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Com Regulations 50-104

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del Test:
Com Regulations 50-104

Descripción:
Com Regulations 50-104

Fecha de Creación: 2018/01/20

Categoría: Otros

Número Preguntas: 54

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Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. more than 50 statute miles from shore.

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a 'restricted' category airplane?. A pilot of a 'restricted' category airplane is required to hold a commercial pilot certificate. A 'restricted' category airplane is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from its home base. No person may operate a 'restricted' category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a 'primary' category airplane?. A 'primary' category airplane is limited to a specified operating radius from its home base. No person may operate a 'primary' category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire. A pilot of a 'primary' category airplane must hold a commercial pilot certificate when carrying passengers for compensation or hire.

The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is. not authorized in a 'utility' category aircraft. not authorized in a 'limited' category aircraft. authorized in 'restricted' category aircraft.

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is. 30 minutes. 45 minutes. 60 minutes.

No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK within how many hours of its execution?. 24. 48. 72.

What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponder. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability. with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement. is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are. authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are. not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are. not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation. authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?. The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane. The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes. The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.

Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft. at the higher altitude. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft. that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.

Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft. #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1. #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1. #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left. Each pilot should alter course to the right.

What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?. 156 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace is. 180 knots. 200 knots. 230 knots.

What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?. 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles. 2,000 feet MSL and 2 miles. 3,000 feet AGL and 1 mile.

If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight. at sunset. 30 minutes after sunset. 1 hour after sunset.

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft. after sunset to sunrise. after dark. 1 hour after sunset.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is. 2,000 feet over all terrain. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft. Pilot in command or operator. Owner or operator of the aircraft.

Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. pilot in command of that aircraft. owner or operator of that aircraft.

After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made. on the airworthiness certificate. in the aircraft maintenance records. in the FAA-approved flight manual.

A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives. required maintenance and inspections. an annual inspection. an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.

If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated. under VFR or IFR rules. with passengers aboard. for compensation or hire.

Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?. A record of preventive maintenance is not required. A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records. Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight manual.

An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?. The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours. The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.

Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?. A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection. An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved.

An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding. 30 days. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the. applicable airworthiness certificate. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?. ADs are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately. Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unairworthy. Compliance with ADs is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous. operating hours of the engine. annual inspections performed on the engine. changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?. Its use is not permitted. It may be used when in Class G airspace. It may be used for VFR flight only.

To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to. receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane. obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to operate such an airplane. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must. complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor. complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must. receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested. hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating. within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.

What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?. Certificate holder. Pilot in command. Airplane owner/operator.

Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each. flight crewmember only. person on board. flight and cabin crewmembers.

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the. other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot. pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance. other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.

If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the. operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency. aircraft may be operated at that speed. operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.

A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person. holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61. is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation. is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must. log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor. pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor. receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.

No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate. under instrument flight rules (IFR). when carrying property for hire. when carrying persons or property for hire.

A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a. written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action. written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction. notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the. nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action. FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for. a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction. notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61.

A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person's faculties, is grounds for a. written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction. written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is. headed away from you. crossing to your left. approaching you head-on.

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of the injury.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?. Part-time contract pilot. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry persons for intentional parachute jumps. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry cargo only.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?. Crop dusting, spraying, and bird chasing. On-demand, nine or less passenger, charter flights. On-demand cargo flights.

In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR part 119, may a commercial pilot act as pilot in command of a helicopter and receive compensation for services?. On-demand charter flights. Helicopter flights with two passengers or less, within 25 SM radius of the departure heliport. Military contract rescue flights.

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