closed

Once a "KNOCK-IT-OFF" is called, all participating aircraft will. A. Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion. B. Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario. C. Deconflict flight paths. D. All of the above.

RPA crew will notify the controlling agency of lost link condition. Controlling agency will notify all players of RPA "LOST LINK". A. True. B. False.

For initial takeoff, the following equipment is required : A. Two separate cameras (1 nose camera, minimum). B. Operational INS/GPS units (3 prior to T/O, 2 once airborne). C. One IR video source for planned night operations. D. An operable radio or alternate means of communication (mIRC chat, land line, sat phone, etc.) suitable for mission accomplishment. E. All of the above.

All inertial navigation system (INS)/global positioning system (GPS) navigational systems must be operational at takeoff. (T-3). If an INS/GPS unit fails once airborne, the PIC may decide to continue the mission, provided a minimum of two INS/GPS units are fully functional and the loss of one INS/GPS unit does not adversely affect mission accomplishment. A. True. B. False.

For missions that will include a portion of the flight during periods of night, aircraft will have at least one approved infrared (IR) video camera. A. True. B. False.

The aircrew will perform operations checks at least once per . These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters, and emergency mission status at a minimum. A. 30 minutes. B. hour. C. 2 hours. D. 45 minutes.

Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews. A. incoming PIC. B. outgoing PIC. C. both A and B. D. None of the above.

Normal recovery fuel the quantity of fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate will be established locally or pounds, whichever is higher. A. 300. B. 350. C. 400. D. 450.

Pilots will declare minimum fuel as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with pounds of fuel or less. A. 250. B. 300. C. 350. D. 500.

Declare emergency fuel as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter or start at instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with pounds of fuel or less. A. 200. B. 250. C. 300. D. 350.

Aircrew will not takeoff if turbulence is reported or forecast along the planned route of flight for clear air turbulence type III aircraft (as defined in Air Force Handbook (AFH) 11-203 Volume 2, Weather for Aircrews Products and Services). A. light. B. severe. C. moderate. D. None of the above.

Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight. A. True. B. False.

When carrying releasable ordnance, remain two switch positions away from release at all times prior to intentionally releasing live or inert ordnance. The two deselected switches will be the master arm switch and the trigger. A. True. B. False.

bort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur: A. bird strike. B. over-G. C. flight control system anomalies. D. engine failure. E. All of the above.

During live and/or actual weapons employment or laser operations, a sensor operator must operate the laser. A. True. B. False.

Aircrew must complete sufficient flight planning to ensure safe mission accomplishment. Units will ensure areas covered will include, at a minimum: A. Emergency mission setup. B. Mission objectives. C. Weather. D. All of the above.

During critical phases of flight (e.g. taxi, takeoff, approach and landing, and terminal attack sequence) a SO must be in the right seat. During non-critical phases of flight above 2,000 feet AGL, the right seat may be unoccupied. A. True. B. False.

The sensor operator will notify the pilot immediately upon seeing a potential air traffic conflict, airspace deviation, or potential terrain or obstruction clearance conflict. In addition, the SO should notify the pilot upon noticing a deviation. A. True. B. False.

Zoom lock prevents an inadvertent change in the selected FOV when. A. arming the LRD, LTM, or LRD/LTM with auto-track engaged. B. firing the LRD, LTM, or LRD/LTM with auto-track engaged. C. arming the LRD, LTM, or LRD/LTM with auto-track not engaged. D. firing the LRD, LTM, or LRD/LTM with auto-track not engaged.

The laser mask zone begins whenever the MTS is higher than +5 degrees of depression, unless the azimuth is more than degrees from the nose of the aircraft (in which case the lockout zone begins at higher than -10 degrees). A. 80. B. 90. C. 110. D. 120.

LRD LP DES) The LRD is firing but at degraded power level (LP indicates low power). The laser monitoring devices have detected an energy output of approximately_________________ % or less. If a weapon has been released ___________. If a weapon has not been released it is advised to_________________ . A. 50; abort and conduct a system reset; continue to lase as normal. B. 60; continue to engage; do not abort or cycle the laser. C. 70; cease lasing; cycle the laser. D. 65; continue to lase as normal; abort and cycle the laser.

Both LRD and LTM provide means of obtaining slant range information. A. True. B. False.

In the event the aircraft loses command link/uplink and enters a lost link profile, the laser(s) (LRD, ELRF, LTM, ELRF/LTM, or LRD/LTM) is automatically set to _____ and ________. A. OFF; remains armed. B. OFF; disarmed. C. ON; disarmed. D. None of the above.

What are the maximum temperature limits for the MTS during operation and non-operation?. A. +55 and +85 °C. B. +55 and +90 °C. C. +60 and +85 °C. D. +60 and +90 °C.

The MTS sensor can be used to inspect the_______________ of the wings (and visual ice detector, if equipped) for ice accumulation. A. leading edge. B. pitot tubes. C. gear. D. None of the above.

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed. A. Warning. B. Caution. C. Note. D. None of the above.

__________--express non-mandatory provisions. A. Shall. B. Should and May. C. Will. D. If.

The EPO switch disconnects________. A. all AC power from the GCS. B. incoming AC power and UPS output. C. UPS output. D. None of the above.

There are three ranges of condition lever settings. The position provides for normal operations, the detent position closes the fuel shutoff valve, and position mechanically feathers the propeller and closes the fuel shutoff valve. A. full forward; full aft. B. full aft; full forward. C. full forward; detent. D. detent; full aft.

Outboard wing tanks feed the inboard tanks via____________-. A. gravity. B. jet pumps. C. electric pumps. D. the engine-driven mechanical pump.

How many fuel tanks are in the MQ-9?. A. 2. B. 3. C. 5. D. 7.

Below what fuel feed pressure does the RCM turn on the electric fuel pump that is not in use to supply fuel from the header tank to the engine?. A. 5 psi. B. 15 psi. C. 30 psi. D. 48 psi.

If the header tank pressure exceeds______ psi, a return solenoid failure warning is downlinked to the GCS. A.1.2. B.1.5. C.4.2. D.5.0.

[Block 1] Batteries cannot be charged in flight. [Block 5] Supplied by either engine power or ground power, the aircraft electrical system has an on-board charging system for five batteries. A.True. B.False.

The transmission of the C-band LOS datalink is referred to as the _______and_________ , while the Ku-band SATCOM transmissions are called ___________and_______ . A.uplink; downlink; command link; return link. B.command link; return link; uplink; downlink. C.transmit; receive; command link; return link. D.command link; return link; transmit; receive.

______is indicated by a complete loss of HUD video with continued presence of telemetry. A.Video source failure. B.Monitor failure. C.PSO-1 rack lock-up. D.PSO-2 rack lock-up.

With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist. A.True. B.False.

The laser PRF code is a direct reflection of the actual pulse rate. The higher the value of the PRF code, the faster the laser pulses. A.True. B.False.

Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ._______. A. airspeed or pitot-static failure. B. catastrophic AOA failure below 120 KIAS with stall protect on, SAS failure. C. autopilot sensor failure, structural failure, or airframe icing. D. All of the above.

Pitot heat does not guarantee absence of ice from the pitot-static system. Moisture can freeze in the unheated areas of the system. This malfunction may be indicated by an FCA PPT sensor warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed indications, or a combination of any of these. These conditions may result in . A. aircraft pitch down or oscillation. B. loss of datalink. C. loss of aircraft control. D. All of the above.

The accuracy of estimated remaining flight time is reduced when the battery capacity is at or below______%. A. 20. B. 24. C. 22. D. 28.

Do not allow the engine to windmill between___ and ______percent RPM. A. 18; 28. B. 10; 28. C. 60; 65. D. 50; 68.

Gear must be extended before system drops below___________ volts. Attempting to lower the gear with less than____ volts may cause a complete loss of battery power. A. 20; 20. B. 22; 22. C. 24; 24. D. 28; 28.

When the LRD is turned on it typically draws (nominal current use) _________amps the same as the MTS turret heater. A. 15. B. 26. C. 12 to 55. D. 70.

The sensor targeting tracker box provides the following information: A. Sensor aim point latitude. B. Sensor aim point longitude. C. Sensor aim point UTM coordinates. D. Aircraft elevation above target. E. All of the above.

[DAS-1] If the range to the target is 10 km, what is the LTM spot height and width?. A. 11 × 18 m. B. 6 × 9 m. C. 22 × 36 m. D. 1 × 1 m.

Operational altitude for the LRD and LTM is_________. A. > 50,000 ft. B. 50,000 ft. C. 45,000 ft. D. Density altitude dependent.

The fast blink mode fires the LTM_________ times per second. The slow blink mode fires the LTM__________. A. 3; once every 2 seconds. B. 6; once every second. C. 3; once every second. D. 6; once every 2 seconds.

The LRD is a weapons-grade system that can cause permanent eye damage and blindness. The LRD must always be treated as a weapon. A. True. B. False.

GCS-generated payload graphics are created within the using the RS-422 telemetry data embedded in the downlink. A. GCS. B. MTS Turret. C. MTS Electronics Assembly. D. EGI 1.

When Deadband is turned off, and Deadband modifier is set to zero, ANY deflection of the joystick is immediately uplinked to the MTS. A. True. B. False.

Deadband restricts control stick deflection command incorporation into the command link/uplink when it is 2° to 3° of neutral in azimuth, and within 1° to 1.5° of neutral in elevation. A. True. B. False.

The Deadband Modifier can adjust the sensor operator's joystick Deadband ________between. A. 1; 8. B. 0; 8. C. 0; 63. D. 0; 255.

Never intentionally point the MTS at the sun. Doing so may render the system inoperable for up to__________. A. 30 seconds. B. 1 minute. C. 2 minutes. D. 3 minutes.

GIM DIS_______- code means the electronics unit (EU) to Ethernet communication has failed. A. 600. B. D00. C. 100. D. L00.

To clear a Gimbal Disabled condition, initiate an MTS reset. However, if an asterisk is displayed next to the gimbal status indication, do not initiate a reset. A. True. B. False.

There are two over-temperature warnings that can appear on the MTS HUD: WRA 1 OVHT (turret) and WRA 2 OVHT (electronics assembly). The temperature threshold for both WRA 1 and WRA2 is___________. A. 45 °C. B. 55 °C. C. 65 °C. D. 85 °C.

[DAS-1A] The MTS turret has two internal heaters to prevent excessive cooling of the MTS at altitude where severe cold conditions exist. Under normal conditions the turret heaters are set to auto and an internal thermostat maintains the turret temperature. A. True. B. False.

When a tracked target is lost because it is momentarily obscured (i.e., a vehicle passing under an overpass), the tracker enters____________ mode. This mode is indicated by the track gate corners___________. If the system is able to reacquire track, the track gate corners will return to a___________ display. If the system is unable to reacquire the track (for Point and Area Track modes), after ____________seconds it will automatically cancel the auto track mode and revert to rate mode. A. suspend; solid; flash; ten. B. coast; flashing; solid; two. C. target; solid; flash; one. D. rate; disappear; transparent; five.

Do not fire lasers at___________, flat glass, glazed ice, or any other reflecting surface unless specifically authorized. A. still water. B. cave entrances. C. rough terrain. D. None of the above.

When the laser is clear of the masked area it will automatically resume firing providing that the sensor operator has kept the laser fire button pressed during the masking event. The laser will not damage the airframe. A. True. B. False.

If the________ tank fuel pressure does not recover and the level continues to drop, the engine will only run until the_________ tank is depleted. A. front; header. B. aft; front. C. header; header. D. left wing; header.

A jet pump manifold solenoid that fails _________would prevent fuel from being pumped in the header tank and cause a _________header tank level. Lockout the affected tank if required. A. closed; high. B. closed; low. C. open; low. D. open; high.

When collection point/TRB mode is selected and the point of interest button is pressed a collection list point using current target data will be created and assigned to an available target reference button. A. True. B. False.

If Deadband is OFF, but Deadband modifier is a non-zero number, a Deadband will still exist. A. True. B. False.

__________mode is intended to provide the operator stable control of the MTS when flying directly over a target. Effective use of _________mode requires the aircraft to fly directly towards the target and then have the target pass through nadir. A. Position; position. B. Targeting; targeting. C. Rate; rate. D. Vertical; vertical.

If excessive gimbal bounce/banging is encountered while using________ mode, attempt to minimize the length of time that the mode is activated to prevent a possible Gimbal Disable condition. A. position. B. targeting. C. rate. D. vertical.

he point track function is designed to keep the sensor aligned with an area of ____________. A. movement. B. equal contrast. C. significant contrast. D. specific scene.

A FENCE check can be accomplished in any order. A. True. B. False.

During the Sensor Operator FENCE check, the general flow goes bottom-to-top and right-to-left. A. True. B. False.

The SO crosscheck on final includes a "hub" and "spokes" technique which begins once the laser has been turned on and ends at weapons release. A. True. B. False.

Post impact procedures include the pilot commands for "CEASE LASER, SAFE LASER," and "MASTER ARM_SAFE.". A. True. B. False.

When setting a manual picture to facilitate weapons employment, it is important that the SO balances: A. DPI breakout. B. track survivability. C. target area and collateral SA. D. all the above.

Glare/blooming has the potential to cause momentary loss of SA and subsequent loss of target custody. If preventative aircraft positioning is not possible with glare/blooming concerns, auto iris should be used during moving target tracks and the bearing in the TGP along which glare/blooming occurs should be noted for anticipation of subsequent events. A. True. B. False.

The ATLC mission consists___________ of waypoints that define the runway and flight pattern around the airfield. A. 10. B. 7. C. 5. D. 15.

Which two files are required for ATLC operation?. A. Profile file. B. Data file. C. Runway File. D. A and C.

Once the aircraft's groundspeed is less than or equal to , ATLC logic will ramp the brakes to 100% over 1 second [2410]. A. 20 knots. B. 50 knots. C. 85 knots. D. 75 knots.

For the ATLC lost link logic, the RCM will wait_________ to establish if it is a temporary or permanent dropout. If after____________ , the link is still severed, the RCM will declare lost link. A. 5 seconds; 5 seconds. B. 3 seconds; 3 seconds. C. 2 seconds; 2 seconds. D. 4 seconds; 4 seconds.

Crews must positively identify all targets prior to weapons release. For training sorties, achieve positive identification either__________ or by confirming________ through valid on-board/off-board cues. A. verbally; visually. B. verbally; accurate coordinates. C. visually; target location. D. visually; verbally.

Stores can be jettisoned with the nose gear extended. A. True. B. False.

What does DEADEYE mean?. A. Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor). B. Acquisition of laser designation. C. Laser designator system inoperative. D. Weapons impact. E. Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND.

_________________acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor). A. TALLY. B. EYES ON. C. VISUAL. D. CONTACT.

____________-means the specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor. A. ON COORDS. B. CAPTURED. C. THUNDER. D. CONTACT.

______________is the sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of_________ . A. VISUAL/BLIND. B. TALLY/NO JOY. C. CONTACT/COORDS. D. CAPTURE/CONTACT.

The LRD is PRF adjustable throughout the entire range of available PRF codes ( - ), the numerals "0" and "9" are invalid in a PRF code. A. 1111-1118. B. 1111-1188. C. 1111-1888. D. None of the above.

Do not power on Hellfire missiles unnecessarily. Leaving a missile powered on for extended durations may __________. A. decrease reliability. B. cause a fire. C. decrease the maximum range. D. prevent propellant ignition.

Which launch mode results in a higher impact angle?. A. LOAL-Direct. B. LOAL-Low. C. LOAL-High. D. LOBL.

Which launch mode results in a lower impact angle?. A. LOAL-Direct. B. LOAL-Low. C. LOAL-High. D. LOBL.

The PRF code entered into the GBU-12/51 PRF setting does not change the PRF code set___________ . A. in the SMS Air-to-Ground Store Settings. B. in the MTS. C. in Set 3 of the CL encryption key select. D. by the load crew into the bomb's Computer Control Group (CCG) Code Select Switches.

The Hellfire gets its targeting parameters_____________. A. From manually entered GSMS target settings. B. From the CCRP-designated target latitude, longitude, and elevation. C. Directly from the MTS. D. From GWTS inputs.

The_________ has an increased fragmentation ring warhead. A. AGM-114/R-2. B. AGM-114/P. C. AGM-114/R-9E. D. AGM-114/M-6.

All personnel must remain clear of aircraft with hung forward-firing ordnance for after last attempt to launch. A. 15 minutes. B. one hour. C. 90 minutes. D. two hours.

GWTS (specifically version 2.0) provides GBU-12 employment envelope data and impact parameters. It can generate user-defined tables to determine acceptable employment ranges to achieve desired effects (e.g., impact angle, impact velocity. A. True. B. False.

When briefing the "Clearance" portion in WTARSEC, this includes which of the following: A. When it is expected. B. Clearance authority. C. Type of Clearance. D. All the above.

Type 3 Control - Once satisfied the attacking aircraft are correlated on the appropriate target(s), the JTAC/FAC(A) will provide attacking aircraft "CLEARED TO ENGAGE" or "Type 3, CONTINUE DRY". The attack aircrew will report _________ to the JTAC/FAC(A). A. "Engagement Initiated". B. "Inbound Attack". C. "Commencing Engagement" and "Engagement Complete". D. "Target Engaged".

If the JTAC/FAC(A) requires a specific attack heading for the weapon (but not the aircraft), that restriction be stated clearly when the FAH is passed. A. Should. B. Must. C. Could. D. Might.

Which of the following manners can a JTAC/FAC(A) use to provide target location during the CAS Brief (9-line)?. A. Latitude/Longitude. B. Grid Coordinates. C. Offset from known point. D. A, B, and C. E. A and B only.

Friendly grids should not be passed if it can be avoided. If necessary, use no more than digits. R. A. 4. B. 6. C. 8. D. 10.

Danger close, Final Attack Headings, and TOTs are all examples of what during the CAS Brief (9- line)?. A. Remarks. B. Restrictions. C. Friendly Position. D. Gameplan.

________targets are properly validated and placed on the joint target list. Deliberate targets are further broken down into two categories: scheduled and on-call. A. Dynamic. B. Unscheduled. C. Deliberate.

The sensor plan drives the holding plan during the first half of the kill chain (find, fix and track). Evaluate all available sensors and how they enable target acquisition and prosecution. A. True. B. False.

During the Intent phase crews must gather target priorities and restrictions. Restrictions range from but are not limited to;. A. TOT and run-in. B. Weapons effects and vertical impact requirements. C. Collateral concerns. D. All the above.

If a track was established prior to weapons impact it is critical the SO breaks the track immediately after weapons impact to manage slew control in order to maintain target area SA. A. True. B. False.

Attacking aircraft will frequently be able to provide a BDA post attack. Which other CAS team members may be able to provide accurate BDA?. A. JTAC/FAC(A). B. Joint Fires Observers (JFOs). C. Other Observers. D. All of the Above.

Which role is NOT a primary terminal attack control responsibility?. A. Brief. B. Stack. C. Mark. D. Location. E. Control.

UASs, either FW or RW, operate using similar CAS procedures to manned aircraft, to include airborne laser procedures. Which one is NOT a unique consideration that needs to be addressed when utilizing UASs?. A. Communications capabilities/detailed plan for no radio. B. Lost Link procedures and UAS contingency routes. C. Detailed integration and deconfliction for operations and airspace. D. Weapons Loadout.

"Danger Close" for the GBU-12 is _______m. A. 270. B. 180. C. 170. D. 240.

The pilot will ensure two-way communication is established with the ground crew prior to all ground checks and anytime the aircraft's engine is operating on the ground. A. True. B. False.

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least 15 feet. A. True. B. False.

The pilot will use the targeting pod to ensure the aircraft is clear of obstructions during taxi operations. A. True. B. False.

Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceed_______ knots ground speed (KGS) on a taxiway,______KGS on a runway, and less than ______KGS in a turn 30 degrees or greater. A. 10; 20; 6. B. 10; 15; 5. C. 20; 15; 10. D. 25; 15; 10.

Minimum taxi interval between MQ-9 aircraft is _______ft daytime; _______ft night time. A. 100; 200. B. 150; 200. C. 150; 300. D. 200; 400.

Minimum runway length for MQ-9 operations is_____ feet. A. 3,000. B. 5,000. C. 4,000. D. 7,000.

Minimum runway width for MQ-9 operations is_____feet while minimum taxiway width is__________feet. A. 50; 50. B. 50; 75. C. 75; 75. D. 75; 50.

Accomplish a departure brief which includes, at a minimum: A. Departure runway. B. Rotation, liftoff, and climb speeds. C. Emergency procedures. D. Weather. E. All of the above.

For takeoff, the Sensor Operator will select a different HUD video source from the one selected by the pilot. A. True. B. False.

Pilots will establish a normal glide path by______feet AGL. Descent rates greater than______feet per minute (FPM) below 200 ft AGL, greater than_____FPM below 50 feet AGL, airspeed more than______KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a pilot- induced oscillation(PIO)/bounce require a go- around. A. 1,500; 1,200, 600, 4. B. 200; 1,200; 800, 5. C. 500; 600; 200; 6. D. 600; 480; 200; 5.

Unless otherwise briefed, SOs will announce altitude deviations exceeding ____± feet at the Initial Approach Fix, Final Approach Fix, and Minimum Descent Altitude, as well as when reaching Decision Height or the Missed Approach Point. A. 1,000. B. 500. C. 200. D. 100.

For landing, place the MTS in position mode and display flight graphics on both PSO racks no later than ________feet AGL. A. 400. B. 500. C. 600. D. 700.

Minimum approach airspeed during an SFO traffic pattern is stall speed plus KIAS. A. 10. B. 15. C. 20. D. 25.

Forecast weather must be at or above AFI 11-2MQ-1&9 V3 minima at the ETA plus or minus_______. A. one hour. B. two hours. C. three hours. D. four hours.

When actual or forecasted ceiling is below_________feet and/or the visibility is less than________SM, aircrew will increase recovery fuel to allow holding for ________hours over the destination at maximum endurance speed, at expected holding altitude, at calculated destination gross weight, and engine speed set to minimum, then expect to penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel. A. 3,000; 3; 2. B. 3,000; 3; 4. C. 1,500; 3; 2. D. 1,500; 3; 4.

Do not taxi with nose-wheel steering, brake system, video path, or telemetry/datalink malfunctions. A. True. B. False.

If encountering a landing gear malfunction and the gear are down, leave them down and do not make touch-and-go landings. A. True. B. False.

The SO should slew the MTS to clear both directions prior to starting a turn. A. True. B. False.

A momentary increase in engine RPM and ________during the shutdown process indicates that the purge system is functioning. A. oil level. B. feathering. C. Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT). D. All of the above.

During boresighting, Hellfire missile laser seeker damage can occur if the MTS laser PRF code matches the Hellfire PRF code. A. True. B. False.

To perform a normal engine shutdown, the pilot moves the throttle to the ______position for a minimum of_____ minutes. A. flight idle; 3. B. ground idle; 3. C. reverse; 2. D. idle; 2.

Ground lost link is declared when the following condition(s) is/are true at the time of lost link: A. Airspeed is less than 50 KIAS. B. Landing gear is commanded down. C. Ground speed is less than 50 knots. D. All of the above.

When power is applied to the aircraft, the INS function goes through a self-test, aligns its sensors, and then outputs attitude and navigation data. Moving the aircraft at this time will not affect the INS attitude and navigation results. A. True. B. False.

During AV Preflight, many navigation health and status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # Stat is ______and FCA # Err is ____. Under normal conditions, this will take_____minutes. A. 5 or greater; zero; 1-2. B. auto; 0000; 10+. C. F7; 20; 7-9. D. 8880; absent; 5.

A GPS Key Code of 4400 means: A. The P-code key is incorrect and there are not enough keys to cover the mission. B. The P-code key is unverified, that it expires in 2 hours or less, and no keys were loaded. C. The P-code key failed parity and zeroization was unsuccessful. D. None of the above.

When the glide slope indicator is above the horizontal crosshair, the aircraft is below the correct glide slope. A. True. B. False.

During AV Preflight the oil level should be __________% or above. A. 70. B. 80. C. 85. D. 90.

When running the Transfer LOS/SATCOM, Link Test checklist, the pilot and crew chief must ensure that ground personnel are at least________ from the aircraft and, if conditions allow, the ________ are on before enabling the SATCOM RL Tx. A. 1 ft; navigation lights. B. 72 ft; strobe lights. C. 100 ft: SATCOM transmitters. D. 70 ft; navigation lights.

If lights off does not occur within _____seconds after 10% RPM, the start should be aborted. A. 10. B. 15. C. 25. D. 60.

Speed lever must be set to _________for takeoff. Do not attempt to takeoff with speed lever in the _________position. A. low; high. B. high; low. C. high; high. D. low; low.

The MTS sensor is a gyro-stabilized platform and can mask a bounced or hard landing when utilized. A. True. B. False.

Nose gear temperature can be monitored on VIT_________ . If steering becomes jammed at full lock, apply steering________ the direction of turn. A. 9; opposite. B. 9; into. C. 8; opposite. D. 8; into.

What EP checklist should you initiate if you experience degraded or frozen video and telemetry when low to the ground?. A. Rack Lock-up. B. Monitor Failure. C. Total Downlink Failure Below 2,000 Feet AGL or on the Ground. D. Lost C-Band Uplink.

Maximum gear in transit speed is __________. A. 135. B. 158. C. 160. D. 230.

Crews may takeoff prior to a raised cable provided there is at least ____________ft of runway or minimum required takeoff distance (whichever is greater) prior to the raised cables. A. 3,000. B. 1,000. C. 7,000. D. 5,000.

When an alternate airfield is not an option or not available, aircrews will comply with the following ceiling and visibility requirements; the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) must be at or above a ceiling of________or________ above the lowest compatible minima (whichever is greater), and a visibility of ________miles or________ mile(s) above the lowest compatible minima. A. 1,500; 1,000; 3; 2. B. 800; 500; 3; 2. C. 800; 500; 2; 1. D. 1,500; 1,000; 3; 1.

The shape of the GDT horn antenna (wide) allows the GDT to easily acquire the aircraft at approximately____NM. A. 5. B. 5.5. C. 6.5. D. 70.

What must be considered if landing with a flat main tire?. A. Land on the side of the runway corresponding to the good main tire. B. Land with any crosswind on the side of the aircraft with the good main tire. C. A & B. D. None of the above.

An error exists within the scaling of the IR nose camera, resulting in HUD overlay and flight path marker (FPM) offsets. The HUD overlay graphics and FPM may be up to degrees off and may not reflect the actual aircraft attitude or aimpoint, which could result in steep/shallow approaches or nose- first landings. A. 10. B. 7. C. 5. D. 2.