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Each EEC channel is able to control engine subsystem ___. A. fuel injectors. B. ignition systems. C. torque motors and solenoids. D. compressor blades.

In FADEC, one channel controls (Active) while the other channel ___. A. observes (Inactive). B. supports (Backup). C. monitors (Standby). D. commands (Master).

In case of an input failure, the control channel can access the inputs of the monitor channel through the ___. A. engine control unit. B. inter-channel bus. C. power supply unit. D. overspeed protection unit.

Most FADEC operations are based on the same principle: as a response to a demand from the aircraft or from the ___. A. EEC internal schedules. B. pilot's manual control. C. engine subsystem. D. fuel supply system.

The EEC controls fuel flow through the metering valve in the ___. A. fuel pump. B. fuel filter unit. C. Fuel Metering Unit (FMU). D. fuel injector.

The active channel controls the starter control valve and the ___. A. EIVMU. B. PCU. C. ICU. D. DCU.

The EEC keeps the oil temperature within limits by controlling the air modulating valve of the ___. A. fuel metering unit. B. air conditioning system. C. Air Oil Heat Exchanger (AOHE). D. thrust reverser.

The High Pressure Valve (HPV), supplying the aircraft pneumatic system, is electrically controlled to the closed position by the EEC following ___. A. a manual command. B. engine shutdown. C. specific engine operating conditions. D. fuel flow.

The OPU is designed to initiate an immediate engine shut down in case of ___. A. fuel leakage. B. Rotor OverSpeed (ROS). C. engine overheat. D. ignition failure.

The LP TOS protection circuit cuts off the fuel supply through the FMU in the event of a ___. A. high-pressure compressor failure. B. low-pressure turbine overheat. C. LP shaft breakage. D. fuel pump malfunction.

The electrical power supply to the EEC is controlled by the ___. A. EIVMU. B. PCU. C. ICU. D. fuel control unit.

When the engine is running, a dedicated alternator supplies electrical power to the EEC through the ___. A. PCU. B. FADEC. C. FMU. D. ICU.

For ground maintenance or in case of loss of dedicated alternator power, an alternate stand-by power source is supplied to the EEC from the ___. A. hydraulic system. B. auxiliary power unit. C. aircraft battery. D. aircraft 115 VAC network.

The EEC controls the engine during the start sequence by controlling the ___. A. PRSOV. B. fuel injectors. C. starter control valve and PCU. D. overspeed protection unit.

The Turbine Impingement Cooling (TIC) system is controlled by the EEC to ___. A. cool the combustion chamber. B. maintain oil pressure. C. optimize turbine blade clearance. D. regulate fuel flow.

The EEC controls the thrust reverser system operation through the ___. A. FADEC. B. OPU. C. Isolation Control Unit (ICU) and Direction Control Unit (DCU). D. fuel metering unit.

The dedicated alternator also supplies power to the ___. A. PCU. B. EIVMU. C. FADEC. D. OPU.

The FADEC incorporates three main subsystems: engine control, overspeed protection, and ___. A. thrust management. B. power supply. C. fuel regulation. D. temperature control.

The EEC controls the airflow through the IP and HP compressors by means of the ___. A. fuel injectors. B. Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs). C.ignition system. D. fuel flow transmitter.

Engine starting, motoring, and ignition sequences are selected by the ___. A. EIVMU. B. APU. C. pneumatic starter. D. Engine Electronic Controller (EEC).

The starting system uses air from a ground air supply, the APU, or ___. A. fuel system. B. ignition system. C. the other engine already started. D. hydraulic system.

The primary components of the engine pneumatic starting system are the Starter Control Valve (SCV) and ___. A. the hydraulic starter. B. the electronic starter. C. the pneumatic starter. D. the fuel injector.

The pneumatic starter rotates the HP rotor (N3) through an external gearbox module input shaft during ___. A. motoring. B. ignition. C.starting. D. cooling.

An oil level sight glass is installed on the starter case for ___. A. fuel level indication. B. oil level indication. C. hydraulic pressure indication. D. coolant level indication.

The continuous operation of the pneumatic starter must be limited in accordance with the limits outlined in the ___. A. Engine Control Unit (ECU). B. Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM). C. Engine Interface and Vibration Monitoring Unit (EIVMU). D. Electronic Engine Controller (EEC).

The airflow control system's function is to maintain a stable airflow through the IP and HP compressors at any thrust ranges to prevent engine stall or surge. TRUE. FALSE.

The VIGV/VSV actuating mechanism is responsible for converting the linear movement of the actuator into the angular movement of the VIGVs and VSVs. TRUE. FALSE.

The IP and HP bleed valves are controlled to remain closed during engine starting and low engine speed. FALSE. TRUE.

The bleed valve solenoid unit has two electrical connectors for EEC channel A and B electrical control. TRUE. FALSE.

If a failure of the electrical supply occurs, the VIGVs and VSVs are moved to their failsafe position, which corresponds to a high-speed position. FALSE. TRUE.

Each solenoid valve in the bleed valve solenoid unit has only one coil linked to either EEC channel A or channel B. TRUE. FALSE.

Air is supplied from internal sources only to decrease the engine temperature through internal and external cooling. FALSE. TRUE.

The nacelle cooling system divides the engine into three zones to ensure proper ventilation and temperature control. TRUE. FALSE.

The ventilation air in Zone 1 (Fan Case Compartment) is exhausted through an opening in the upper part of the right hand fan cowl door. FALSE. TRUE.

Zone 3 (Core Engine Compartment) is ventilated by air from the HP compressor. TRUE. FALSE.

The FADEC electronic boxes, including the EEC, PCU, and OPU, are located in the protection box. TRUE. FALSE.

The EEC calculates the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) using the total pressure at the engine inlet (P20) and the total pressure at the core engine outlet (P50). TRUE. FALSE.

The throttle control lever position is not used by the EEC to compute the EPR rating limit. TRUE. FALSE.

The Engine MASTER lever interfaces with both the fuel system and the FADEC system. TRUE. FALSE.

The ENGine FIRE pushbutton and the Engine MASTER lever both act on the LP fuel valve. TRUE. FALSE.

The vibration monitoring system only provides indications of the state of balance for the N1 and N2 engine rotors. FALSE. TRUE.

The N1 trim balance probe sends signals to the RCC. FALSE. TRUE.

The vibration transducer contains one piezo-electric crystal stack element. TRUE. FALSE.

The EIVMU uses data from the RCC, the EEC, and the vibration transducer to determine the N1, N2, and N3 rotor vibration levels. TRUE. FALSE.

Where is the vibration junction box located?. A. On the right engine intermediate case. B. On the left engine intermediate case. C. On the fan case LH side. D. On the fan case RH side.

What signals are sent from the RCC to the EIVMU?. A. Amplified signals. B. Modulated signals. C. Unfiltered signals. D. A and B are correct.

How is Zone 1 ventilated?. A. Ram air ducted through an opening on top of the air intake cowl. B. Ram air ducted through an opening on bottom of the air intake cowl. C. Ram air ducted through an opening on top of the air intake cowls. D. Ram air ducted through an opening on bottom of the air intake cowls.

Where are the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC), Power Control Unit (PCU), and Overspeed Protection Unit (OPU) located?. A. Left fan case. B. Right fan case. C. Right engine intermediate case. D. Left engine intermediate case.

How is the thrust reverser primarily controlled?. A. EEC. B. EIVMU. C. FCPC. D. LGCIU.

Which component receives the "aircraft on ground" signal?. A. EEC. B. TCU. C. LGCIU. D. EIVMU.

What is the additional layer of protection called on the A330?. A. TCU. B. TLS. C. EIVMU. D. FCPC.

The EEC primarily controls the thrust reverser. TRUE. FALSE.

The EIVMU receives the "aircraft on ground" signal from the FCPC. TRUE. FALSE.

The TLS is an additional layer of protection controlled by the EEC. TRUE. FALSE.

The FCPC releases the tertiary locks when throttle control levers are in the IDLE position. TRUE. FALSE.

The EEC sends a DEPLOY signal to the thrust reverser when throttle control levers are moved to the reverse position. TRUE. FALSE.

The EIVMU receives the "thrust reverse selected" signal from the LGCIU. TRUE. FALSE.

The TLS mechanically locks each pivoting door in the stowed position. TRUE. FALSE.

The FCPC controls the hydraulic latches to unlock the reversers. TRUE. FALSE.

The EEC controls the ground for the relay that energizes the Permission Switch. TRUE. FALSE.

The FCPC releases the tertiary locks based on the "aircraft on ground" signal. TRUE. FALSE.

The oil system primarily aims to cool engine internal drives and gears. TRUE. FALSE.

The oil tank can be refilled using a pump from an external source. TRUE. FALSE.

The pressure pump in the oil system increases pressure to supply oil to the AOHE. TRUE. FALSE.

The primary function of the FOHE is to cool the fuel. TRUE. FALSE.

The AOHE and FOHE have relief valves to bypass excessive pressure. TRUE. FALSE.

The oil flows to the LP turbine bearing chamber after passing through the FOHE. TRUE. FALSE.

The AOHE is controlled by the Flight Control Primary Computers (FCPC). TRUE. FALSE.

The EEC uses the oil temperature as the primary control parameter for the AOHE. TRUE. FALSE.

The AOHE modulating valve can only be deactivated manually. TRUE. FALSE.

The oil system has a total capacity of 20.7 litres. TRUE. FALSE.

What is the function of the engine nacelle?. A. Engine protection, ventilation, noise reduction, reverse thrust. B. Controls engine speed and thrust. C. Supplies fuel to the engine. D. Monitors engine performance.

How is the inlet cowl anti-iced?. A. Hot engine bleed air. B. Electric heating elements. C. Hydraulic heating system. D. Heated fuel.

What type of material is used to manufacture the fan cowls?. A. Aluminum. B. Carbon fiber reinforced plastic. C. Titanium alloy. D. Stainless steel.

Where is the fan cowl chine located?. A. On the outboard fan cowl. B. On the inboard fan cowl. C. At the 12:00 position. D. At the 6:00 position.

How many quick-release hinge pins attach the fan cowls to the engine strut?. A. Two. B. Four. C. Six. D. Eight.

What is the purpose of the chevrons on the thrust reverser sleeves?. A. Improve aerodynamic performance. B. Reduce engine noise. C. Increase engine thrust. D. Decrease fuel consumption.

Which system operates the fan cowls and thrust reversers for maintenance access?. A. Manual lever system. B. Electrical motor system. C. Powered Door Opening System (PDOS). D. Pneumatic system.

What position is the access panel for the P20/T20 probe located on the inlet cowl?. A. 0,125. B. 0,25. C. 0,375. D. 0,5.

What should you not do in wind speeds of more than 40 knots?. A. Start the APU. B. Open the fan cowls. C. Remove the engine mounts. D. Perform engine maintenance.

What type of thrust reverser does the system use?. A. Blocker door. B. Clamshell. C. Cascade. D. Pivoting door.

The power plant cowls give the engine an ____. A. aerodynamic shape. B. aerodynamic lift. C. increased thrust. D. reduced weight.

The fan cowl attaches to the engine strut with ____. A. quick-release hinge pins. B. bolts. C. rivets. D. clamps.

The fan cowl latches hold the ____. A. fan case closed. B. inlet cowl closed. C. thrust reverser closed. D. nacelle closed.

The PDOS is used to ____. A. open fan cowls and thrust reversers. B. increase engine thrust. C. reduce engine noise. D. start the engine.

Engine vents and drains are inspected as part of ____. A. routine tasks. B. emergency procedures. C. engine overhaul. D. flight operations.

Engine mounts attach the engine to the ____. A. wing pylon. B. fuselage. C. landing gear. D. tail section.

The RR Trent 1000 engine is designed to power the ____. A. Boeing 787. B. Airbus A380. C. Boeing 737. D. Airbus A320.

The strut (pylon) ensures all interfaces between the ____. A. aircraft wing and the power plant. B. fuselage and the power plant. C. landing gear and the power plant. D. tail section and the power plant.

The nacelle supplies a smooth airflow around the ____. A. engine and its accessories. B. landing gear. C. fuselage. D. tail section.

The nacelle also supplies ____. A. engine protection and ventilation. B. landing gear retraction. C. fuselage protection. D. tail section stabilization.

Noise reduction is a function of the ____. A. nacelle. B. fuselage. C. landing gear. D. tail section.

Reverse thrust is achieved by the ____. A. nacelle. B. fuselage. C. landing gear. D. tail section.

The nacelle components attach to the ____. A. engine or the pylon. B. landing gear. C. fuselage. D. tail section.

The nacelle includes the ____. A. air inlet cowl, fan cowl doors, thrust reverser cowls, and exhaust system. B. landing gear doors, fuselage panels, tail section, and wings. C. engine mounts, control surfaces, flaps, and slats. D. cockpit, passenger cabin, cargo bay, and tail section.

The inlet cowl is a ____. A. four-piece composite structure with an aluminum lip skin. B. two-piece metal structure with a plastic lip skin. C. single-piece composite structure with a titanium lip skin. D. multi-piece metal structure with a composite lip skin.

The leading edge of the inlet cowl uses ____. A. engine bleed air for Engine Anti-Icing (EAI) protection. B. hydraulic fluid for de-icing. C. electrical heaters for de-icing. D. fuel for anti-icing.

The PDOS control switches are located on ____. A. each side of the inlet cowl and the aft bulkhead. B. the engine pylon and the fuselage. C. the tail section and the wings. D. the landing gear doors and the cockpit.

The inboard fan cowl on each engine has a ____. A. chine to control airflow direction. B. strut for structural support. C. flap for airflow control. D. notch for weight reduction.

The fan cowl latch assemblies hold the ____. A. left and right fan cowl panels closed. B. upper and lower fan cowl panels closed. C. inner and outer fan cowl panels closed. D. front and rear fan cowl panels closed.