COMMUNICATION + FIRE PROTECTION

Q 01: The audio management system allows the flight crew to use: A: All the radio communication and radio navigation facilities installed on the aircraft in transmission and reception mode. B: The interphone system. C: The call systems and Passenger Address (PA) system. D: All of the above.

Q 02: How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?. A: Use the MECH pushbutton on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn. B: Hold the PA button. C: Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP. D: Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP and hold the pushbutton for 2 seconds.

Q 03: On RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls: A: The power supply to the RMP. B: Only the STBY NAV function of the RMP. C: Only the COM function of the RMP.

Q 04: You can tune the ILS receivers to different channels. A: Yes. B: No.

Q 05: Which statement is correct regarding the cockpit voice recorder?. A: Is automatically energized when the battery pb’s are selected on. B: Is always active after DC electrical power is applied to the aircraft. C: Is automatically energized when the parking brake is set. D: Is automatically energized after the first engine start or five minutes after AC electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

Q 06: If the VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word “CALL”. A: An ACARS message is waiting. B: Indicates a SELCAL. C: The N°1 flight attendant is calling. D: ATC is calling.

Q 07: Which ACP switch configuration is correct for communication with other cockpit crew members while wearing your Oxygen Mask?. A: ACP INT/RAD switch selected to INT, INT reception knob on, loud speaker volume up. B: INT transmission key to on, INT reception knob on, use the sidestick push-to-talk when speaking, loud speaker volume up. C: Both are correct.

Q 08: On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton. A: True. B: False.

Q 09: RMP #1 is dedicated to which VHF radios?. A: VHF 1 and 2. B: VHF 2 and 3. C: VHF 1 and 3. D: All radios.

Q 10: If you depress the guarded NAV button, the MCDU RAD NAV pages are inhibited and the RMP controls navaid tuning. A: True. B: False.

Q 11: The AUDIO SWITCHING rotary selector allows replacement of a failed #1 or #2 ACP with ACP #3. A: True. B: False.

Q 12: On the ground, CVR is stopped automatically ______ after the last engine shutdown. A: Immediately. B: 1 minute. C: 3 minutes. D: 5 minutes.

Q 13: Only the last 60 minutes of recording are retained by the CVR. A: True. B: False.

Q 14: To make a PA announcement: A: Depress and hold the PA transmission key push button. B: Use the pedestal mounted headset. C: Both are correct.

Q 15: If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP and frequencies and bars disappear from this RMP. A: True. B: False.

Q 16: If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, SEL light illuminates white: A: On RMP 2. B: On RMP 1. C: On RMP 1 and 2.

Q 17: When looking at either RMP, how is it possible to determine if an RMP is selected to a VHF system it is not dedicated to?. A: The white SEL light will be illuminated on both RMP’s. This is a normal occurrence in-flight. B: The white SEL light is illuminated on the offside RMP. C: The white SEL light is illuminated on the onside RMP.

Q 18: In case of RMP 2 failure, VHF 2 is lost. A: True. B: False.

Q 19: The service interphone has ______ interphone jacks and an OVRD switch located on the overhead panel. A: Five. B: Seven. C: Eight. D: Ten.

Q 20: When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key: A: Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is still possible. B: Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is always possible. C: FMGC auto tuning is inhibited. D: Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is only possible on the offside radio.

Q 21: You receive a SELCAL on VHF 2, what happens on your ACP?. A: Amber sign call flashes on VHF 2 key. B: Three green bars come on. C: White SELCAL appears on VHF 2 pushbutton and VHF 2 reception selector illuminates white. D: All of the above.

Q 22: If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC assigns a new communication frequency, what must be done?. A: The NAV key must be deselected and then press the transfer key. B: Tune the new frequency on the offside RMP. C: Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune using the rotary selector, press the transfer key.

Q 23: When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration: A: RMP’s 1 and 2, and ACP’s 1 and 2 are both operative. B: RMP 1 and ACP’s 1 and 2 are operative. C: RMP 1 and ACP 1 are operative. D: RMP 2 and ACP’s 1 and 2 are operative.

Q 24: With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT3 position, the Captain uses his acoustic equipment on ACP3. A: True. B: False.

Q 25: The flashing amber MECH light indicates that the interphone system is faulty. A: True. B: False.

Q 26: What is the function of the Guarded EMER push button on the overhead panel?. A: To alert ATC of an in-flight emergency. B: To alert the aft flight attendants of a routine need to speak to them. C: To alert all flight attendants of a pending urgent need to speak to them.

Q 27: Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the flight attendants are calling the cockpit?. A: PA. B: CAB. C: ALERT. D: VHF3.

Q 28: Is STBY/NAV tuning possible on RMP 3. A: Yes. B: No.

Q 29: Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?. A: By his or her first name. B: Using the ACP CAB pb. C: Using an overhead FWD or AFT call pushbutton. D: Selecting the ATTND ADV pushbutton on.

Q 30: The BFO key enables the beat frequency oscillator for listening to the ID signal. A: True. B: False.

Q 31: Pressing the _____ key, on the audio control panel, allows the crew to inhibit the audio navigation signals. A: VOICE. B: RESET. C: ATT. D: BFO.

Q 32: If ATC mode selector is at AUTO: A: Selected ATC operates only in flight. B: Selected ATC operates when FLEX or TOGA power is selected for takeoff. C: Selected ATC operates as soon as one engine is running.

Q 33: On ATC Control Panel, the FAULT light comes on if: A: Selected Transponder fails. B: System 1 or 2 has failed.

Q 34: In case of dual FMGC failure selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with: A: RMP 1 only. B: RMP 1 and 2 only. C: RMP 1, 2 and 3.

Q 35: All communications radios are controlled: A: From the audio control panels (ACPs). B: By the F/O. C: From any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).

Q 36: Only _____ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration. A: RMP 3. B: RMP 1. C: RMP1 and 3.

Q 37: The Cockpit Voice Recorder will record: A: Direct conversations between crewmembers. B: All aural cockpit warnings. C: Communications over radio and intercom. D: Passenger address system announcements (as long as one PA reception knob is selected on). E: All of the above.

Q 38: The cockpit voice recorder will automatically operate on the ground for _______ minutes after electrical power is supplied to the airplane; or when at least _______ engine is operating. A: 6 – 2. B: 5 – 1. C: 5 – 2. D: 4 – 1.

Q 39: When using the boom mike, oxygen mask mike, or hand mike: the PA key must be pressed and held to use the aircraft PA system. A: True. B: False.

Q 40: When the ON voice key on an Audio Control Panel is pushed in; ADF and VOR ident signals are inhibited. A: True. B: False.

Q 41: With the INT/RAD switch of an Audio Control Panel (ACP) in the INT position and the sidestick Transmit Switch in the Transmit position, you are transmitting on the: A: Intercom at all times. B: Radio selected by the transmission switch on the Audio Control Panel. C: Radio selected by the reception knob on the Audio Control Panel.

Q 42: To transmit and receive on the service interphone, the pilot must select the: A: CAB reception knob and the ATT transmission key on the ACP. B: CAB reception knob and the MECH transmission key on the ACP. C: Service Int on the nose gear panel.

Q 43: To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine: A: Select the INT/RAD selector to INT, and INT audio selector on. B: Select the transmission key push button labeled INT and the INT audio selector. C: Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector labeled CAB.

Q 44: Illumination of the SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel indicates: A: The RMP has failed. B: The VHF has failed. C: The RMP is being tuned to a transceiver from another RMP.

Q 45: When would a green AM light illuminate on RMP 1?. A: Would not illuminate. B: If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF1 and AM. C: If crew has selected HF1 and single side band mode. D: If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF 2 and AM.

Q 46: A VOR is tuned on RMP 1 using the STBY NAV function. Can this selection be seen on the MCDU RAD NAV page?. A: No. Information on RAD NAV page is not available when the NAV pb on RMP is pressed. B: Yes. Information on RAD NAV page is always available. C: No. It is not possible to tune a VOR using STBY NAV function. D: Yes. MCDU RAD NAV page shows VORs tuned using STBY NAV function.

Q 47: Is it possible to tune a navaid with the STBY NAV function on RMP 3?. A: Yes. B: No. STBY NAV function is not available on RMP 3. C: No. RMP 3 is not available for crew use. D: Yes but only on the ground.

Q 48: How can a navaid tuned through the STBY NAV on RMP 1 or 2 be identified?. A: The ident appears on the ND. B: By pressing out the corresponding reception knob on the ACP. C: All of the above.

Q 49: If an RMP fails: A: The selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP. B: The frequency displays disappear. C: The green VHF or HF lights go out. D: All of the above.

Q 50: With the MECH transmission key on the Audio Control Panel pressed: A: The flight interphone channel is selected for transmission via the ACP RAD switch or the side stick radio selector. B: The cabin interphone channel is selected for transmission via the ACP RAD switch. C: You can speak to the ground mechanic via the handset. D: The mechanic will hear the external horn sound.

Q 51: How could you receive ATIS information from a VOR?. A: Pressing the ON voice key on the ACP. B: Pressing and releasing out the VOR reception knob and selecting the ON voice key on the ACP. C: Voice facility is not available through the ACP. D: None of the above.

Q 52: How do you cancel the ON VOICE green light?. A: By depressing the on voice p/b. B: By pressing in the VOR reception knob. C: By pressing in twice the VOR reception knob. D: By depressing the VOR reception knob.

Q 53: Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?. A: OFF switch. B: Only able to deactivate from cabin (#1 Flight attendant). C: COMMAND switch. D: HORN SHUT OFF.

Q 01: The avionics compartment is the only area where there is no fire extinguishing system installed. A: True. B: False.

Q 02: Engine fire loops are installed in the: A: Pylon nacelle. B: Core. C: Fan. D: All the above.

Q 03: If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within _____ seconds of each other a _____ will occur. A: 8 sec./ a FIRE warning. B: 7 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM. C: 10 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM. D: 5 sec./ a FIRE warning.

Q 04: The aircraft has dual fire detector loops to ensure that a fault in one fire loop will not affect fire detection capabilities. A: True. B: False.

Q 05: If there is an APU fire in flight the APU: A: Will automatically shut down and the fire bottle will discharge. B: Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged. C: Must be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.

Q 06: Fire protection for the cargo compartments includes: A: Two fire bottles; one for each compartment. B: One single shot fire extinguisher for the aft compartment only. C: One single shot fire extinguisher agents which can be discharged to either compartment.

Q 07: The engine extinguishing agent switch is armed when: A: The DISCH light is on. B: The engine fire switch illuminates. C: The engine fire switch is released out.

Q 08: When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out: A: The Fire bottle is discharged. B: The Fuel HP valve is closed. C: The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.

Q 09: DISCH light on either the engine or APU fire agent switches indicates: A: The APU or engine FIRE switch has been pushed. B: The extinguisher bottle has been discharged. C: A fault has occurred in the respective fire bottle.

Q 10: The GEN 1 LINE smoke light indicates: A: A fire caused by number 1 generator. B: Smoke in the avionics ventilation system. C: Smoke in the cargo ventilation system.

Q 11: Can the APU FIRE test be performed using battery power only?. A: Yes. B: No.

Q 12: When the aircraft is on the ground and the APU is started on battery power only, is fire protection available?. A: Yes, the APU will initiate an auto shutdown and discharge the extinguishing agent. B: No, but the APU will initiate an auto shutdown. C: No, automatic fire protection is only available if AC power is available.

Q 13: How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?. A: One. B: Two. C: One cylinder shared with the aft cargo compartment. D: Two cylinders shared with the aft cargo compartment.

Q 14: APU fire detection is accomplished by: A: A two channel SDCU located in the APU compartment. B: Two parallel fire detection loops. C: One fire detection loop. D: A three channel SDCU located in the APU compartment.

Q 15: Engine heat sensing are located in pylon nacelle, engine core and fan section. A: True. B: False.

Q 16: After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime continue to sound?. A: Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button. B: Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU FIRE push button. C: Both are correct.

Q 17: STATUS page: INOP SYS indicates “ENG1 LOOP B”. A: One fire detection loop has failed. Fire detection for both engines is not available. B: One detection loop for engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still available. C: One fire detection loop of engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative. D: Both fire detection loops of engine 1 have failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative.

Q 18: Which of the following have automatic fire extinguishing systems?. A: APU, and lavatory waste bins. B: APU, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay. C: APU, aft cargo, forward cargo, lavatory waste bins and avionics bay. D: APU, forward and aft cargo, lavatory and waste bins.

Q 19: The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of: A: A dual loop smoke detector. B: Four smoke detectors and a two channel smoke detection control unit. C: One smoke detector, one smoke detection control unit and two automatically discharging fire extinguishers. D: Three smoke detectors, one smoke detection control unit and two automatically discharging fire extinguishers.

Q 20: If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator light extinguish?. A: When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button. B: Only after the fire warning no longer exists. C: Only after the crew selects the adjacent ENG MASTER switch to off.

Q 21: How long will the red APU FIRE pb on the overhead be illuminated?. A: Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU FIRE push button. B: For as long as the fire warning is present. C: Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.

Q 22: With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?. A: There are two fire bottles, one for the FWD compartment and one for the AFT. B: There is only one fire bottle, pressing either DISCH pushbutton discharges it into both compartments. C: There is only one fire bottle, when it is discharged both amber DISCH lights come on. D: There are two fire bottles, when the DISCH pushbutton is pressed, they are both discharged into the appropriate compartment.

Q 23: Should you lose both loops or FDU, fire detection is no longer available for the respective engine or the APU. A: True. B: False.

Q 24: What is indicated by a missing red APU thermal plug during an exterior preflight?. A: This is normal indication, the red APU thermal plug only appears if the APU halon cylinder is low. B: An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred. C: An external fire discharge has been activated.

Q 25: If an engine fire is detected, when will the guarded red ENG FIRE push button light extinguish?. A: Only after the fire warning no longer exists. B: When the crew pushes and releases the guarded red ENGINE FIRE pushbutton. C: When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN pushbutton. D: When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN pushbutton and then releases the guarded ENGINE FIRE pushbutton.

Q 26: In the event a lavatory smoke detector detects smoke: A: Warnings will be generated only in the cockpit. B: Warnings will be generated only on the flight deck. C: warnings will be generated in the cockpit and in the cabin.

Q 27: Are there any warnings to alert ground personnel when there is a fire in the APU compartment?. A: Yes, but only if previously selected to automatic by the ground personnel. B: No, APU fire indications are only present in the cockpit. C: Yes, the external fire warning horn will sound and the APU red fire light will illuminate.

Q 28: What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE FIRE push button is pushed and released?. A: The Master Warning and the chime will be canceled and the AGENT pb’s will be armed. B: All fluids, pneumatics and electrics relating to that engine are shut off. C: Both are correct.

Q 29: The avionics smoke detection system consists of the following: A: A smoke detector, smoke detection control unit and one halon cylinder. B: A smoke detector, and smoke detection control unit. C: A smoke detector, heat detector, smoke detection control unit and one halon cylinder. D: A smoke detector, smoke detection control unit and two halon cylinders.

Q 30: Will an APU fire test shut down the APU?. A: Yes. B: No.

Q 31: Illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light indicates: A: A fire has been detected in the avionics compartment. B: A satisfactory test of the avionics compartment smoke detection control unit. C: Smoke has been detected in the avionics compartment ventilation duct. D: A fire has been detected in the electronics compartment.

Q 32: In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke: A: Extinguishing is automatic. B: Extinguishing is automatic only while on the ground. C: The crew must depress the appropriate DISCH switch.

Q 33: How many halon fire extinguishing cylinders are there per engine?. A: Each engine has two fire extinguishers. B: Each engine has it’s own dedicated fire extinguisher and has the capability to share the other engine’s cylinder. C: Each engine has it’s own dedicated fire extinguisher and has the capability to share one centrally located halon cylinder. D: Each engine has one fire extinguisher.

Q 34: The APU provides for automatic fire extinguishing: A: On the ground only. B: On the ground and in flight. C: Only when selected to automatic by ground personnel.

Q 35: You have detected avionics smoke. You have selected the GEN 1 LINE push button off and the RAT has been deployed. Generator 2 has been removed from the system. Which of the following is TRUE?. A: The cargo fire bottle automatically fires. B: The avionics fire bottle automatically discharges. C: The aircraft will be in the Emergency Electrical Configuration.

Q 36: In conjunction with illumination of the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light and MASTER CAUT light: A: The BLOWER and EXTRACT push button FAULT lights will be illuminated. B: Only the BLOWER FAULT light will be illuminated. C: Only the EXTRACT FAULT light will be illuminated.

Q 37: After depressing the CARGO SMOKE TEST push button once, a satisfactory test of the aft cargo compartment smoke detector consist of: A: Two complete cycles with associated warnings. B: Not needed as this system self-tests during the first engine start. C: One complete cycle with associated warnings. D: Three complete cycles with associated warnings.

Q 38: How does the APU fire test on battery power differ from the APU fire test with all busses powered?. A: There is no difference. B: While on battery power, only the red APU FIRE and AGENT/DISCH push button will illuminate. C: It is not possible to test the APU fire protection while on battery power.

Q 39: If you perform the APU FIRE TEST with only DC power available, you get the MASTER WARN on the ECAM. A: True. B: False.

Q 40: In the event an aft cargo compartment smoke detector detects smoke: A: Only an ECAM message will be generated. B: Only a MASTER WARN and a CRC will be generated. C: A MASTER WARN, CRC and an ECAM message will be generated. D: A CRC and an ECAM message will be generated.

Q 41: During the walk-around, you have to check that the APU Fire extinguisher overpressure indication (green disc) is in place. This is an indication that the fire bottle has not been discharged. A: True. B: False.

Q 42: The AFT SMOKE light closes the aft cargo inlet and outlet isolation valves and shuts off the aft cargo extraction fan. A: True. B: False.

Q 43: Each lavatory is equipped with: A: Two smoke detectors and one smoke detection control unit. B: One smoke detector and one smoke detection control unit. C: One smoke detector, and for lavatory waste bins, an automatically discharging fire extinguisher. D: Two smoke detectors and two automatically discharging fire extinguishers.

Q 44: Each engine nacelle and pylon area is equipped with: A: Two fire detection loops. B: A single fire detection loop. C: Two smoke detectors and two fire detection loops. D: A single fire detection loop and a single smoke detector.

Q 45: In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test will display which of the following (AC power available)?. A: The CRC and red MASTER WARN light indicate a positive engine fire test. B: Lower ECAM engine page, pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button and the AGENT SQUIB/DISC lights illuminate. C: E/WD red 1 (2) ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push button, and AGENT SQUIB/DISCH.

Q 46: If an APU fire is detected on the ground, the APU shuts down automatically and the agent is discharged ______ after the warning is activated. A: Immediately. B: 1 second. C: 3 seconds. D: 6 seconds.