COMMERCIAL PILOT TEST BZ

The pilot in command of an aircraft is always responsible for: The aircraft and maintenance engineers. The aircraft and security of crew, passengers and cargo on board. All of the above.

The pilot in command may deviate from any rules, contained in the Belize Civil Aviation regulations, to the extent required to adequately respond to a/an: non life threatening ground emergency. in flight emergency requiring immediate action. aircraft emergency not requiring immediate action.

No person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the : operations checklist. maintenance manual. operational limitations specified in the Aircraft (Airplane) Flight Manual.

No person may operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to : endanger property of another pilot. endanger a public event not directly in his flight path. endanger the lives or the property of another person or persons.

Provided that responsible precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property when dropping out any object from an aircraft, who gives the final authority to conduct such operations: the Belize Department of Civil Aviation. the Reporting Office. the Belize Department of Agriculture:.

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any objects to be dropped from the aircraft in flight, if dropping such objects creates a : risk to property. risk to persons. hazard to persons or property.

No persons may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft, if he/she has: has consumed any alcoholic beverages within 10 hours prior to acting as a crewmember of an aircraft. has consumed any alcoholic beverages within 8 hours prior to acting as a crewmember of an aircraft. all of the above.

At which percentage by weight or alcohol in the blood, is a person not allowed to act as crewmember of a civil aircraft: 0.05 percent. 0.04 percent. 0.02 percent.

Except for a patient undergoing medical treatment, no pilot of a civil aircraft will allow a person who: appears to be intoxicated. appears to be drowsy. appears to be careless.

A pilot or crewmember of a Belizean registered airplane shall not operate such aircraft unless, at all times, including during take off and landing, the pilot ensures that he : keep the seatbelt fastened including shoulder harness. check cargo load compartment that all cargo are properly secured. keeps the shoulder harness fastened.

No pilot may take off a Belizean registered aircraft unless: the passengers ask how to fasten his/ her seat belt. the pilot ensures all passengers are briefed how to open the aircraft doors. the pilot in command of the aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten/ unfasten the seat belt and shoulder harness.

No person may operate a civil aircraft being used for a flight instruction unless: the aircraft has dual instrument panels with glass cockpit features installed. the aircraft has fully functioning dual controls. the aircraft has singular controls.

No person may operate an aircraft in close proximity to another aircraft so as to: cause a non hazardous event. create a collision hazard. create an incident.

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except with previous arrangement between the: pilot in command of an aircraft following behind them to ensure safety. a pilot who flies the same type of aircraft. pilot in command of each aircraft.

No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in: International flight to a non ICAO contracting state. Slow flight. Formation flight.

Regardless of whether an operation is conducted in IMC or VMC, vigilance shall always be maintained by: the dispatchers of both aircraft operators. The commander of the aircraft to your left. each person operating or whom is designated as the Pilot in command of an aircraft, so as to see and avoid other aircraft.

When another aircraft is given the right of way, the pilot of the other aircraft shall give way to the aircraft and: May pass over and under. may pass ahead of it regardless of the distance from the aircraft. may not pass overhead , under, or ahead of it unless he is well clear of the other aircraft.

An aircraft in distress has priority over: all international traffic. all local traffic. all other air traffic.

When aircraft of the same category at the same altitude, the aircraft to the other's right has : has to land immediately to accomodate traffic. the right and the left of way. the right of way.

When aircraft are of different category and converging at approximately the same altitude, a balloon has the right of way over : any aircraft. a glider. any other category of aircraft.

When aircraft of different category and converging at approximately the same altitude, which of the following has the right of way over all other aircraft: a balloon. a turbo prop aircraft. a helicopter or rotorcraft.

When aircraft are of different category and converging at approximately the same altitude, an airship has the right of way over: a glider. a balloon. an airplane or rotorcraft.

When 2 aircraft are approaching each other head on, or nearly head on, each pilot of each aircraft shall : alter course to the left. alter course to left , then right. alter course to the right.

Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall: alter its course to the right to pass well clear. descend to pass below the overtaking aircraft. alter its course to the left always.

Which aircraft have the right of way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface?. an aircraft circling overhead of the airport. aircraft that is holding in the traffic pattern. an aircraft which is on final approach or an aircraft which is landing.

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing : the aircraft at the highest altitude has the right of way. the aircraft at the same altitude has the right of way. the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way.

Each person operating an aircraft over water shall: right of way. keep well clear of all sea vessels. give way to other aircraft that have the. all of the above.

When 2 aircraft are on a course that will cross each other's path, the aircraft or vessel on the other's right has : to land at the nearest airport. the right of way. to turn left.

Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right of way and the one overtaking shall: alter its course to the left. drift off course to 10 degrees until he is overtaken and then resume course. alter its course to the right and keep well clear.

Unless authorized by the Belize Department of Civil Aviation , no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet AMSL at indicated airspeed greater than: 200 m.p.h. 230 knots. 250 knots.

Unless authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet AGL,within 4 nm of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than : 250 m.p.h. 250 knots. 230 knots.

If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed required by ATC, the : Operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement with the controlling agency. controlling agency must be informed of this and the aircraft must be operated at any speed chosen by the PIC. controlling agency must be informed of this and the aircraft must be operated at that minimum safe airspeed for that aircraft.

If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed required, the aircraft may be operated at: maximum airspeed. the minimum safe airspeed for that specific aircraft. minimum airspeed for C172.

Over any congested areas of a city, town or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, no person may operate an aircraft at : an altitude of 2000 feet above the highest obstacle. an altitude of 1000 meters above the highest obstacle. an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft.

Over non - congested areas , an aircraft may not be operated closer than: 1000 meters to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. 2000 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. 500 feet to any person , vessel, vehicle, or structure.

At flight level 19,500 feet AMSL , the altimeter setting should be set to : 29.90 inches of mercury (Hg). 29.92 inches of mercury (Hg). 29.91 inches of mercury (Hg).

When an ATC has issued a clearance, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, except if : the pilot obtains an amended clearance. an emergency exist. in both of the above situations.

If a pilot is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance, the pilot shall immediately : request clearance. request clearance from ATC. request a readback or ask for clarification from ATC.

No person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction, in an area in which air traffic control is exercised, except: in IFR conditions. when an emergency exists. in VFR conditions.

Each pilot in command , who in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert , deviates from ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation : immediately. as soon as possible. after deviating.

Each pilot in command is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within: 72 hours to the manager of the ATC services. 24 hours to the manager of the ATC services. 48 hours to the manager of the ATC services.

A person operating an aircraft shall not deviate from a clearance or instruction that has been issued by radar control or any other air traffic control provider having control over a specified control zone unless he recieves permission: Air Traffic Control. the Reporting Office. the Director of Civil Airports.

If an aircraft is on the ground, a steady green from the Control Tower means: cleared to land. cleared for take off. cleared to taxi.

If an aircraft is on the ground, a steady red from the Control Tower means: exercise extreme caution. return to starting point on the Airport. stop.

If an aircraft is on the ground, a flashing green from the Control Tower means: cleared to taxi. cleared for take off. taxi clear of runway in use.

If an aircraft is on the ground, a flashing green from the Control Tower means: cleared to taxi. cleared for take off. taxi clear of runway in use.

If an aircraft is on the ground, a flashing white from the Control Tower means: taxi clear of runway in use. return to starting point on the Airport. cleared to taxi.

If an aircraft is on the ground , an alternating red / green from the Control Tower means: exercise extreme caution. taxi cleared of runway in use. cleared for take off.

If an aircraft is on the ground, a flashing red from the Control Tower means. stop. taxi clear of runway in use. cleared to taxi.

If an aircraft is in flight , a alternating red / green from the Control Tower. airport unsafe, do not land. exercise extreme caution. give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

If an aircraft is in flight, a steady green from the Control Tower means: cleared to land. Cleared to circle. give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

If an aircraft is in flight, a flashing white from the Control Tower means. exercise extreme caution. airport unsafe , do not land. not applicable.

If an aircraft is in flight , a flashing green from the Control Tower means: return for landing - and await steady green light at the appropriate time to land. give way to other aircraft and continue circling. cleared to land.

If an aircraft is in flight , a flashing red from the Control Tower means. exercise extreme caution. airport unsafe, do not land. cleared to land.

If an aircraft is in flight , a steady red from the Control Tower means: airport unsafe, do not land. cleared to land. give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

When operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace , no person may operate an aircraft to or from an airport with a control tower operating unless: two way radio communications between the pilot and the control tower has been established and maintained. communication with the control tower is maintained. communications between the pilot and the control tower is maintained.

When landing or taking off from a satellite airport with Class G airspace which is also located, near to or in the vicinity of an airport with a control tower, a pilot must ensure that radio communications with the control tower shall be established before he reaches: 100 nautical miles from the airport , up to and including 3000 feet. 2 nautical miles from the airport , up to including 2,500 feet. enters the control zone, and he must recieve permission to enter this control zone.

If the radio communications fail , while operating in the vicinity of a Class G Airspace, the pilot in command shall: continue flying the aircraft and land as soon as possible. request ATC clearance. Ditch the aircraft in a clear area.

If radio communications fail , while operating in the vicinity of a Class D airspace and the weather conditions are at or above the basic VFR conditions , the pilot in command shall: maintain contact with the control tower. receive landing clearance. maintain visual contact with tower and await landing clearance through light gun signals.

Departure from an airport in Class E airspace, each pilot of an aircraft shall comply with the established: flight information service. traffic pattern and procedures published for that aerodrome. take off path.

When operating in a Class D airspace for the purposes of either landing or over flying: all persons shall establish and maintain two way radio communications with ATC services prior to entering the airspace. all persons shall establish radio communications with ATC service. all persons shall establish one way radio communications with ATC.

When departing from a satellite aerodrome without a control tower , a pilot must establish and maintain two way radio communication with the ATC agency responsibile for the Class D airspace: any time he is not busy with flying the aircraft. as soon as possible after take off. after completing touch and go's.

The minimum altitude for a turbine powered airplane or large airplane operating toward Class D airspace, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria, such aircraft shall enter the airport traffic circuit at an altitude of: 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 1, 500 feet above the surface of the airport and maintain that altitude until further decent is approved for a safe landing.

An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain flight at an altitude at or above the glide slope until: a lower altitude is necessary for safe landing. a higher altitude is necessary for safe landing. a lower altitude is necessary for an unsafe landing.

Operating in a Class D airspace, no person may , at an airport with an operating control tower , operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway or take off or land an aircraft , unless an appropriate clearance is recieved from : the Reporting Office. from the Air Traffic Control service that has jurisdiction over that area. the Radar Service.

No person may take off or land an aircraft within a Class B airspace unless : the pilot in command holds at least a commercial pilot's certificate. the pilot in command holds at least a first class medical. the pilot in command holds at least a private pilot's certificate or is a student pilot under supervision of a qualified instructor.

No person may operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless the aircraft is equipped for: VFR operations. Special VFR operations. a transponder with Mode C or mode A capability.

For an aircraft radio to be operated : the aircraft radio equipment must be licensed as a part of the airplane and a radio operator license or radio license has to be on board. the aircraft radio station and broadcast facility must be licensed. All of the above must be licensed.

Operating in a Class A airspace, operations are permitted only if ATC clearance is received: before entering the airspace. after entering the airspace. when entering and proceeding to the airspace.

In designating an area within which temporary flight restrictions apply and specifying the hazard or condition requiring their imposition , the Belize Department of Civil Aviation will issue a: Aeronautical Information Circular. Notice to Airmen. ATC instruction.

No person may operate an aircraft over or in area visited by dignitaries, who merit special security backup, unless the Belize Department of Civil Aviation: authorized the security backup. authorizes the operation of such aircraft in that area. authorized the visit.

No person may operate any aircraft over or in the vicinity of an airspace designated to conduct: parachute drops. formation flights. All of the above.

No person may commence a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless. there is enough fuel to fly to the alternate aerodrome. there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing assuming normal cruise speed. all of the above.

Each person filing a VFR flight plan shall include which of the following information: full name and address of pilot in command. engine time. limitations of aircraft including MEL items.

When a flight plan has been activated, the pilot in command, shall upon landing cancel the flight plan by notifying: Director of Civil Aviation. ATC unit and Flight Information Service. Standards Office.

In Class D airspace , which of the following flights are normally permitted: IFR flights only. IFR and VFR flights , subjected to air traffic control service. VFR flights only.

Regulations define Vle as: maximum landing gear extended speed. maximum landing speed. maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.

Operating in a Class G airspace, IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive : flight information service on request. flight information service in advance. flight information service.

In Class A airspace , the following flights are permittted : VFR flights are permitted. VFR and IFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are permitted.

In a Class C airspace , IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and the : VFR flights are separated from other VFR and IFR flights. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from VFR flights.

In a Class B airspace , IFR and VFR flights are permitted and separation among them is required , however flights are subject to : flight information service. radar service. air traffic control service.

Aircraft operation may be carried out in Class G airspace , below 1,200 feet AMSL : when the visibility is below 3 statute miles, but not less than 1 sm. when the visibility is below 10 sm , but not less than 5 sm. when the visibility is below 5 sm , but not less than 3 sm.

Aircraft may operate in Class G airspace , below 1,200 feet AMSL at night in an area free of clouds within an airport or aerodrome traffic pattern within a distance of : 5 miles from the runway. half a mile from the runway. one mile from the runway.

Special VFR operations may only be conducted: with authorization from the reporting office. with authorization from ATC. with authorization from flight service unit.

No one may take off an aircraft which is not a helicopter under special VFR conditions, unless ground visibility is : at least 3 statute miles. at least 1 nautical mile. at least 1 statute mile.

No one may take off an aircraft which is not a helicopter under special VFR conditions, if ground visibility is not reported , except if the flight visibility is : at least 1 statute mile. at least 1 nautical mile. at least 3 statute miles.

Each person operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3000 feet above the surface, on a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees is: any even thousand feet AMSL altitude plus 500 feet. any odd thousand feet AMSL altitude plus 500 feet. any odd thousand feet AMSL altitude.

An aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3000 feet above the surface , on a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees is: any even thousand feet AMSL altitude. any odd thousand feet AMSL altitude. any even thousand feet AMSL altitude plus 500 feet.

No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel to : complete flight to the first airport of intended landing. fly 45 minutes after alternate airport. all of the above.

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a : Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. Decision making process which relies on good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight. mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

The maximum permissible bearing error for VOR test signal operated to check the VOR equipment in an aircraft on the ground is : plus or minus 2 degrees. plus or minus 4 degrees. plus or minus 6 degrees.

If an instrument approach procedure has been published for a airport , or if no procedure has been established , the minimum non- precision approach procedure is: 800 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. 600 feet ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. 500 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility.

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has : received a flight plan. file a ATC flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance. filed an IFR flightplan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.

If the take off minimums are not prescribed for a particular airport or aerodrome under IFR, the minimum visibility for aircraft having two engines or less is: 1 statute mile visibility. 4 statute miles visibility. 1. 5 statute mile visibility.

No person may operate an aircraft under IFR below, in the case of operations over an area designated as mountainous at an altitude of: 3000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3nm. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4nm.

The pilot in command of each aircraft operating under IFR in controlled airspace shall have a : weather radar installed in the aircraft. continuous watch maintained on the appropriate frequency. continuous communication with Flight Information Service.

A pilot in command of an aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practicable to ATC : any radio communication in flight. malfunctions of engine instruments occurring in flight. malfunctions of navigational , approach or communication equipment occurring in flight.

No person may operate a civil aircraft under Category ll or lll unless it has a : a currently maintenance inspection certificate. a valid airworthiness and registration certificate. a passenger manifest.

No person may operate a Belizean registered civil aircraft unless it has attached to the airplane : a portable battery charger. a first aid kit. an automatic type emergency locator transmitter.

No person shall during the period from sunset and sunrise operate an aircraft unless: it has lights. it has position lights. it has one position light.

No person shall park or move an aircraft in close or dangerous proximity to , another aircraft during night flight operations area of an airport / aerodrome unless the aircraft: is clearly illuminated. has lighted position light. all of the above.

No person may operate a civil aircraft unless the required crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration at : altitude above 10,500 feet AMSL up to and including 14,500 feet. altitude above 10,000 feet AMSL up to and including 14,500 feet. altitude above 10,500 feet AMSL up to and including 12,500 feet.

No person may operate a civil aircraft at a cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet AMSL unless each : pilot of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen. pilot of the aircraft is provide with supplemental oxygen for 30 minutes. occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

No person may take off an aircraft with inoperative instrument unless : an approved minimum equipment list exists for that aircraft. an operational manual exists for that aircraft. an pilot's owners handbook exists for that aircraft.

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight over any congested area in city , town or settlement below: an altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface. an altitude of 3,000 feet above the surface. an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface.

No person may operate an aircraft at night when : the flight visibility is less than 5 statute miles. the flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles. the flight visibility is less than 3 kilometers.

No person may test fly an aircraft except : over congested areas or populated areas. over open water and congested areas. over open water or sparsely populated areas.

No person may test fly an aircraft except over open water, having light air traffic and in : coordination with the Reporting Office. coordination with Flight Operations. coordination with Air Traffic Control.

No person of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it has been. it has been packed by a certified parachute rigger. packed by a certified parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days. all of the above.

Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds: a bank of 45∞ relative to the horizon. a bank of 60∞ relative to the horizon. a bank of 30∞ relative to the horizon.

Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds. a nose up or nose down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon. a nose up or nose down attitude of 20° relative to the horizon. a nose up or nose down attitude of 45° relative to the horizon.

Other than the special purpose for which it is certified, no person may operate : a civil category aircraft. a restricted category civil aircraft. a classified civil aircraft.

No person may be carried on a restricted category civil aircraft unless that person is a : operations officer. student pilot. flight crewmember.

No person may operate a small restricted civil category airplane unless: an approved harness is installed for each front seat. A seat belt is installed for each seat. an approved shoulder harness is installed for each front seat.

No person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for : parachuting purposes. compensation or hire. transporting passengers.

Each person operating a provisionally certificated aircraft shall ensure that: the pilot is properly certified. the pilot has adequate aeronautical knowledge. all of the above.

Each person operating an aircraft that has an experimental certificate shall: operate under special VFR only during the day. operate under VFR only during the day. operate under all weather conditions.

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining and ensuring that the aircraft is in : an worthy condition. an operative condition. an airworthy condition.

No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone maintenance , preventive maintenance, rebuilding or alteration unless : it has been approved by the maintenance facility. it has been approved by the Director of Maintenance. it has been approved for return to service by an authorized person.

No person may operate an airplane in controlled airspace under IFR unless each static pressure altimeter instrument and automatic pressure altitude reporting systems have been tested and inspected within the: preceding 12 calendar months. preceding 36 calendar months. preceding 24 calendar months.

The pilot in command shall ensure that the following is easily accessible to him on each fight: a before landing checklist. a cockpit checklist. a cruise checklist.

Each pilot in command of an airplane, before beginning a flight , shall become familiar with: the Airplane Flight Manual. the Operational Manual. the Maintenance Manual.

Unless the airplane is equipped with a life preserver for each occupants of the airplane , no person may take off an airplane for flights over any body of water for. more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest shore. more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest shore. more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest shore.

No person may take off an airplane for a flight over any body of water for more than 30 minutes flying time from the nearest shore unless it has : passenger briefing cards for each occupants of the airplane. first aid kits for each occupants of the airplane. life preserver on board for each occupants of the airplane.

No person may operate an airplane under VFR at less than: 1000 feet above the surface for day operations. 3000 feet above the surface for day operations. 800 feet above the surface for day operations.

Before each take off the pilot in command of the airplane carrying passengers shall ensure that: all passengers are safe. all passengers have been orally briefed. all passengers turn of portable device.

No pilot in command may permit cargo to be carried in any airplane unless: it is properly secured by a safety belt. it does not impose any load on the seats or on the floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for those components. all of the above.

No person may take off any transport category airplane unless: maximum take off weight does not exceed take off weight. take off weight does not exceed authorized maximum take off weight. all of the above.

An airplane with foreign registration can be operated for commercial air transportation services and aerial work activities by a Belizean operator only : if it possesses a Certificate of Registration validated by BDCA. if it possesses a Certificate of Maintenance validate by BDCA. if it possesses a Certificate of Airworthiness validated by BDCA.

To obtain an Air Traffic Control Service it is necessary to submit a : written request. flight plan. flight report.

A pilot in command must submit a complete flight plan in its proper format : at least 30 minutes before the departure of the flight. at least 45 minutes before the departure of the flight. at least 60 minutes before the departure of the flight.

Certificate of Airworthiness of each aircraft registered in Belize is done for: Day VFR and IFR Operations only. Day VFR Operations only. all of the above.

Aircraft joining the traffic pattern for Runway 30 Municipal Airport , when joining from the east to: make a right hand approach. make a left hand approach. make a straight in approach.

Aircraft joining the traffic pattern for Runway 12 Municipal Airport , when joining from the east to: join a left hand approach. join a straight in approach. join a right hand approach.

All VFR flights arriving at PGIA or Municipal Airport, when within the TMA, that is 25 nm range of PGIA, be at an altitude at or above but not exceeding 19,500 feet. 2000 feet. 3000 feet. 1000 feet.

Special VFR flights may be authorized to enter a control zone for the purpose of landing, take off and depart directly from the control zone when : the ground visibility is less than 1500 meters and when traffic conditions permit. the ground visibility is less than 1000 meters and when traffic condtions permit. the ground visibility is less than 500 meters.

Whenever the ground visibility is less than 500 feet , Goldson Approach will deny all requests for: Night VFR. Day VFR. Special VFR.

An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground, shall give way to : aircraft circling or holding. aircraft landing or in the final stages of an approach to land. aircraft entering down wind to land.

The transition altitude in Belize's airspace is : 19,500 feet. 19,000 feet. 18,500 feet.

Visual Flight Rules outside of controlled airspace require: At or below 3000 feet MSL, remain clear of cloud, in sight of surface and in a flight visibility of at least 1 nm. At or below 3000 feet , remain at least 1 nm horizontally and 1000 feet vertically away from cloud in a flight visibility of at least 5 nm. Above 3000 feet MSL, remain at least 1 nm horizontally and 1000 feet vertically away from cloud in a flight visibility of at least 3nm.

In the event of an aircraft accident, the wreckage: remains the responsibility of the operator to clear away. may not be interfered without the permission of the Accident Inspector. all of the above.

An airplane may not fly in or over Belize unless: the pilot has a Belize licence. It is registered in Belize or a Contracting State. It is registered in Belize.

Weapons and amunitions of war may not be carried in an aircraft : without permission of the Belize Department of Civil Aviation. without the permission of the pilot in command. under any circumstances.

An aircraft weight schedule shows: the weight of the aircraft empty, plus unusable fuel and oil and recorded equipment, the position of the center of gravity at that weight. take off and landing performance related to aircraft weight. where passengers and baggage are loaded in the aircraft.

To make a false entry in a pilot's flying log book: will require a new log book to be completed correctly and the old one destroyed. is an offence for which a pilot's license may be suspended or withdrawn. is an offence liable for imprisonment not exceeding two years and a fine.

Vne define : never exceed speed. maximum landing gear operating speed. maximum landing gear extended speed.

An aircraft in sight of the ground is following a coastline. It should: fly close to the coast over the sea. keep the coastline on its left. fly close to the coast over land.

A notifiable accident occurs to an aircraft in Belize. Details must be sent early as possible to: the aircraft operator. the Director of Civil Aviation. the Air Traffic Control.

Night is defined as the time between: sunset and sunrise. half an hour after sunset and half an hour before sunrise. half an hour before sunset and half an hour before sunrise.

A reportable occurrence should be notified to the Belize Department of Civil Aviation: within 72 hours of the occurrence. within 48 hours of the occurrence. within 10 days of the occurrence.

The airspeed indicator is connected to: the pitot head only. the static head only. both the static head and pitot head.

High cylinder head temperature will cause: slow burning of the fuel / air mixture. detonation. oiling of the plugs.

A stall occurs: when the angle of incidence is increased beyond 15 degrees. only at low airspeed. when the smooth airflow over the upper surface of the wing is disrupted.

A person shall not act as a flight crew member of an aircraft unless he is the holder of : a valid licence issued by Belize or an ICAO contracting state which shows compliance with the specification of the BCAR or the regulations of the state of issue. a license appropriate to the duties to be performed by that person. all of the above.

A person shall not act as a flight crew member of a Belizean registered aircraft unless that person: is the holder of a licence issued by the Brazilian Department of Civil Aviation. Holds a licence that has been rendered valid, converted or has been directly issued by the Belize Department of Civil Aviation or by an ICAO contracting State. all of the above.

A pilot licence issued by any other ICAO Contracting State shall be validated by the BDCA, only to exercise: commercial flights. aerial work privileges. private pilot privileges.

The validity of the medical certificate class 2 for the holder of a private license (aeroplane), who has already celebrated his 40th birthday, shall not exceed: 12 months. 24 months. 36 months.

When a holder of an airline transport pilot license (aeroplane) has passed their 40th birthday, the period of validity of his Class 1 medical certificate shall only allow him to exercise his ATP privileges for a period of: 6 months. 8 months. 15 months.

When the holder of a private pilot license (aeroplane) have passed their 45th birthday, the 24 months period of validity of his class 2 medical certificate shall be reduced to: 3 months. 6 months. 12 months.

Aircraft category classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics is: airplane, helicopter , glider. airplane , glider , free- balloon. airplane , helicopter, glider, free- balloon.

Pilot in command is defined as: pilot designated by the operator and charged with the safe conduct of the flight. The pilot charged with the safe landing and takeoff of the flight. all of the above.

Solo flight time is defined as: flight time during which a pilot is the sole occupant and the sole manipulator of the flight controls of the aircraft. flight time during which a student is not the sole occupant of the aircraft and is not the sole manipulator of the flight controls during the entire flight. flight time during which a student pilot is flying along with an instructor in the aircraft, but the instructor does not have control of the aircraft.

The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not: more than 50 % of co- pilot flight time. more than 25 % of co- pilot flight time. more than 10 % of co- pilot flight time.

An applicant for an Instrument Rating shall hold a: private pilot licence airplane. commercial pilot licence airplane. Either 1 or 2.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may caused by: defective bearing. the oil level being too low. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

The BDCA will not permit a student pilot to fly solo unless the : student pilot holds a current Class 2 Medical Assessment. student pilot holds a current Class 3 Medical Assessment. student pilot holds a current Class 1 Medical Assessment.

For an applicant to obtain a Commercial Pilot Licence shall not be less than: 17 years of age. 18 years of age. 16 years of age.

The Licencing Division of the BDCA shall determine whether experience as a pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer, which is approved , is acceptable as part of the total flight time of : 200 hours. 150 hours. all of the above.

If the privileges of a holder of a Commercial pilot license are to be excercised at night, The applicant shall have received dual instruction in the airplane in night flying, including: take-off and navigation. take-off , landings and navigation. take-off and landings.

The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot license airplane shall: act as pilot in command in a commercial air transportation in an aircraft certified for single- pilot operation. exercise all the privileges of the holder of a private pilot license airplane. all of the above.

An applicant for a Airline Transport Pilot license shall have completed not less than: 1,000 hours of flight time as a pilot of an airplane. 1,500 hours of flight time as a pilot of an airplane. 2,000 hours of flight time as a pilot of an airplane.

When an applicant fails to meet a medical requirement , the Licencing Division of the BDCA shall be informed by the : examiner. medical examiner. all of the above.

An applicant for a Medical Assessment shall undergo a medical examination based on the following: stress. fatigue. hearing.

The applicant for a Class 1 Medical Assessment shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of : hay fever. alcoholism. head ache.

An applicant for a Class 1 Medical Assessment between the ages of 30 and 40 years, as part of the heart examination shall complete an: Electrocardiography. Chest examination. Hearing test.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should: increase his / her breathing rate. rely on aircraft instrument indications. rely on body sensations.

The vertical limits of Seven Hills Range Danger Area are: from the ground up to 18000 feet and its activity state is permanent. from the ground up to 19000 feet and its activity state is temporary. from the ground up to 18000 feet and its activity state is temporary.

The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by: variations in flight altitude. variations in airplane loading. changes in air density.

The performance tables of an aircraft for take-off and climb are based on: cabin altitude. true altitude. pressure / density altitude.

Virga is best described as: wall clouds torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds, which evaporates before reaching the ground. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

Stall speed is affected by: load factor, angle of attack and power. weight , load factor and power. angle of attack, weight and air density.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear ?. it is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction. it can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction. it is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction.

The general circulation of air associated with a high pressure area in the northern hemisphere is: inward, downward and clockwise. Outward, upward and clockwise. outward, downward and clockwise.

Aircraft taxing for departure, shall not cross the holding lines unless the pilot has: broadcasted blind his/ her position and intentions, established two-way communication with inbound traffic, physically observe the approach path of both runways. broadcasted intentions, established communication, observe the approach path of departing runway. broadcasted blind his/ her position and intentions prior to entering the runway for departure.

Immediately before an aircraft flies the commander shall: examine the current reports and forecasts of the weather conditions on the proposed flight. determine that visual meteorological conditions exist at his destination airport. examine the current reports of the weather conditions on the proposed flight.

Reportable occurrence means: any incident which involves person or property. any incident relating to any aircraft, or any defect, or malfunction of any part or equipment , any defect or malfunctioning of any facility on the ground. any incident, or defect , or malfunction relating to any aircraft.

Dangerous goods shall not be carried in an aircraft except as follows: if authorized by the BDCA. if goods are carried in accordance with the regulations. if properly packed and labeled.

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the: aircraft manufacturer. Belize Department of Civil Aviation. pilot in command.

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be: less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds. less stable at all speeds. more stable at low speeds.

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to: determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing. quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion. immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

Arms placed above the head in a vertical position means: slow down. move ahead. come to this bay.

Arms extended palms facing outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of the face means: remove chocks. insert chocks. brakes engaged.

Left arm down. Right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward means. turn to the right. start right engine. Turn to the left.

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stall will: change with an increase in gross weight. remain the same regardless of gross weight. increase if the cg is moved forward.

At the end of every flight , the commander shall enter in the technical log: any defects of the aircraft known to him. times of engines start and engine off. fuel consumed during flight.

If the air mass is stated to be unstable, the likely cloud formation will be: cumulus with tops around 4000 - 6000 feet. stratiform. cumuli- nimbus.

An isobar is shown on the meteorological chart as: a line of equal air pressure. the definition of the extent of low and high pressure areas. a line of equal air temperature.

A turn is movement of the aircraft about its axis in : the rolling plane. the yawing plane. both rolling and yawing planes.

Your aircraft is flying right wing low. To correct for this the trim tab on the right starboard aileron should be: bent up. left alone as it will have no effect. bent down.

Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight?. These forces are equal. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at. the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack. a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack. a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased?. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag.

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the. force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease the drag. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag. An increase in the angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the. chord line. flightpath. longtitudinal axis.

Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all. upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.

Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?. Altitude. Airspeed. Angle of Attack.

In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the. CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. CG is too far rearward and the rotation is around the CG. spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.

If an airplane is loaded to the rear of it's CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its. vertical axis. lateral axis. longtitudinal axis.

An airplane will stall at the same. Angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon.

If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to it's original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released , the airplane displays. positive dynamic stability. positive static stability. neutral dynamic stability.

Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the. loss of the vertical component of lift. loss of the vertical component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force. rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should. maintain the bank and decrease airspeed. increase the bank and increase airspeed. increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift. decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases. increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases. decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant.

Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

What is the best indicator to the pilot of the load factor on the airplane?. How firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver. Amount of pressure required to operate the controls. Airspeed when pulling out of a descent.

A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing platforms, has a tendency to stall first at the. wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root. wing root, with the stall progression toward the wingtip. center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.

Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takoff roll. The primary hazard is loss of control because of the induced roll. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast.

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of the wingtip vortices by. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is. carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs. a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing. a broken magneto ground wire.

Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment. throttle is advanced very abruptly.

The mixture control can be adjusted, which. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes. regulates the amount of air flow through the carburetor's venturi. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs.

What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?. The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases. The density of the air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant.

The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the. throttle. manifold pressure. mixture control.

Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel. decreases while the volume of air decreases. remains constant while the volume of air decreases. remains constant while the density of air decreases.

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for the decreased air density. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density. Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the. engine to overheat. fouling of spark plugs. engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

Leaving the carburetor heat on while taking off. leans the mixture for more power on takeoff. will decrease the takeoff distance. will increase the ground roll.

Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?. it enriches the fuel/air mixture. it leans the fuel/air mixture. it has no effect on the fuel/air mixture.

With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use. aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel-and nosewheel-type airplanes. right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional- gear airplanes. rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.

When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should. rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation. climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identify checkpoints. apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible.

What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance?. As air density decreases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust increases. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

The perfomance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on. pressure/density altitude. cabin altitude. true altitude.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?. 15 degrees celsius and 29.92" Hg. 59 degrees celsius and 1013.2" Hg. 15 degrees celsius and 29.92 Mb.

What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?. -15 degrees celsius. -20 degrees celsius. -25 degrees celsius.

What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?. -5 degrees celsius. -15 degrees celsius. +5 degrees celsius.

An airplane is loaded to a gross weight of 4,800 pounds, with three pieces of luggage in the rear baggage compartment. The CG is located 98 inches aft of datum, which is 1inch aft of limits. If luggage which weighs 90 pounds is moved from the rear baggage compartment (145 inches aft of datum) to the front compartment (45 inches aft of datum ), what is the new CG?. 96.13 inches aft of datum. 95.50 inches aft of datum. 99.87 inches aft of datum.

An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 94.0, approximately how much baggage would have to be moved from the rear baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 40 in order to move the CG to 92.0?. 52.14 pounds. 62.24 pounds. 78.14 pounds.

GIVEN: Total weight.........................3,037 lb CG location station...............68.8 Fuel consumption.................12.7 GPH Fuel CG station.....................68.0 After 1 hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station. 68.77. 68.83. 69.77.

GIVEN: Total weight.........................4,137 lb CG location station...............67.8 Fuel consumption.................13.7 GPH Fuel CG station.....................68.0 After 1 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station. 67.79. 68.79. 70.78. Not Applicable (Ignore).

Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a normal category airplane's baggage compartment which is placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.5 Gs, the total load of the baggage would be. 315 pounds and would be excessive. 315 pounds and would not be excessive. 350 pounds and would not be excessive.

GIVEN: Weight A: 175 pounds at 135 inches aft of datum Weight B: 135 pounds at 115 inches aft of datum Weight C: 75 pounds at 85 inches aft of datum The CG for the combined weights would be located how far aft of datum?. 91.76 inches. 111.67 inches. 118.24 inches.

GIVEN: Weight A: 135 pounds at 15 inches aft of datum Weight B: 205 pounds at 117 inches aft of datum Weight C: 85 pounds at 195 inches aft of datum Based on the information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?. 100.2 inches. 109.0 inches. 121.7 inches.

GIVEN: Weight A: 140 pounds at 17 inches aft of datum Weight B: 120 pounds at 110 inches aft of datum Weight C: 85 pounds at 210 inches aft of datum Based on the information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?. 89.11 inches. 96.89 inches. 106.92 inches.

GIVEN: Weight A: 155 pounds at 45 inches aft of datum Weight B: 165 pounds at 145 inches aft of datum Weight C: 95 pounds at 185 inches aft of datum Based on the information, where would the CG be located aft of datum?. 86.0 inches. 116.8 inches. 125.0 inches.

The CG of an aircraft may be determined by. dividing total arms by total moments. dividing total moments by total weight. multiplying total weight by total moments.

The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?. Dividing total arms by total moments. Multiplying total arms by total weight. Dividing total moments by total weight.

If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the. centerline of the main wheels. nose, or out in front of the airplane. centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of the airplane.

When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes. the unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil. all unusable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage. all usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer.

The visibility entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) of P6SM implies that the prevailing visibility is expected to be greater than. 6 nautical miles. 6 statute miles. 6 kilometers.

Which statement pertaining to the following Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is true?. Wind in the valid period implies surface winds are forecast to be greater than 5KTS. Wind direction is from 160 degrees at 4KTS. Wind direction is from 160 degrees at 4KTS.

What does the contraction VRB in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) mean?. Wind speed is variable throughout the period. Cloud base is variable. Wind direction is variable.

What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)?. Probability of heavy thunderstorms with rain showers below 4000 feet at time 2102. Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of thunderstorms with heavy rain. Beginning at 2102Z forty percent (40%) probability of heavy thunderstorms and rain showers.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover what period time?. Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period. Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour categorical outlook. Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook.

The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuos layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL). 2,500 feet. 3,500 feet. 4,000 feet.

What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI?. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky;rain began at 1912Z. Rain and mist obstructing visibility; rain began at 1812Z. Rain and mist obstructing visibility; rain began at 1812Z.

The remarks section of the Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) contains the following coded information. What does it mean?. Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,200 feet. Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,200 feet. Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage.

What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination?. Rapid variations in windspeed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls. Peak gusts of atleast 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30 degrees or more. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

During the preflight preparation, weather report forecast which are not routinely available at the local service outlet (AFSS) can best be obtained by means of contacting the. weather forecast office (WFD). air route traffic control center. pilot's automatic telephone answering service.

During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the. amount of trim required to relieve control pressures. heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline. power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.

During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause. a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease.

If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to. wind shear. strong surface winds. strong convective currents.

Low-level wind shear may occur when. surface winds are light and variable. there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion. surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and windspeed with height.

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered. near warm and stationary frontal activity. When the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?. It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction. It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction. It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction.

With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?. It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly. It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. It can appear suddenly during the day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.

In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their own formation or location?. Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface. Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation. Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground.

What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds?. Nighttime cooling. Dryness of the underlying land mass. Surface winds approximately 15 knots or stronger.

Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds?. Nighttime cooling. Surface radiation. Wind 15 knots or stronger.

A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is. a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface. an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter. a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.

Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?. Advection fog. Radiation fog. Precipitation-induced fog.

Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to. nocturnal cooling. adiabatic cooling. evaporation of precipitation.

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions ?. The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions. The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes. The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?. 20 miles. 30 miles. 40 miles.

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?. Mature. Developing. Dissipating.

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?. Roll cloud. Continuos updraft. Beginning of rain at the surface.

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?. The start of rain. The appearance of an anvil top. Growth rate of cloud is maximum.

What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms?. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.

Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thundestorm. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.

Which statement is true concerning squall lines?. They form slowly, but move rapidly. They are associated with frontal systems only. They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.

Which statement is true regarding squall lines?. They are always associated with cold fronts. They are slow forming, but rapid in movement. They are non frontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms.

If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least. 20 miles. 10 miles. 5 miles.

Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm. Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.

The most severe weather conditions , such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with. slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause. squall lines. fast-moving occluded fronts.

Hail is most likey to be associated with. cumulus clouds. cumulonimbus clouds. stratocumulus clouds.

Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail?. Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds. Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft. Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.

Virga is best described as. streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and. below rotor clouds. above rotor clouds. below lenticular clouds.

The conditions most favourable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of. stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of atleast 20 knots blowing across the ridge. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of atleast 20 knots blowing across the ridge. moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.

When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the. leeward side when flying with a tailwind. leeward side when flying into the wind. winward side when flying into the wind.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of. lenticular ice formation in calm air. very strong turbulence. heavy icing conditions.

Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front. is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds to be expected?. 4,400 feet. 8,800 feet. 17,600 feet.

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10 degrees celsius and the dewpoint is 1 degree celsius?. 3,000 feet MSL. 4,000 feet MSL. 6,000 feet MSL.

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and. unstable, dry air. Stable, moist air. unstable, moist air.

Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?. Cumuliform clouds. Showery precipitation. Continuous precipitation.

Which is a characteristic of stable air?. Cumuliform clouds. Excellent visibility. Restricted visibility.

When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?. Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds. Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels. Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility.

A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by. poor visibility and smooth air. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. stratiform clouds and continuos precipitation.

What is a characteristic of stable air?. Stratiform clouds. Fair weather cumulus clouds. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.

What are the characteristics of stable air?. Good visibilty; steady precipitation;stratus clouds. Poor visibilty; srteady precipitation;stratus clouds. Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation;cumulus clouds.

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as. instantaneous combustion. detonation. pre-ignition.

Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?. Cirrus clouds. Nimbostratus clouds. Towering cumulus clouds.

The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and. unstable, dry air. stable, moist air. unstable, moist air.

What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?. Fog and low stratus clouds. Continuos heavy precipitation. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be. cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence. cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence. stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather?. Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the. source of lift. stability of the air being lifted. temperature of the air being lifted.

What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?. The method by which the air is lifted. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

Which would increase the stability of an air mass?. Warming from below. Cooling from below. Decrease in water vapor.

Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?. Warming from below. Cooling from below. Decrease in water vapor.

Moisture is added to air by. Sublimation and condensation. evaporation and condensation. evaporation and sublimation.

Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? The temperature spread. decreases as the relative humidity decreases. decreases as the relative humidity increases. increases as the relative humidity increases.

Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system?. a high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. a low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air. a high pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are. close together , the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker. not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

Which is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air. Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.

Which conditions are favourable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are. light. moderate. strong.

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure to low-pressure areas?. Coriolis force. Surface friction. Pressure gradient force.

What causes wind?. The Earth's rotation. Air mass modification. Pressure differences.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of. a heat exchange. the movement of air. a pressure differential.

The DECIDE Model is comprised of a 6- step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are : Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate. Determine evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate. Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.

Which of the following is the first step of the DECIDE Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?. Detect. Identify. Evaluate.

Which of the following is the final step of the DECIDE Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?. Estimate. Evaluate. Eliminate.

A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA. He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY hazardous attitude?. Not so fast, Think first. It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. Don't tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.

The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorm are reported to be in a line across their intended route of flight. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the IMPULSITIVITY reaction?. They want to hurry and get going, before things get worse. A thunderstorn won't stop them. They can't change the weather, so they might as well go.

While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?. What is the worst that could happen. He can handle a little problem like this. It's too late to fix it now.

The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?. Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time. The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.

What does good cockpit stress management begin with?. Knowing what causes stress. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues. Good life stress management.

To help manage cockpit stress pilots must. be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.

What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?. Avoid developing this hazardous thought. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with the modified action. Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.

What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. Dealing with improper judgement. Recognition of hazardous thoughts.

When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO?. Follow the rules. They are usually right. Not so fast. Think first. Taking chances is foolish.

What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsitivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (i can do it). Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgement can be effectively counteracted by. early recognition of hazardous thoughts. taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. understanding the drive to have the "right stuff.". obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.

Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behaviour problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behaviour patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. Performance deficiences from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or sitution awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves.

The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the "right stuff" can have an adverse effect on safety, by. a total disregard for any alternative course of action. generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.

Examples of classic behavioural traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behaviour. complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the "right stuff.".

The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot. making a rational evaluation of the required actions. developing the "right stuff" attitude. identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

Aeronautical Decision making (ADM) is a. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. decision making process which relies on good judgement to reduce the risks associated with each flight. mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.

Risk management ,as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.

To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should. rely on body sensations. increase the breathing rate. rely on aircraft instrument indications.

Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as. humidity decreases. altitude increases. oxygen demand increases.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. Judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should. swallow or yawn. slow the breathing rate. increase the breathing rate.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

Which is most likely to result in hyperventilation?. Insufficient oxygen. Excessive carbon monoxide. Insufficient carbon dioxide.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?. Drowsiness. Decreased breathing rate. A sense of well-being.

As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience. decreased breathing rate and depth. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should. slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected. use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include. turning of all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing. planning the emergency approach and landing to unlighted portion of an area. maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.

What is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions when operating VFR at night?. Ground lights begin to take on an appearance of being surrounded by a halo or glow. A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground. Cockpit lights begin to take on an appearance of a halo or glow around them.

When planning for an emergency landing at night, one of the primary considerations should include. selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible. landing without flaps to ensure a nose high landing attitude at touchdown. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing.

For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the. pupils of the eyes have become dialated in approximately 10 minutes. rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes. cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying. at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course. more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on the magnetic course. at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.

Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating. anytime an engine is in operation. anytime the pilot is in the cockpit. during all types of operations, both day and night.

The "taxiway" ending marker. indicates taxiway does not continue. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

Light beacons producing red flashes indicate. end of the runway warning at departure end. a pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling. obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.

When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in class G airspace, the pilot should. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within class D airspace at night, which is required?. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not to be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums. The class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area. The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.

Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME). Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot. requests an amended clearance. is operating VFR on top. receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.

Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?. ADs are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately. Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unworthy. Compliance with Ads is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. pilot in command of that aircraft. owner or operator of that aircraft.

Which is correct concerning preventative maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?. A record of preventative maintenance is not required. A record of preventative maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records. Records of preventative maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight manual.

Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the. applicable airworthiness certificate. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made. on the airworthiness certificate. in the aircraft maintenance records. in the FAA-approved flight manual.

An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding. 30 days. 12 calendar months. 24 calender months.

Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?. a 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection. An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved.

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?. Anticollision light system. Gyroscopic direction indicator. Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft. after sunset to sunrise. after dark. 1 hour after sunset.

If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight. at sunset. 30 minutes after sunset. 1 hour after sunset.

What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is. headed away from you. crossing to your left. approaching you head-on.

A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left. Each pilot should alter course to the right.

An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. which aircraft has the right-of-way?. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmittor may be operated before the rechargable battery must be recharged is. 30 minutes. 45 minutes. 60 minutes.

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a "primary" category airplane?. A "primary" category airplane is limited to a specified operating radius from it's home base. No person may operate a "primary" category airplane carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. A pilot of a "primary" category airplane must hold a commercial pilot certificate when carrying passengers for compensation or hire.

Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a "retricted" category airplane?. A pilot of a "restricted" category airplane is required to hold a commercial pilot certificate. A "restricted" category airplane is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from it's home base. No Person may operate a "restricted" category airplane carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate. under instrument flight rules (IFR). when carrying property for hire. when carrying persons or property for hire.

The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is. not authorized in a "utility" category aircraft. not authorized in a "limited" category aircraft. authorized in "restricted" category aircraft.

Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?. Flashlight with red lens if the flight is for hire. An electric landing light if the flight is for hire. Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. more than 50 statute miles from shore.

What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?. Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew. Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon. The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

In accordance with BCAR 02, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flight crew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL. 12,000 feet MSL up to an including 18,000 feet MSL. 10,000 feet MSL up to and including 12,000 feet MSL.

Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastened. during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft. while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties. during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must be fastened. only during takeoff and landing. while the crewmembers are at their stations. only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.

The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable to. any flight conducted for compensation or hire. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. IFR flights only.

When is preflight action required , relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?. IFR flights only. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

When operating in a Belize registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?. A manufacturer's Operations Manual. A current , approved Airplane Flight Manual. An Owner's Manual.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?. A certified aircraft mechanic. The pilot in command. The owner or operator.

No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at least. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category. three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours of instrumentsp. six instrument flights and six approaches.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under BCAR 02, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding. 6 calender months. 12 calender Months. 24 calender Months.

Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in. any category aircraft. the same category and class of aircraft to be used. the same category , class,and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is. 1959 CST. 1900 CST. 1800 CST.

To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must. log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor. pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor. receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.

To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under BCAR 02, a person must. receive and log flight training from an authorized flight insructor in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested. hold atleast a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating. within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.

To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must. complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calender months. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor. complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calender months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.

To act as pilot in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to. receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane. obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot in such an airplane. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.

To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to. make atleast six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months. receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency. hold a multiengine airplane class rating.

What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?. All flight time acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot. all flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot. Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.

What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?. Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review. All flight time flown for compensation or hire. Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.

A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following priveleges?. Commercial pilot priveleges through April 30, next year. Commercial pilot priveleges through April 10, 2 years later. Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.

Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?. Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. Single-engine land, multiengine land,single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot- airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers. for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights. for property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM. for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or for hire at night is prohibited.

Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any. aircraft that is certified for more than one pilot. aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certified takeoff weight. multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.

A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons for compensation or hire, if that person. holds appropriate category, class ratings and meets the recent flight experience requirements of BCAR APL. is qualified in accordance with BCAR APL and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation. is qualified in accordance with BCAR APL and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless the. other control seat is occupied by atleast an appropriately rated commercial pilot. pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance. other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds atleast a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.

Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when. piloting for hire only. carrying passengers only. acting as pilot in command.

When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?. All solo flights. On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector. On flights when carrying another person.

Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. Power, pitch,bank, and trim. Thrusts, lift, turns, and glides. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?. 1 minute. 2 minutes. 3 minutes.

What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments?. It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. It is more reliable than the vacuum driven indicators. It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.

What is the operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and slip indicator? The turn coordinator. is always electric; the turn and slip indicator is always vacuum-driven. indicates bank angle only: the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.

Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation. Varies over time as the agonic line shifts. varies for different headings of the same aircraft. is the same for all aircraft in the same locality.

What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?. Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route. 29.92" Hg. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.

To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to. the current altimeter setting. 29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted. the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.

Newer airplanes have a design maneuvering speed that can generally be calculated as follows: 1.2 Vso. 1.7 Vso. half the stall speed.

Define VLE: maximum landing gear extended speed. maximum landing gear operating speed. maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.

Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?. The never-exceed speed. The power-off stall speed. The maneuvering speed.

Define Vy: speed for best rate of descent. speed for best angle of climb. speed for best rate of climb.

Define VNE: maximum nose wheel extend speed. never-exceed speed. maximum landing gear extended speed.

Define VNO: maximum structural cruising speed. never exceed speed. Maximum operating limit speed.

Define VF: design flap speed. flap operating speed. maximum flap extended speed.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?. Vs. Vs1. Vso.

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?. Vs. Vs1. Vso.

Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?. change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed. Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude. set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.

If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to. minimum control speed. design-maneuvering speed. maximum structural cruising speed.

A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence have been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?. Maintain altitude and airspeed. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed.

Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during. abrupt maneuvers. normal operations. flight in smooth air.

True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for. installation or instrument error. non-standard temperature. altitude and non-standard temperature.

Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airpseed corrected for. installation and instrument error. instrument error. non-standard temperature.

Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided?. Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure. Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered. Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.

For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a. small angle of attack and high RPM. large angle of attack and low RPM. large angle of attack and high RPM.

To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and. increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.

The reason for variations in geometric pitch(twisting) along a propeller blade is that it. permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.

A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of. altitude and RPM. airspeed and RPM. airspeed and altitude.

Propeller efficiency is the. A ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution. ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.

In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally -aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being. decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure. increased,increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by. a defective bearing. the oil level being too low. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on. a properly functioning cowl flap augmentor. the circulation of lubricating oil. the proper freon/compressor output ratio.

Detonation can be caused by. a "rich" mixture. low engine temperatures. using a lower grade fuel than recommended.

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as. instantaneous combustion. detonation. pre-ignition.

Detonation may occur at high power settings when. the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly. an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.