stops. B. Until the flap position indicator reaches the desired setting. C. By using the crank on the overhead panel. D. Hydraulically.

The two GDC 72 air data computers supply information to which instruments?. A. Standby airspeed indicator, standby altimeter, and standby attitude indicator. B. PFD attitude indicator and horizontal direction indicator. C. PFD airspeed indicators, altimeters, and vertical speed indicators. D. MFD XM weather information system.

The BARO MIN setting on the PFD is: A. The height above ground level for the minumims of an approach. B. The desired altitud which the aircraft levels When climbing to a selected altitude. C. The desired altitude at which the aircraft descends When reaching the minimums of an approach. D. The decision height altitude or mínimum descent altitude on an approach.

If the pilot PFD fails, the MFD: A. Automatically goes into reversionary mode whether or not the reversionary button on the audio panel is pressed. B. Automatically go into reversionary mode on the pilot PFD but not the copilot PFD. C. Either reversionary button on the pilot or copilot audio panel must be pressed. D. Are blank and the pilot must declare an emergency and land the aircraft inmediately.

When the pilot chooses a lateral or vertical mode on the controller, the AFCS status box indicates: A. Green for standby and white for active. B. Magenta for standby and white for active. C. White for standby and Green for active. D. Both white for standby and for active.

The CWS button on the control yoke: A. Momentarily disengages the autopilot, but leave the servos engaged. B. Momentarily disengages the roll and pitch servos, but not the autopilot. C. Disengages the yaw damper. D. Discontinues the pitch mode of the autopilot.

The PLAY key on the audio panel allows: A. Playback of the previously recorded 2.5-minute block of a received audio transmission. B. Playback of the last audio transmission on the No. 2 NAV. C. Receipt of the last PA request from the passengers. D. Playback of the XM radio song that is being uploaded.

While operating the GWX weather radar system on the ground, ensure that: A. The gain is calibrated properly. B. The radar system has been tested. C. The No. 2 COM is set to the ATIS. D. No one is within 10 feet of the radar antenna if the weather is activated while on the ground.

The oxygen system controls are: A. In the overhead console. B. On the instrumen panel. C. On the center console. D. On the left sidewall switch and CB panel.

Total de combustible utilizable sin tener en cuenta el reservorio: A. 335.3 galones. B. 332.0 galones. C. 335.6 galones. D. 339.1 galones.

Capacidad total de aceite: A. 14 Qt US Gal. B. 15 Qt US Gal. C. 9.5 Qt US Gal. D. Ninguna es correcta.

Cual es el mínimo voltaje de batería requerido para una puesta en marcha con GPU?. A. 24 volts. B. 28.5 volts. C. 20 volts. D. No hay limitación.

De cuantas barras consta el sistema eléctrico?. A. 6 barras. B. 1 barra. C. 3 barras. D. 4 barras.

A que porcentaje de Ng se deberían estabilizar las presiones entre P3 y P2.5, generando el cierre automático de la bleed valve?. A. 65%. B. 92%. C. 76%. D. 46%.

Cuántas bombas tiene el sistema anti-hielo?. A. 1 bomba. B. 2 bombas. C. 3 bombas. D. 4 bombas.

Sabiendo que un ciclo completo del sistema anti-hielo en la posición PRIMARY NORM es de 2 minutos. Como se distribuye ese tiempo?. A. 30s ON / 90s OFF. B. 60s ON / 60s OFF. C. 20s ON / 100s OFF. D. 40s ON / 80s OFF.

Cual de las siguientes afirmaciones sobre el sistema eléctrico es correcta?. A. Bat: 20 volts / 30 amp. Gen: 27.5 volts / 300 amp. Stby Alt: 28.5 volts / 75 amp. B. Bat: 24 volts / 45 amp. Gen: 28.5 volts / 300 amp. Stby Alt: 27.5 volts / 75 amp. C. Bat 24 volts / 45 amp. Gen: 28.5 volts / 200 amp. Stby Alt: 27.5 volts / 75 amp. D. Bat 20 volts / 40 amp. Gen: 27.5 volts / 300 amp. Stby Alt: 26.5 volts / 70 amp.

¿Cuántas luces de navegación tiene el C208?. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3.

¿Sobre qué porcentaje de Ng se desengancha automáticamente el arrancador?. A. 48%. B. 52%. C. 46%.

The GCU controls the starter-generator and serves what functions?. A. Overspeed protection. B. Speed sensor. C. Starter cut out. D. Voltage regulation and protection from high voltaje + reverse current. E. All of the above.

When Will the generator be disconnected from the buses?. A. In the event of a high voltage situation only. B. In the event of a high voltage or reverse current situation. C. In the event of a reverse current situation only.

How is the starter-generator cooled?. A. By an integral fan. B. Blast tuve above the oil cooler, in the air inlet on the right forward cowling. C. Fuel heat exchanger. D. A and B. E. A, B and C.

What is the purpose of the Ground Power Monitor?. A. Senses the voltage level applied to the external power receptacle. B. Senses the airplane bus voltage and illuminates the "voltage low" enunciator (below 24.5 volts system voltage). C. A and B.

When the battery voltage is below 20 volts (before start), Will the battery contactor be connected to the distribution bus, internal start contactor, generator contactor?. A. Yes. B. No.

¿Cuál es la máxima indicación de flujómetro durante la puesta en marcha?. A. 100 Lbs/hr. B. 140 Lbs/hr. C. No posee limitación. D. Ninguna de las anteriores.

According to the POH, at how many %Ng must the starter switch be placed in the "OFF" position during the start cycle?. A. 42%. B. 46%. C. 48%. D. 50%. E. 55%.

Is it recommended to charge the battery with external power (by switching on the battery switch and switching the external power switch to "BUS")?. A. Yes. B. No.

Below what voltage Will the standby electrical system supply power to the system?. A. 24 volts. B. 24.5 volts. C. 27.5 volts.

If a CB pops, after how many minutes Will you reset that CB?. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3.

If the standby power goes ON during flight (generator goes offline). What Will your initial actions be to maintain comms/avionics (after tripping and resetting the generator)?. A. Switch ON "avionics bus tie". B. Switch ON "avionics standby power". C. Switch ON "avionics standby power" and "avionics bus tie".

How do you check the standby electrical system?. A. "Trip" the generator. B. Selector knob "ALT", observe a 1 volt drop between "GEN" and "ALT". C. A and B.

When is not recommended to use the strobe light?. A. On the ground. B. In fog. C. In haze. D. In precipitation. E. All of the above.

Below what oil pressure will the "oil pressure low" annunciator come on?. A. 40 psi. B. 38 psi. C. 40 +/- 2 psi. D. 35 psi.

Whe the "voltage low" annunciator comes on, electrical system bus voltage has dropped below how many volts?. A. 27.5 volts. B. 24.5 volts. C. 25 volts. D. 24 volts.

If the chip detector light comes on, what does it mean?. A. Metal chips have been detected in either the reduction gearbox or accessory gearbox. B. Metal chips have been detected in the reduction gearbox. C. Metal chips have been detected in the accessory gearbox.

How many fuel nozzle assemblies dos the C208 have?. A. 14. B. 7. C. 2.

If the ejector boost pump fails, Will the auxiliary boost pump come on automatically, if fuel boost pump is in the "normal" position?. A. No. B. Yes.

If the fuel filter bypass flag pops out (fuel filter blocked). Will the fuel still be filtered?. A. Yes. B. No.

What is the purpose of the FCU?. A. To meter the fuel. B. Directs fuel to Flow divider. C. To pump fuel. D. A, B and C. E. A and B only.

What is the máximum OAT (ground ops) limit for the C208 from 5000ft and above?. A. There is no limit. B. ISA + 27°C. C. ISA + 37°C. D. ISA + 47°C. E. ISA + 52°C.

What can be the consequences if the power lever is retarded below IDLE into Beta during flight?. A. Engine might overspeed. B. Loss of airplane control. C. A and B.

Is the 20kts maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity in the POH a limitation on the C208?. A. Yes. B. No.

Can you as pilot reset the fuel filter bypass flag (after the flag has popped out)?. A. No. B. Yes.

What is Vy on a C208 (SL to 10.000ft)?. A. 115-120Kias. B. 104Kias. C. 92Kias. D. 72Kias.

What is Vx on a C208? (SL to 20.000ft). A. 115 - 120Kias. B. 104Kias. C. 92Kias. D. 72Kias.

The ITT sensing system is situated where?. A. Just before the turbine section. B. Just before the compressor section. C. Behind the turbine section. D. Near the exhaust. E. Between the power turbine and compressor turbine.

Which engine instruments are not electrically operated? (Please choose 2). A. Prop RPM. B. ITT indicator. C. Ng% indicator. D. Oil pressure. E. Fuel Flow.

Does the compressor air inlet filter air?. A. Yes. B. No.

If the power lever is moved aft of the IDLE position without engine running and the props feathered. Can any damage be done?. A. Yes. B. No.

How many igniters does a PT6A engine have?. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5.

If the engine oil pressure drops suddenly (engine fails) and you don't feather the props, Will the props feather themselves?. A. Yes. B. No.