CUESTIONARIO BOEING 787

What material is predominantly used in the wing and fuselage structure of the 787?. Aluminum. Titanium. CFRP. Steel.

What are the primary advantages of CFRP?. High weight. Strong and stiff. Strong and Less weight. Less weight.

How much longer is the 787-9 compared to the 787-8?. 100 inches. 200 inches. 240 inches. 120 inches.

How many manufacturing sections does the fuselage have?. Five. Six. Seven. Eight.

How many lower cargo doors are on the right side of the airplane?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Where is the aft external power receptacle located on the 787?. Just aft of the wing on the left side. Under the center of the airplane. Under the aft fuselage. Near the right wing.

What type of system is the flight control system on the 787?. Manual. Hydraulic. Fly By Wire (FBW). Mechanical.

Which of the following is an IFCS software function?. Engine Control Function. Primary Flight Control Function (PFCF). Cabin Pressurization Function. Landing Gear Function.

What is the location of the P2 panel in the flight compartment?. Left forward. Center forward. Right forward. Aft aisle stand.

Where is the E11 rack located in the lower cargo compartment?. Forward of the aft cargo door opening. Aft of the forward cargo door opening. Aft of the aft cargo door opening. Forward of the bulk cargo door opening.

What is located in the E4 rack?. Left SATCOM transceiver. Remote Power Distribution Unit (RPDU) 92. P100 power distribution panel. Left inboard EBAC.

Which rack houses the Captain and first officer Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) Electronics Units (EU)?. E3 rack. E7 rack. E2 rack. E8 rack.

Which network on the 787 connects the Common Computing Resource (CCR) cabinet to airplane systems?. ARINC 429. CAN. Common Data Network (CDN). 10/100 Base T.

What properties are improved because of the common core system (CCS)?. Fewer faults, Lower cost, Lower weight. Increased complexity, Higher maintenance, Higher cost. Greater redundancy, Enhanced performance, Longer lifespan. Reduced efficiency, Limited functionality, Reduced safety.

What is the purpose of the remote data concentrators (RDCs) in the CCS?. Convert conventional-type data into ARINC 664. Enhance power distribution in the CCR cabinets. Facilitate communicativo between cabin systems. Improve aircraft navigation accuracy.

What is the function of the power conditioning modules (PCM) in the CCR cabinets?. Supply power to the individual components and control the cabinet fan and valve assemblies. Process data for avionics systems. Transmit signals between different LRUs. Monitor cabin temperature and humidity.

What is the primary function of the common core system (CCS)?. To provide a common processing and data network for multiple airplane systems. To control cabin lighting and temperature. To manage passenger seating arrangements. To monitor aircraft fuel levels.

How many ARINC 664 network cabinet switches (ACS) are there per CCR cabinet?. One. Two. Three. Four.

The valve in the auxiliary cooling system is always open to allow airflow. True. False.

The CCR cabinets do not include graphic generator (GG) modules. True. False.

How does a GPM respond to an overtemperature condition?. Continues operation with reduced performance. Switches to backup mode. Stops its operation. Sends an alert to the pilot.

How many independent data paths do ACS modules provide in each CCR cabinet?. One. Two. Three. Four.

How many FOX modules are there in each CCR cabinet?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What is the primary role of the RDCs in the Boeing 787 aircraft system?. To manage cabin pressure. To interface between network switches and airplane systems. To control engine thrust. To regulate cockpit lighting.

The ARSs are integral parts of the common data network (CDN). True. False.

How long does it take for network switches, FOX modules, and RDCs to start up?. Less than 30 seconds. Less than 45 seconds. Less than 60 seconds. Less than 90 seconds.

What is the function of the GGs in the PDS?. To control display brightness. To process and format display data. To manage flight deck controls. To control the HUD projectors.

How many fiber-optic pixel bus inputs does each HDD have?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

The Primary Display System (PDS) shows four types of display formats on five Head-Down Displays (HDD). False. True.

How is data on the PFD controlled?. Using the lower half of the EFIS control panel. Using the onside EFIS control panel. Using the flight deck controls. Automatically adjusted based on flight conditions.

What are the available display formats of the Navigation Display (ND)?. MAP mode only. PLAN mode only. MAP and PLAN modes. Wide format only.

The maintenance pages menu can be accessed by pushing the SYS switch on the EFIS/DSP control panel. True. False.

The DISPLAY SELECTION menu provides access to columns labeled REAL, MANUAL, and AUTO. True. False.

What conditions trigger the master warning lights?. EICAS warning level message and time-critical warnings. EICAS caution level message and advisories. Cabin pressure loss and electrical system failure. Passenger seatbelt signs and galley temperature alerts.

What does pushing the AURAL CANCEL switch do?. Stops any active aural alerts and turns on the amber CANCEL light. Activates additional aural alerts and turns off the master caution lights. Resets the EICAS warning messages and activates the master warning lights. Initiates a diagnostic test of the caution and warning system.

The Display and Crew Alerting Function (DCAF) is a Hosted Application (HA) located in the Common Computing Resource (CCR) cabinets. True. False.

How is CMCF data typically distributed?. Flight deck printer, Mass storage device (MSD), Airline via ACARS. Cabin crew tablets, Maintenance laptops, Ground station computers. Electronic flight bags (EFB), Aircraft maintenance computers, Pilot tablets. Cockpit displays, Crew handheld devices, Ground station printers.

What triggers the central maintenance source switching inhibit?. Ground tests operation, Data load operation, One CMCF failure, Onboard engine balancing system operation. Airborne maintenance operation, Cabin system testing, External sensor calibration, Avionics software update. Cabin crew alert, Avionics bay overheating, Flight control system malfunction, Air traffic control system failure. Aircraft refueling, Passenger boarding, Cargo loading, Gate departure.

How does the primary CMCF handle configuration differences with the secondary CMCF?. Displays a warning dialog box. Initiates a system reboot. Sends an error report to maintenance. Updates the secondary CMCF automatically.

What types of faults are considered in the fault isolation process?. EICAS messages, Observed faults, Cabin faults. Engine failures, Wing damage, Fuel leaks. Landing gear issues, Wing icing, Tail strikes. Passenger complaints, Cockpit display malfunctions, Cargo door issues.

What is the first step in the fault isolation process?. Verify that the fault exists. Collect more fault data. Isolate the fault. Correct the fault.

What is the primary function of Step 2 in the fault isolation process?. Collect more fault data. Isolate the fault. Correct the fault. Verify the fault.

Which items may be done to ensure that the fault no longer exists?. Operate the system/component, Clear the item in the logbook. Reboot the aircraft systems, Print a maintenance report. Contact air traffic control, Perform a test flight. Submit a maintenance report, Contact the manufacturer.

The core network system is part of the ___________. Crew information system (CIS). Airplane support and operations data management. Network security. Flight and maintenance devices.

The core network system features include storage for airplane support data and software, functions for data management, physical Ethernet-based networks, and ___________. Terminal wireless LAN unit (TWLU) module. Wireless connection to the airline ground network. Network security functions. Connections with other airplane networks and systems.

The core network system includes components such as the core network cabinet, TWLU module, CWLU modules, antennas, and ___________. Crew wireless local area network (CWLU) modules. Terminal cellular system (TCS). Crew wireless local area network (CWLU). Core network cabinet and its modules.

The core network system has three physical Ethernetbased networks: ODN, EDN, and ___________. Common data network (CDN). Electronic flight bag data network (EDN). Isolated data network (IDN). Terminal cellular system (TCS).

The ODN connects to less trusted airplane and ground systems such as wireless maintenance laptops, passenger entertainment, and ___________. Network servers. Electronic flight bag (EFB). Flight recorders. Terminal wireless LAN unit (TWLU).

The IDN connects airplane systems that need to be isolated from less trusted systems, including common data network, wired Ethernet ports for ML, flight recorders, and ___________. Cabin services systems controller. Surveillance camera interface unit. Forward flight recorder. Controller server module file server module.

The EDN connects the EFB electronic units to the IDN and provides ___________. Physical Ethernet-based networks. Firewall protection. Flight and maintenance devices. Network security functions.

The core network cabinet is located in the forward EE bay. True. False.

What functions do the modules in the core network cabinet perform?. CIS functions. Flight management functions. Navigation functions. Weather monitoring functions.

How is the cabinet cooled?. From the forward equipment cooling system. From the aft equipment cooling system. Through liquid cooling system. Through air conditioning system.

How are the modules secured in the core network cabinet?. Captive screws. Nuts and bolts. Velcro straps. Magnetic locks.

The network interface module (NIM) controls the operation of the core network cabinet and supplies power to the other modules. It has ____________ captive screws. Six. Four. Eight. Ten.

The NIM has ____________ connectors on the front panel. Six. Eight. Ten. Twelve.

The NIM interfaces include ARINC 717 input, ARINC 429 outputs, ARINC 429 inputs, discrete inputs, discrete outputs, external Ethernet test port, external Ethernet ports, and ____________ fiber channels. One. Two. Three. Four.

The network interface module (NIM) includes components such as Avionics interface module (AIM), external input/output subassembly, power management module (PMM), and ____________. Comm core router. External antennas. Electronic flight bag data network (EDN) boundary router. Avionics gateway.

The NIM performs functions such as network security, data distribution, power management, and ____________. Monitoring cabinet temperature. External communication. Network interface control. Data encryption.

The avionics gateway routes data between the common data network (CDN) and the isolated data network (IDN), changes data formats, provides security, and ____________. Connects to the satellite data unit (SDU). Interfaces with the ODN. Enables wireless connectivity. Performs data encryption.

The IDN switch connects to external components, avionics gateway, and ____________. Common data network (CDN). Isolated data network (IDN). Open data network (ODN). External Ethernet ports.

Devices connected to the IDN are considered ____________ trusted than devices connected to the open data network (ODN). More. Less. Equally. Not.

The IDN boundary router routes data between the IDN and the ODN, supplies security, and ____________. Provides data encryption. Enables wireless connectivity. Manages network traffic. Acts as a firewall.

The EDN switch connects the electronic flight bag (EFB) electronic units to the EDN boundary router and ____________. Supplies power to EFB devices. Provides network security. Routes data between the IDN and the EDN. Enables wireless connectivity.

The EDN boundary router routes data between the EDN and the IDN, supplies security, and ____________. Manages network traffic. Acts as a firewall. Provides data encryption. Enables wireless connectivity.

The NIM hosts the comm core router, interfaces with the ODN, and ____________. Connects to the satellite data unit (SDU). Enables wireless connectivity. Routes data between the IDN and the ODN. Provides network security.

The NIM hosts the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) maintenance page plug-in (EMPPI) software, facilitating communication between the maintenance laptop (ML) and ____________. Circuit breaker indication and control (CBIC). Passenger entertainment system. Flight deck printer. Common data network (CDN).

The controller server module (CSM) is a file server module (FSM) with a ____________. mass storage device (MSD). CPU. RAM. PCMCIA card.

The CSM FSM has these components: Mechanical or solid state hard drive called a mass storage device (MSD), Random access memory (RAM), Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card, and ____________. Central processor unit (CPU). Network manager. Cellular manager. Onboard authentication service (OAS).

The EFB also provides access to: Electronic log book (ELB), Some maintenance functions such as central maintenance computing function (CMCF), onboard data load function (ODLF), and ____________. Flight deck entry video surveillance system (FDEVSS). Flight attendant scheduling. In-flight entertainment. Cabin lighting control.

The EFB system is available in all phases of flight. True or ____________. False. False. False. True.

The EFB system has these components: EFB display unit (DU), EFB electronics unit (EU), and ____________. Keyboard (airline option). Touchscreen. Mouse. Joystick.

Use the DU to enter and view data related to flight operation such as performance data, navigation charts, technical logbook entries, and ____________. flight release of airplane. weather updates. passenger manifests. aircraft fuel levels.

The left 115V AC main bus sends power to the captain's electronics unit (EU) and ____________. terminal cellular system unit. right aircraft main AC bus. first officer's DU. TWLU.

The captain's EU sends 28V DC power to the captain's EFB display unit (DU). True. False.

The flight compartment printer interfaces directly with the avionics gateway module located in the core network cabinet. True. False.

Print requests from the maintenance laptop (ML), multifunction display (MFD), and electronic flight bag (EFB) are sent through the core network to the flight compartment printer. True. False.

When the flight compartment printer receives multiple print requests, it prints them in the order of priority, with DCMF requests taking precedence over CMCF requests. True. False.

The printer in the flight compartment has direct interfaces with the airplane's primary display system (PDS). False. True.

The aircraft can get power from engine generators, APU generators, external power, batteries, and a ____________. Ram Air Turbine (RAT). Solar panels. Wind turbines. Fuel cells.

Primary voltages for airplane loads are 235V AC, 115V AC, and ____________. 50V DC. 28V DC. 400 Hz AC. 60 Hz AC.

In addition to a current return path, the CRN also provides protection for: High Intensity Radiation Frequency (HIRF), Lightning, and ____________. Electro-Magnetic Interference (EMI). Radio Frequency Identification (RFID). Infrared Radiation. Ultra Violet Radiation.

Boeing legacy aircraft have these electrical power characteristics: Source power from engine generators, APU, or ground power is 115V AC, ____________ Hz. 50. 60. 400. 235.

Power buses are 115V AC or ____________ DC. 28. 50. 60. 400.

Aluminum aircraft use the structure of the aircraft as the electrical ____________. Circuit. Ground path. Power source. Insulator.

The metal bars, straps, and cables are called the ____________. Current Return Network (CRN). Electrical Path. Grounding System. Conduction Network.

Thermal Circuit Breakers (TCB) offer remote control and protection for 115V AC and 28V DC loads of 50 amps or less. False. True.

Contactors provide manual control for all 235V and 115V AC loads, and their status can be monitored electronically. False. True.

How do the tie buses connect to the main 235V AC buses?. Through Bus Tie Breakers (BTB). Through Bus Power Control Units (BPCU). Through Generator Control Units (GCU). Through Autotransformer Units (ATU).

Most contactors receive control and protection from Electrical Load Control Units (ELCU) and can be monitored and controlled through the Electrical System Indication and Control (ESIC) displays. True. False.

Electronic Circuit Breakers (ECB) function both as circuit breakers for protection and as switches for automatic load switching, all while the circuit breaker remains open. True. False.

The APU battery, battery charger, and Start Power Unit (SPU) are installed on the upper shelf of the equipment racks in the forward EE bay. False. True.

The APU GEN and GEN CTRL switches control the breakers that connect and disconnect the APU and VFSGs to the ____________ buses. 115V AC. 235V AC. 28V DC. 400 Hz AC.

What primary source of power do GCUs have?. Ground power. Permanent magnet generators. Batteries. Engine generators.

What are some protection functions provided by the GCUs for the VFSGs?. Over/under voltage or frequency. Overcurrent. Failed bearing. All of the above.

What does the Galley ATU (GATU) do?. Converts 235V AC to 115V AC. Converts 115V AC to 235V AC. Supplies only 115V AC power for center pitot probe heat. Supplies power for the aft galley.

What is the purpose of the backup ATU?. Supplies only 115V AC power for center pitot probe heat. Converts 115V AC to 235V AC. Supplies power for the aft galley. Converts 235V AC to 115V AC.

Why are RPDUs placed near the loads they supply power to?. To result in shorter wire lengths and save weight. To increase wire lengths and save weight. To reduce the number of RPDUs needed. To centralize power distribution.

What loads do Remote Power Distribution Units (RPDU) supply power to?. 115V AC and 28V DC loads of 10 amps or less. High-power aircraft loads. Emergency aircraft loads H. Heavy aircraft loads.

How many RPDUs are there in the airplane?. 17. 20. 25. 30.

How do RPDUs communicate with airplane systems?. Through the CDN. Through the GPS. Through the ATC. Through the BPCUs.

What is the function of the ATRU contactors?. Control power from the 235V AC buses to the ATRUs. Control power from the 28V DC buses to the ATRUs. Control power from the 400V AC buses to the ATRUs. Control power from the 115V AC buses to the ATRUs.

How do ATRUs normally convert variable frequency 235V AC power?. To +/- 270V DC power. To +/- 135V DC power. To +/- 115V DC power. To +/- 300V DC power.

What is the role of the Auto Transformer Rectifier Unit (ATRU) on the Boeing B787 aircraft?. Converts 235V AC to 28V DC. Converts 115V AC to +/- 130V DC. Converts 235V AC to +/- 270V DC. Controls the Generator Control Units (GCU).

How are ATRU contactors controlled and monitored?. By the Electrical Control Load Units (ELCU). By the Bus Power Control Units (BPCU). By the ATRU contactors themselves. By the Generator Control Unit (GCU).

Under what conditions do ATRU contactors close in the L2 ATRU operation?. When the aircraft is airborne. When two forward external power sources are ON. When the aft external power source is selected ON. When the SPU Breaker (SPUB) is closed.

What happens if the pressure inside the battery enclosure exceeds 18 psi?. The pressure burst disk ruptures. The battery overheats and catches fire. The battery becomes overcharged. The E-BDI triggers an alert.

What is the voltage of the battery system on the airplane?. 32V DC. 28V DC. 115V AC. 235V AC.

The APU HBB powers essential systems such as the flight deck displays. True. False.

During an APU battery start, the ATRU converts 28V DC to +/- 135V DC. True. False.

The battery charger charges the APU battery when the main battery relay is closed. True. False.

The Battery Diode Module (BDM) receives power from the battery charger. True. False.

What action does overload management take when electrical loads require more power than is available?. Removes loads that already receive power. Increases power supply to meet the demand. Reduces engine power output. Activates the Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

What action is recommended if a Main Engine Start (MES) is performed with only two external power sources?. Recommend three external power sources for MES. Shut down the APU before MES. Reduce engine power output. Activate the Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

What is the purpose of setting the GND TEST switch to ENABLE?. To deactivate preemptive load shed. To activate overload management. To increase power supply. To disable the load management system.

What happens when the normal electrical power sources fail to supply power to the AC instrument buses?. The RAT generator is activated. The standby power system activates. The backup ATU is engaged. The backup bus isolation relay opens.

How does the RAT generator control its output voltage?. By rectifying AC voltage to DC. By receiving power from the permanent magnet generator. By using the backup ATU. By deploying automatically.

If the main battery voltage drops below 20V DC, the Main Battery Relay (MBR) closes to protect the battery. True. False.

Maintenance personnel typically set the BATTERY switch to ON to perform an APU battery start if external power is available. True. False.

In the ground handling mode, the Electrical Maintenance page 1 shows a message indicating "GROUND SERVICE.". True. False.

What are the components of the Cabin Core Systems?. Passenger Address System (PAS). Cabin Interphone System (CIS). Passenger Service System (PSS) , Cabin Service System (CSS). All Above.

What is the purpose of the Passenger Address System (PAS)?. To make announcements to passengers. To control reading lights. To communicate with cabin attendants. To manage cabin systems.

How do flight crew and cabin attendants communicate using the Cabin Interphone System (CIS)?. Through handsets in the cabin and flight compartment. Through speakers in the passenger cabin. Through digital audio relayed to the cabin. Through the Common Data Network (CDN).

What functions does the Passenger Service System (PSS) perform?. Allows passengers to control reading lights and call attendants. Controls cabin systems. Controls passenger information signs. Makes announcements to passengers.

How many passenger address areas or zones does the cabin have at maximum?. Four. Six. Eight. Ten.

How is the priority of voice announce data determined in the speaker drive module (SDM)?. It is set manually by cabin crew. It is based on the time of the announcement. It is determined by the flight deck handset (FDH). It is set in the configuration database (CDB).

The configuration database (CDB) contains data about PA audio priority and PA areas. True. False.

The PA audio sources include flight interphone audio from the Cabin Service System Controller (CSSC). True. False.

How many conference call configurations are available?. 8. 9. 10. 11.

What happens to the usual operation of the cabin services system (CSS) during the ALL TEST function?. It continues normally. It stops temporarily. It stops permanently. It operates at reduced capacity.

What provides emergency lighting in case of normal power source loss?. Halogen lamps. High intensity discharge (HID). Light emitting diode (LED). Batteries.

Which component controls the passenger compartment lights system?. Cabin service system controller (CSSC). Cabin attendant panel (CAP). Cabin zone unit (CZU). Passenger services module (PSM).

How are dome lights controlled in the passenger compartment?. From the CAP menu. Through the ASP. Using the DOME switch on the P5 panel. Automatically by the CSS.

What happens if communication between the PCU and the CDN fails?. Lights remain off. PCU uses default light settings. Lights flicker intermittently. PCU shuts down.

Control of the cargo compartment lights is managed directly by switches located inside the cargo compartments. True. False.

The exterior cargo lights receive power from the Remote Power Distribution Units (RPDUs) as well as the interior lights. True. False.

Where is the software for controlling all exterior lights located?. Cabin attendant panel. Triple power supply. Common computing resource (CCR) cabinets. Remote power distribution unit (RPDU).

What purpose do the runway turnoff lights serve during ground operations?. Provide light for night landings. Illuminate the runway turnoff areas. Aid in taxiing. Illuminate the wing and nose landing gears.

Which lights are synchronized through a synch wire connecting the upper and lower lights?. Body anti-collision lights. Wing anti-collision lights. Tailcone anti-collision lights. Nose landing lights.

What powers the position lights when the TOWING POWER switch is ON?. External power. Main battery. APU battery. Ram Air Turbine (RAT).

How are emergency lights controlled in the flight deck and passenger compartment?. From the P5 panel EMER LIGHTS switch. Automatically by the WELS control units. Through the ASP EMER LIGHTS switch. By the flight crew using a dedicated handheld device.

What does the ARMED position of the P5 EMER LIGHTS switch indicate?. Emergency lights are turned off. Emergency lights come on automatically in case of power failure. Emergency lights are manually turned on. Emergency lights are being tested.

How is the EMER LIGHTS TEST switch on the master ASP used?. To turn on the emergency lights for about 120 seconds. To manually turn on the emergency lights. To reset the red LED on the EMER LIGHTS switch. To turn off the emergency lights.

Which component receives signals to operate the chime in the passenger address system (PAS)?. Flight deck handset (FDH). Cabin service system controller (CSSC). Cabin attendant handset (CAH). Cabin zone unit (CZU).

What increases the volume of the PAS in different scenarios such as when the aircraft is on the ground with the engines on?. Flight interphone system. Cabin decompression. Airborne. On the ground with the engines on.

What is responsible for converting digital audio data to analog signals in the PAS?. Flight deck handset (FDH). Cabin zone unit (CZU). Speaker drive module (SDM). Cabin attendant handset (CAH).

How is the priority of voice announce data determined in the speaker drive module (SDM)?. It is set manually by cabin crew. It is based on the time of the announcement. It is determined by the flight deck handset (FDH). It is set in the configuration database (CDB).

The cargo loading lights are activated when the cargo doors are open and the corresponding loading light switch is turned on. True. False.

All interior cargo compartment lights are LED assemblies and are controlled by switches located near the cargo compartments. True. False.

How many white lights are there in the logo light system?. One. Two. Three. Four.

When does an EICAS message regarding the emergency lights system appear?. When individual emergency lights fail. When the EMER LIGHTS switch is turned OFF. When the emergency lights system is not armed or a prime WCU does not receive 115V AC power. When the EMER LIGHTS TEST is activated.

What are the functions of the flight interphone system?. Digital audio processing. Digital audio distribution. Communication with the ground. All of the above.

Which component of the flight interphone system interfaces with the onboard health maintenance system?. Audio control panels (ACP). Audio gateway units (AGU). Cabin service system controller (CSSC). Common computing resources (CCR) cabinets.

What does the observer audio override module selector switch control?. Backup mode for ACP failures. SELCAL decoder functions. Data transmission to maintenance laptop. Audio recording for flight recorder.

During normal operations, where does the captain ACP get power from?. FLT DK PWR tow relay. HBB. CAPT INST bus. FLT deck (DK) power (PWR) tow relay.

How is audio transmitted using the ACP?. Via direct selection of audio channels. By pressing the ACP MIC switch. Through the use of push-to-talk (PTT) signals. Automatically selected based on VHF radio tuning.

What does the PFD auxiliary window display related to the ACP?. Captain and F/O ACP selection. Flight deck microphone audio levels. VHF radio channel data. Cabin interphone conference mode.

What function does the SATCOM and cabin interphone conference mode serve?. Allows connection between flight deck and cabin interphone handsets. Routes audio for PA announcements. Provides aural warning audio. Enables remote flight interphone interface.

How does the captain ACP interface with the P40 nose landing gear service panel?. Routes flight interphone audio to and from the P40 panel. Provides cabin interphone functions. Controls the aural warning audio level. Routes audio for DME monitoring.

What does the ACP do during the crew alerting system speaker test?. Activates the PTT switches. Mixes outputs from crew alerting system sources. Routes flight deck microphone audio for PA announcements. Routes audio to the flight recorder.

Which components allow speaking on the flight interphone system?. Handmic. Oxygen mask. Headsets. All of the above.

What functions does the observer audio override module selector switch control?. Backup mode for ACP failures. SELCAL decoder functions. Data transmission to maintenance laptop. Audio recording for flight recorder.

How many channels of audio does the flight recorder record from the flight interphone system?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

What is the role of the cabin service system controller (CSSC) in the flight interphone system?. Digital audio processing. Announcements to passengers. Health monitoring. All of the above.

How does audio travel from the flight compartment to the service jacks?. Through the CDN. Through the AGU. Through the P5 panel. Through the ACP.

What controls are used to operate the flight interphone system?. FLT switches on an ACP. SERV INTPH switch on the P5 panel. Both A and B. None of the above.

How does the ground crew typically communicate with the flight crew?. Through the cabin service system controller (CSSC). Using the flight interphone. Via the Display and Crew Alerting Function (DCAF). By activating the GND CREW switch on the P40 panel.

Which components are involved in making a ground crew call from the flight deck?. Common core system (CCS), Audio Control Panel (ACP), and P300 power distribution panel. Flight Deck Handset (FDH), Display and Crew Alerting Function (DCAF), and Propulsion Fire Protection System (PFPS). Tuning Control Panel (TCP), Cabin Service System Controller (CSSC), and Comm/Warning Speaker. Solid State Power Controller (SSPC) and Ground Crew Call Horn.

What is the function of the FLIGHT DECK CALL SW (switch) on the P40 panel?. To operate the ground crew call horn. To initiate a call from the ground crew to the flight deck. To illuminate the FLT CALL light on the ACP. To activate a chime.

Which system is responsible for causing the ground crew call horn to sound in case of an equipment cooling failure?. Display and Crew Alerting Function (DCAF). Propulsion Fire Protection System (PFPS) function. Small applications hosted application (ground crew call function) in general processing module (GPM). Cabin service system controller (CSSC).

How do you activate the microphone for transmitting on a VHF radio using the ACP?. By pushing the VHF volume control switch. By turning the volume control switch. By pushing the transmitter select switch. By selecting L, C, or R VHF radio.

What indication shows that a VHF radio microphone is active?. The transmitter light turns green. MIC shows in green on the select switch. The selected mic and frequency are displayed on the PFD aux display area. The volume control switch is activated.

Where does the RF signal go after being modulated with analog audio by the HF transceiver?. Audio control panels (ACP). Tuning control panels (TCP). Antenna coupler. Antenna.

The VHF communication system comprises three transceivers, three antennas, and three Tuning Control Panels (TCP). True. False.

The Audio Control Panels (ACP) allow selection of VHF transceivers and adjustment of audio volume. True. False.

Tuning of the VHF transceivers is done through the TCPs. True. False.

The COMM MGT function within the CCR cabinet manages the VHF datalink function and interfaces with the radios through RDCs. True. False.

During voice signal transmission, analog microphone audio and PTT signals are converted to digital data by the ACPs. True. False.

Which cabinet(s) contain(s) the DCMF software?. Left CCR cabinet. Right CCR cabinet. Both left and right CCR cabinets. Main CCR cabinet.

What happens if the master DCMF fails?. The standby DCMF becomes the master. The standby DCMF shuts down. The standby DCMF remains inactive. The standby DCMF becomes the slave.

How can the DCMF page be displayed on an MFD?. Push the NAV selection. Push the ATT selection. Push the COMM selection. Push the SYS selection.

How many switches are there on each pilot glareshield panel to control ATC messages?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What component of the ELT sets the aircraft identification code?. ELT antenna. ELT control panel. ELT Aircraft Identification Module (AIM). ELT Program switch module.

Besides transmitting signals to a satellite network, what other purpose does the ELT serve?. Navigation. Aircraft identification. Weather monitoring. Locating the aircraft.

What material are the rods of the static dischargers made of?. Aluminum. Copper. Carbon Fiber. Steel.

Where are the vertical stabilizer static dischargers located on the aircraft?. On the horizontal stabilizer. On the wing. On the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer. On the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer.

What is the purpose of the static dischargers on an aircraft?. To increase static electricity on airplane surfaces. To reduce interference with communication system antennas. To provide additional lift. To improve fuel efficiency.

What is the purpose of the carbon fiber tip at the end of each static discharger rod?. To increase static electricity. To decrease static electricity. To improve aerodynamic performance. To provide structural support.

Which type of static dischargers are smaller, tip or trailing edge dischargers?. Tip. Trailing edge. They are the same size. Leading edge.

Information from SATCOM and COMM is displayed on the auxiliary display area of the Primary Flight Display (PFD). True. False.

Incoming SATCOM calls are indicated by the ACP CALL light, chime, and EICAS message. True. False.

What does the DCMF do after landing?. Clears any messages and resets default radios. Shuts down automatically. Continues operation. Sends a status report to maintenance.

What frequency does the ELT transmit emergency signals on to a satellite network?. 121.5 MHz. 243.0 MHz. 406 MHz. 500 MHz.

Besides transmitting on 406 MHz, what other frequencies does the ELT transmit signals on?. 123.0 MHz. 200 MHz. 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz. 500 MHz.

What data does the ELT transmit for 50 hours during an emergency?. Engine performance. Satellite alerts, identification information, and directional tracking. Passenger count. Fuel level.

Where does the ELT get its power from?. External battery. Internal battery. Aircraft electrical system. Solar panels.

What is the purpose of the ELT Aircraft Identification Module (AIM)?. Store airplane-specific data. Transmit satellite alerts. Convert switch positions into electronic signals. Provide power to the ELT.

What type of signals does the ELT transmit after sensing a sudden deceleration, indicating a crash?. Distress signals. Emergency signals. Navigation signals. Weather signals.

How long does the ELT transmit data during an emergency situation?. 24 hours. 48 hours. 50 hours. 72 hours.

What type of antenna does the ELT use to transmit emergency frequencies to a satellite network?. Single-element antenna. Dual-element antenna. Triple-element antenna. Quadruple-element antenna.

The ELT switch on the P5 panel has three positions: RESET, ARMED, and ON. True. False.

In the ARMED position, the ELT system automatically transmits when it detects a significant deceleration. True. False.

The guard covering the ELT switch indicates that the switch is in the ARMED position. True. False.

The ELT switch sends a digital control signal to the ELT for operation. True. False.

The ELT features a front panel switch with settings for OFF, ARM, and TX. True. False.

One standardized procedure exists for testing the ELT, applicable to both the front panel and flight deck switch methods. True. False.

What are the three axes about which the Integrated Flight Controls System (IFCS) controls the airplane flight attitude?. Longitudinal, Lateral, Vertical. Horizontal, Vertical, Diagonal. Pitch, Yaw, Roll. Forward, Backward, Upward.

How many principal subfunctions does the IFCS have?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

What do the Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) do with the signals received from the pilots' inputs?. Convert to analog format. Convert to digital format. Amplify. Broadcast.

How many Flight Control Electronics (FCE) cabinets are there?. Three. Four. Five. Six.

Which voltage is produced by the Power Conditioning Module (PCM)?. +/- 13.5V DC. 28V DC. +/- 28V DC. 56V DC.

How many pitot probes are there in the pitot-static system?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What component changes air pressures from pitot probes and static ports into electrical signals?. Air Data Modules (ADMs). Air Data Reference Function (ADRF). Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD). Pressure Lines.

What is the purpose of the static ports in the pitot-static system?. To measure static air pressure. To drain water from the fuselage. To cool down the pitot probes. To measure dynamic air pressure.

How many static ports are there on each side of the fuselage?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What is the function of the pitot probe?. To sense air pressure due to aircraft motion. To measure cabin air pressure. To measure air temperature. To measure humidity.

What happens if there is damage to the static ports in the pitot-static system?. It may cause inaccurate static pressure signals. It improves system performance. It increases air pressure in the system. It activates the ice protection system.

Which components interface with the CDN for TAT redundancy management?. TAT probe. EEC. Both A and B. Neither A nor B.

What is the interface between ACEs and ADMs?. Intermodule bus. ARINC 429. Analog. Digital.

What is the purpose of the interface between the ERS and the integrated navigation radios (INR)?. Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) GPS data. Time mark inputs. Both A and B. Neither A nor B.

What device displays ERS data to the flight crew?. FMF control display unit (CDU). P5 primary flight computer/inertial reference system/heading reference (PFC/IRS/HR) control panel. IRU/AHRU. INR.

How do IRU/AHRUs operate in terms of power supply?. Primary or secondary power. Only primary power. Only secondary power. Depends on the aircraft model.

What supplies 28V DC to the IRU/AHRU ECBs?. CAPT INST bus. Left main bus. F/O INST bus. Right main bus.

Setting the IRS switches to ON initiates power supply, initialization, and alignment mode (ALIGN MODE) for both the IRUs and AHRUs. True. False.

If GPS data is accessible, it is still necessary to manually input data on the Control Display Unit (CDU) position initialization (POS INIT) page. True. False.

How many INR receivers does the integrated navigation radio (INR) system have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What data do the INR receivers send to the Earth reference system (ERS) and the integrated surveillance system (ISS)?. GNSS time mark data. Localizer and glideslope deviation data. Auto and manual tuning data. Marker beacon signals.

Where are the left and right GNSS/GPS antennas located?. Upper forward fuselage. Lower forward fuselage. Top of the horizontal stabilizer. Under the wings.

Where is the marker beacon antenna located?. Lower forward fuselage. Upper forward fuselage. Top of the horizontal stabilizer. Under the wings.

Where is the VOR antenna located?. Top of the horizontal stabilizer. Lower forward fuselage. Upper forward fuselage. Under the wings.

The airspeed tape is displayed on the right side of the ISFD. True. False.

Turning the barometric control adjusts the barometric reference setting and sets the barometric corrected altitude. True. False.

Pushing the standard select switch in the center of the barometric control sets the standard barometric pressure. True. False.

What is the power source for the standby magnetic compass?. 28 Volts (V) Direct Current (DC) Hot Battery Bus (HBB). Alternating Current (AC) Main Bus. Aircraft batteries. Generator.

How does the standby magnetic compass compensate for magnetic deviations?. N-S (north-south) and E-W (eastwest) compensation screws. Magnets. Liquid-filled case. Compass card.

What is the purpose of the compensation card below the compass?. Write small errors that compensation screws cannot remove. Indicates aircraft altitude. Indicates aircraft speed. Provides emergency lighting for the compass.

How many software partitions does the FMF have?. Two. One. Three. Four.

Where does the ADM interface with in terms of flight control electronics?. Both onside and offside FCE cabinets. Only with the onside FCE. Only with the offside FCE. With the autopilot system.

What systems does the ERS interface with?. IFCS, CCS, GNSS partition in INR. IFCS, CCS, GPS partition in INR. FCMs, RDCs, GNSS partition in INR. FCMs, RDCs, GPS partition in INR.

From where do IRU/AHRUs receive primary electrical power?. RPDUs. Main HBB. INRs. CDN.

The SET INERTIAL POSITION line of the CDU POS INIT page shows dashes if GPS data is not available. True. False.

After ERS ALIGN MODE is complete, the IRUs and AHRUs send inertial/GPS data only to the flight control electronics (FCE). True. False.

What is the flight management function (FMF)?. Hosted software function in CCR cabinets. Physical component in the cockpit. Standalone hardware unit. Integrated navigation radio system.

The AFDS controls the ________ of the airplane. altitude. attitude. speed. heading.

The AFDS provides full flight autopilot control during the ________ flight controls normal mode operation. secondary. emergency. primary. backup.

The AFDS can control all flight phases except ________. landing. takeoff. cruise. descent.

During takeoff, the flight director (FD) is the only system used because the 787 is not certified for ________ with the autopilot engaged. approach. climb. takeoff. descent.

The AFDS includes Cat IIIb ________ capability. autoland. takeoff. climb. descent.

The AFDS features backdrive of ________ controls during autopilot operation. autopilot. copilot. pilot. system.

The AFF is a software application in the ________. ACE. FCM. MCP. FCE.

Components of the A/P system include three ________, two TO/GA switches, two A/P disconnect switches, and the mode control panel. BDAs. ACEs. CDUs. DAFs.

The AFF processes inputs from many sources including crew inputs like the ________. FMS. MCP. ADF. WXR.

The AFF sends A/P pitch, roll, and yaw command data to the ________. ACE. BDAs. PFCF. MCP.

FCE C2 has ________ and backup power. primary. secondary. emergency. temporary.

Primary power is ________ from a VFSG PMG. 115V AC. 28V DC. 235V AC. 400V AC.

Secondary power is from a ________ bus. 28V DC. 235V AC. 115V AC. 400V DC.

Backup power is from the ________ or FCE battery. APU. HBB. EFB. FCC.

If the mode master AFF finds a fault and causes the A/P to disengage, the MCP selects a different ________. AFF. FCM. MCP. PFD.

The A/P disengage logic is in the ________ in the FCEs. MCP. AFF. PFD. ND.

One procedure to disengage the A/P is to push the A/P disconnect switch on the ________. MCP. Thrust levers. Wheel. ND.

Certain failures cause the A/P to disconnect, such as ________. Sensor faults. Low fuel. High airspeed. Low altitude.

At touchdown, the airplane nose down command brings the nosewheel in contact with the runway. True. False.

The pitch mode remains displayed on the FMA after touchdown. True. False.

Rollout mode automatically arms at rudder control engagement. True. False.

Rollout becomes active only if the AFF is engaged in the autoland mode. True. False.

The vertical speed (V/S) or flight path angle (FPA) control law holds the value at the point of _________. Disengagement. Activation. Engagement. Selection.

The lateral navigation (LNAV) steering commands are sent to the AFFs by the ________. MCP. FMF. PFD. CDU.

Roll attitude hold is calculated when the pilot engages the autopilot with a bank angle greater than ________ degrees and no roll mode armed. 2. 3. 5. 10.

If the three AFF partitions fail, the autopilot will ________. Engage. Remain engaged. Disconnect. Switch to manual.

In FD mode, the AFF sends command data to the ________. FMF. DCAF. IRS. CDU.

The BDA servo drive sends the commands to the ________. ACEs. BDAs. RVDTs. PFCF.

The AFDS operates in two modes: autopilot and ________. Manual. FD. LNAV. VNAV.

In autopilot mode, the AFF sends commands to the ________. PFCF. DCAF. CDU. IRS.

The PFCF sends autopilot commands to the BDA servo drive in the ________ ACE. C1. C2. C3. C4.

At 80 knots during takeoff, the autothrottle mode changes to ________. OFF. ARM. HOLD. THR REF.

To start the takeoff mode, one of the two ________ switches on the thrust levers should be pushed. A/P. TO/GA. FD. LNAV.

The takeoff pitch commands include pitch attitude, combination of airspeed and pitch attitude, and target ________. Altitude. Speed. Thrust. Roll.

A/P disengage logic is located in the ________ in the FCEs. FD. PFCF. AFF. DCAF.

The AFF calculates AFF pitch, roll, and ________ commands. Thrust. Speed. Yaw. Altitude.

The MCP gets 28V DC from which sources?. Capt inst bus through RPDU 71. F/O inst bus through RPDU 72. Both. None.

The heading/track commands are calculated for heading select, heading hold, track select, and ________. Track hold. Approach hold. LNAV hold. Navigation hold.

The AFF uses localizer deviation, localizer deviation rate, and ILS course inputs to calculate ________ commands. Roll. Pitch. Thrust. Altitude.

During runway alignment, the AFF uses ________ course and airplane heading inputs to calculate commands. GPS. IRS. ILS. FMF.

The yaw command for the rollout mode is calculated using localizer deviation, localizer deviation rate, and ________ position. Elevator. Rudder. Aileron. Flap.

What are the components of the hydraulic power system?. Main hydraulic system. Ram air turbine (RAT) system. Hydraulic indicating system. Ground servicing system.

How many main hydraulic systems are there?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Which components are found in the left and right engine aft strut fairings?. Hydraulic reservoir. Electric motor pump (EMP). Filter modules (3). Engine supply shutoff valve (ESSOV).

What are the color codes used to identify the hydraulic systems?. Red for left, blue for center, green for right. Blue for left, green for center, red for right. Green for left, red for center, blue for right. Red for left, green for center, blue for right.

Which system powers the flight controls and on-side thrust reverser for the left and right hydraulic systems?. Primary pump (EDP) and demand pump (EMP). Electric motor pump (EMP). Hydraulic reservoir. Engine supply shutoff valve (ESSOV).

What powers the flight controls, high lift, landing gear, and nose wheel steering for the center hydraulic system?. Electric motor pumps (EMPs). Filter modules. Accumulator. Isolation valves.

What fluid is supplied by the left, center, and right hydraulic systems?. HyJet 5 fluid. Skydrol fluid. Hydraulic fluid. Jet fuel.

How many EMPs does the center hydraulic system have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Where is the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) located?. Right aft wing to body fairing behind the right wheel well. Left aft wing to body fairing behind the left wheel well. Center wheel well. Nose wheel well.

Which system does the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) utilize fluid from to power selected flight controls?. Left. Right. Center. Ground servicing system.

What is the purpose of the hydraulic reservoirs?. Supply pressurized hydraulic fluid to the hydraulic pumps. Collect the return hydraulic fluid. Store excess hydraulic fluid. Generate hydraulic pressure.

Where is the EDP located?. Right side of the low pressure compressor case. Left side of the low pressure compressor case. Aft fuselage. Main landing gear bay.

When the accessory gearbox turns, the EDP turns. Variable speed but constant output ~5000 psi. Sends pressure to hydraulic components. Maintains reservoir pressure. Controls aircraft navigation.

There are four main hydraulic systems. True. False.

The left and right hydraulic system components are different. True. False.

The color coding for identifying the hydraulic systems is red for left, blue for center, and green for right. True. False.

The left and right hydraulic systems each consist of a reservoir and two pumps supplying 5000 psi fluid. True. False.

The center hydraulic system has two primary pumps (EDP) and one demand pump (EMP). True. False.

Which color indicates the left hydraulic system?. Blue. Green. Red. Yellow.

What type of fluid do the hydraulic systems supply?. HyJet 5. HyJet 4. HyJet 6. HyJet 3.

The primary pumps in the left and right hydraulic systems are. EDP primary, EMP demand. EMP primary, EDP demand. Both EDP. Both EMP.

Demand pumps operate when. More pressure is needed. Less pressure is needed. The system is idle. The system is overheating.

The RAT generator is capable of producing. 5 kVA at 220 VAC. 10 kVA at 235 VAC. 15 kVA at 250 VAC. 20 kVA at 300 VAC.

Hydraulic power becomes available for the RAT deployment in. 4 seconds. 6 seconds. 8 seconds. 10 seconds.

The RAT STOW SWITCH is located on the. P5 panel. P57 panel. P42 panel. P76 panel.

The RAT STOW SWITCH has how many positions?. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The RAT generator can provide. 8 kVA at 235 VAC. 10 kVA at 235 VAC. 12 kVA at 235 VAC. 6 kVA at 235 VAC.

What is the purpose of the Alternate extend isolation valve test?. Reset faults. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly. Check the deploy solenoids can be energized and able to deploy the RAT. Operation and indication of the valve.

What does the Nose landing gear isolation valve test focus on?. Reset faults. Operation and indication of the valve. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly. Check the deploy solenoids can be energized and able to deploy the RAT.

What is the aim of the Reserve steering isolation valve test?. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly. Check the deploy solenoids can be energized and able to deploy the RAT. Reset faults. Operation and indication of the valve.

During the Auto-bleed valve test, what is checked?. Operation and indication of the valve. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly. Reset faults. Check for air in the system, Reset the auto-bleed valve fault.

What is the purpose of the EDP depress valve test?. Reset faults. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly. Check the deploy solenoids can be energized and able to deploy the RAT. Operation and indication of the valve.

What does the RAT auto/manual deploy test verify?. Reset faults. Operation and indication of the valve. Check the deploy solenoids can be energized and able to deploy the RAT. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly.

What is tested during the RAT heater test?. Verify the pump depressurization function is working correctly. Reset faults. Check the deploy solenoids can be energized and able to deploy the RAT. Determines whether heater coils are properly installed and functional, Reset faults.

What are the main functions of the flight control system?. Primary flight control function (PFCF), High lift function (HLF), Autoflight function (AFF). Autoflight function (AFF), Rudder control, High lift function (HLF). Primary flight control function (PFCF), Autoflight function (AFF), Spoiler control. Rudder control, Elevator control, High lift function (HLF).

Which flight control surfaces does the PFCF control?. Elevators, Spoilers/speedbrakes, Rudder, Ailerons and flaperons, Horizontal stabilizer. Elevators, Rudder, Ailerons and flaperons, Horizontal stabilizer, Speedbrakes. Elevators, Ailerons and flaperons, Spoilers/speedbrakes, Horizontal stabilizer, Rudder. Ailerons and flaperons, Spoilers/speedbrakes, Rudder, Elevators, Vertical stabilizer.

What signals do the four FCE cabinets receive to calculate commands for control?. High lift control surfaces, Primary flight control surfaces, Flight deck actuators. Hydraulic systems, Electrical systems, CDN. Flight deck actuators, Primary flight control surfaces, Hydraulic systems. High lift control surfaces, Flight deck actuators, Electrical systems.

What interfaces does the PFCF have?. ARINC 429 data buses, CDN, Hydraulic systems. Flight deck inputs, Hydraulic systems, CDN. ARINC 429 data buses, Hydraulic systems, Electrical systems. Flight deck inputs, CDN, Electrical systems.

How many control modes does the PFCF have?. 3. 2. 4. 5.

How many elevators and movable horizontal stabilizers control the airplane pitch about the lateral axis?. Two elevators and one movable horizontal stabilizer. Three elevators and one fixed horizontal stabilizer. One elevator and two movable horizontal stabilizers. Two elevators and two fixed horizontal stabilizers.

How many ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers control the airplane roll about the longitudinal axis?. Two ailerons, two flaperons, and 14 spoilers. One aileron, one flaperon, and six spoilers. Three ailerons, three flaperons, and 12 spoilers. Four ailerons, four flaperons, and 16 spoilers.

Which component controls the airplane yaw about the vertical axis?. Rudder. Elevator. Aileron. Flap.

What action does each spoiler perform during roll?. One side moves up, the other stays flush. Both sides move up. One side moves down, the other stays flush. Both sides move down.

How many hydraulic PCUs and electric EMAs control the spoilers?. 10 hydraulic PCUs, 4 electric EMAs. 4 hydraulic PCUs, 10 electric EMAs. 7 hydraulic PCUs, 7 electric EMAs. 14 hydraulic PCUs, 14 electric EMAs.

What happens if there is a disagreement with the spoiler LVDT?. Power is removed and surface floats to near neutral. Spoiler retracts completely. Spoiler extends completely. No action is taken.

When are spoilers automatically raised with all three hydraulic systems powered?. When flaps move on the ground. During takeoff. During landing. During emergency descent.

How many rudder pedal sets are used for manual yaw control?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What component gives analog input to the flight control electronics (FCE) for yaw control?. Rudder pedals. Position transducers. Remote electronics units (REU). Power control units (PCU).

Which units control the hydraulic solenoid valves on the power control units (PCU)?. Flight control electronics (FCE). Remote electronics units (REU). Rudder pedals. Gust suppression pressure transducers.

How many hydraulic power control units (PCUs) move the rudder?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What additional function does the FCE perform besides sending yaw commands?. Nose wheel steering. Aileron control. Gust suppression. Modal acceleration.

What is the maximum indication for left or right rudder trim?. 0.0. 5.0. 10.0. 17.0.

Under what conditions are the indicators on the flight controls synoptic page white?. Normal. Fault. Warning. Emergency.

In which mode does the FCM schedule elevator feel position commands as a function of pitot pressure?. Secondary mode. Direct mode. Normal mode. Both Secondary and Direct modes.

The pitch trim control signals are sent directly from the pitch trim switches to the EMCUs. True. False.

EMCUs receive actuation commands from the FCEs. True. False.

The HSTA is controlled by the ACE. True. False.

Stabilizer position and integrity data are not transmitted back to the FCE. True. False.

The stabilizer control inputs include alternate pitch trim and stabilizer cutout switches. True. False.

Stabilizer indications are displayed only on the EICAS. True. False.

Which component controls the EDAS motors?. EDAS motor controller. Right FCE cabinet. Remote power distribution unit (RPDU). EDAS horizontal stabilizer motor.

What controls the high lift system in the primary mode?. Flap lever. Alternate flap switches. Aileron trim switches. Speedbrake lever.

What mode does the high lift function (HLF) switch to when the speed decreases during hydraulic operation?. Primary. Secondary. Alternate. Emergency.

How is control in the secondary mode different from the primary mode?. Control is the same. Electrical operation. Manual operation. Hydraulic operation.

What controls the high lift system in the alternate mode?. Flap lever. Alternate flap switches. Aileron trim switches. Speedbrake lever.

What happens when the high lift system operates in the alternate mode?. Input from alternate flap panel. Input from primary mode. Input from emergency mode. Input from secondary mode.

What is the purpose of the ACE in the high lift system?. Sends position commands to hydraulic components. Controls flap lever position. Supplies power to electrical components. Sends commands to alternate flap switches.

What signals does the flap control lever module send to the FCE?. Extend and retract. Up and down. Left and right. Increase and decrease.

How many positions does the flap control lever module have in the 787-8 module?. Four. Five. Six. Seven.

What information does the PFCF Synoptic page display?. PFCF surface positions and PFCF operating mode. Hydraulic system pressure and temperature. Engine status and fuel quantity. Cabin pressure and temperature.

What do the control laws in the FCEs command symmetrical droop of?. Elevators, Stabilizer, Rudders. Ailerons, Flaperons, Spoilers. Slats, Flaps, Krueger flaps. Flaps, Elevators, Rudder.

When does the air/ground system remove the spoilers, ailerons, and flaperon droop?. When the airplane is in the air. When the airplane is on the ground. During takeoff. During landing.

What devices does the flight and maintenance crews control with the flap control module?. Leading edge slats and trailing edge flaps. Ailerons and elevators. Spoilers and rudders. Rudder pedals and elevators.

How can the high lift function (HLF) systems be controlled with the flap lever?. In both primary and secondary modes. Only in the primary mode. Only in the secondary mode. Only in the alternate mode.

How many settings does the flap lever have in the 787-8?. 5. 7. 10. 3.

How many channels does each rotary variable differential transformer (RVDT) sensor have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

Where does each channel of the RVDT sensor get analog excitation voltage from?. Spoiler electric motor control unit (EMCU) or spoiler remote electronic unit (SREU). Flap control lever. Hydraulic system. Flight data recorder.

How many positions do the leading edge slats have in the primary mode?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

How many positions do the leading edge slats have in the secondary mode?. One. Two. Three. Four.

How many positions do the leading edge slats have in the alternate mode?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What happens if a failure causes a skew on the inboard end of slat 5 or 8?. The breakaway connector disconnects. The lanyard pulls the breakaway connector. The DMA detects the skew. The sensors shut down the slat system.

What is connected to the outboard end of slats 5 and 8 and is monitored by the translating wire bundle (TWB)?. Breakaway connector. Rotary variable differential transformers (RVDT). Detection mechanism assembly (DMA). Lanyard.

What monitors the position sensors during normal operation?. Flight control modules (FCM). Linear variable displacement transformers (LVDT). Gear assemblies. Geared rotary actuators (GRA).

What is the purpose of the protective shipping cover on each new sensor assembly?. To prevent damage during shipping and handling. To protect the sensors from environmental factors. To maintain sensor calibration. To prevent unauthorized access.

What subsystems are part of the landing gear system?. Nose gear and doors. Air/ground system. Main gear and doors. Proximity sensing system, Air/ground system, Main gear and doors, Nose gear and doors.

What components are part of the main landing gear assembly?. Shock strut, Side brace assembly, Drag brace assembly, Gear truck assembly. Side brace assembly. Tilt actuator. Axle.

What are the primary structural load paths for the drag brace and shock strut?. Drag brace and shock strut. Shock strut only. Drag brace only. Wheel axle assembly.

What allows the cylinder to move up and down in the landing gear system?. Torque links. Steering collar. Nitrogen top of strut. Hydraulic fluid.

Where is the servicing valve located in the nose landing gear shock strut?. Top of the shock strut. Bottom of the shock strut. Near the shutoff valve. At the P40 panel.

How are the NLG forward doors opened and closed?. Connected to linkage and open/close by NLG door actuator. Attached with hinges and move by actuator. Open/close by actuator. Open/close by hinges.

What does the landing gear control system sense and control?. Gear and door positions and hydraulic pressure for extension and retraction. Hydraulic pressure for extension and retraction. Brake pressure. Tire pressure.

How are the gear and doors powered and controlled?. Hydraulically powered, controlled by valves. Electrically powered, controlled by sensors. Mechanically powered, controlled by gears. Pneumatically powered, controlled by actuators.

Into how many categories are the proximity sensors divided?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

What do control proximity sensors determine?. Airspeed. Gear, truck, and door positions. Hydraulic pressure. Brake pressure.

How many sensors are there per position for redundancy?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What does the LGA/NWS control function use data to operate?. Brakes. Engine thrust. Gear. Flaps.

What does the bypass/auto off valve module provide?. Hydraulic pressure to retraction and extension components. Electrical power to sensors. Mechanical control to actuators. Pneumatic power to tires.

What can release the landing gear lever lock mechanically?. Hydraulic pressure. Electrical override. Mechanical lock override. Pneumatic pressure.

The landing gear control lever has two positions, ______ and DN. UP. DOWN. LEFT. RIGHT.

An RPDU supplies 28-V dc to a ______ in the landing gear control lever module to lock the lever in the down position on the ground. proximity sensor. relay. lever lock solenoid. control valve.

A ______ pushbutton on the module releases the lock if it is necessary to move the lever to the UP position. LOCK OVRD. RELEASE. UNLOCK. OVERRIDE.

Three switch contacts in each position give a different ______ to RDCs. voltage. ground discrete. digital signal. CAN bus data.

The RDCs change the discrete data to ______ and put the data on the common data network (CDN). voltage signals. digital data. analog signals. hydraulic pressure.

The LGA/NWS control function in the CCS identifies this data as a(n) ______ command. up or down. left or right. open or close. engage or disengage.

If the data from ______ of the three switches are valid, the LGA/NWS control function starts the landing gear operation sequence. one. two. all. none.

The ______ proximity sensors on the NLG sense conditions for sequence control. singular. pair of. individual. triplet of.

Each control proximity sensor in an NLG or MLG pair connects to a different ______ in the main wheel wells. RPDU. CCR. RDC. PSDC.

If a sensor pair has no failures and the sensor data disagree, the LGA/NWS control function will ______ perform the next step in the sequence. always. sometimes. never. automatically.

A pair of control proximity sensors on the NLG senses the condition: __. NLG up, NLG down. NLG left, NLG right. NLG forward, NLG back. NLG stowed, NLG deployed.

Each control proximity sensor in a pair must show the same condition, or the __ will not occur. subsequent step. initial step. previous step. final step.

Each PSDC changes the analog control sensor data to __ data. digital. analog. binary. sequential.

Each sensor in a pair connects to a different __. PSDC. RPDU. LGA/NWS. MCP.

The LGA/NWS control function uses control sensor data to identify __. landing gear and door positions. hydraulic pressure. fuel levels. engine status.

If there is a failure of one sensor in a pair, the sequence will continue on input from the __. good sensor. failed sensor. third sensor. auxiliary sensor.

The relay contacts open the __ connection during alternate extension or ground door operation. 28-V dc. 14-V dc. 115-V ac. 230-V ac.

Each relay has contacts that connect between an RPDU and an __ solenoid. enable. disable. auxiliary. secondary.

There are __ NLG bypass/off relays. two. three. four. one.

These relay contacts open the 28-V dc connection to prevent __. unwanted landing gear movement. hydraulic pressure loss. electrical failure. fuel leakage.

The relay contacts open during __ operation. alternate extension. normal retraction. engine start. taxiing.

Each bypass/auto-off valve module has __ enable solenoids. inhibited. engaged. neutral. active.

Normal valve module operation is prevented during __. ground door operation. landing gear retraction. hydraulic pressure testing. flight.

The NLG door control opens the forward doors when the NLG doors are near the __ position. full-open. closed. locked. neutral.

The NLG control valve module moves to the __ position when the NLG strut is near the full-down position. extend. retract. neutral. lock.

The NLG door control valve module closes the forward doors when the NLG strut is near the __ position. full-down. full-up. neutral. locked.

The NLG door safety valve module prevents the NLG doors from closing with __ pressure. hydraulic. electrical. pneumatic. mechanical.

The alternate release actuators ensure that the __ release before pressurized fluid goes to the NLG and MLG strut alternate release actuators. gear. wheels. brakes. doors.

__ bus power goes to alternate extension system components. Main. Essential. Backup. Hot battery.

The RDCs receive data from the __ during alternate extension. MLG door open relays. NLG bypass/off relays. PSDCs. Alternate extend power pack.

The alternate extend relays A and B are powered by __ V-dc hot battery bus power. 24. 28. 32. 36.

The DOORS switch on the P56 panel is used to __ all landing gear doors on the ground. close. monitor. open. test.

The __ switch on the P56 panel has positions OFF, ALL DOORS OPEN, and MLG DOOR CLOSE. control. arm. safety. main.

To reset the relays after door operation, the doors must be closed and the gear handle __. lowered. raised. locked. neutral.

The control switch on the P56 panel is used to manage __. door operation. hydraulic pressure. electrical systems. avionics.

Landing gear control proximity sensors are used for gear and door __. sequencing. locking. monitoring. testing.

Control proximity sensors operate independently from __ sensors. pressure. indication. temperature. flow.

PSDCs send data to RDCs through __ buses. CAN. electrical. hydraulic. pneumatic.

The control and indication partitions for system 1 are in the __ CCR cabinet. left. right. forward. aft.

The NLG indication and warning system uses __ PROX sensors. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The MLG indication and warning system uses __ PROX sensors. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The ARDC provides wireless power to the TPS by __ coupling. capacitive. inductive. resistive. direct.

The 787-8 nose wheel tires are __ with 787-9 tires. interchangeable. not interchangeable. compatible. identical.

The brake actuation system includes __ EBACs. 2. 4. 6. 8.

The NWS system includes a __ module for electronic control. Data. Remote Electronics Unit (REU). Central Processing. Remote Data Concentrator (RDC).

The NWS system uses __ position transducer modules. 1. 2. 3. 4.

The NWS system operates with center __ pressure. pneumatic. electric. hydraulic. mechanical.

The NWS system interfaces with __ through Remote Data Concentrators (RDC). Flight Control Electronics (FCE). Common Core System (CCS). both FCE and CCS. Landing Gear Actuation System.

The captain and first officer rudder pedals provide __ control to turn the nose wheel. low-speed. high-speed. emergency. manual.

Rudder pedal disconnect switches on the tillers disconnect __ inputs to the NWS system. rudder pedal. tiller. actuator. hydraulic.

The fuel storage system includes __ and the fuel vent system. fuel tanks. fuel lines. fuel pumps. fuel injectors.

The __ provide access to the fuel tanks for inspection and maintenance. tank end ribs. tank access panels. vent channels. baffle ribs.

__ valves are used to remove fuel and water from the fuel tanks. Fuel vent float. Fuel sump drain. Surge tank pressure relief. Baffle rib check.

The __ prevent large pressure differences between the tanks and the external air pressure. fuel vent crossflow check valves. surge tank pressure relief valves. baffle rib check valves. vent tubes.

__ are used in the vent scoops to ensure a flame does not enter the fuel tanks through the vent system. Flame arrestors. Fuel sump drain valves. Check valves. Vent tubes.

Each of the main tanks has a capacity of __ gallons (21,085 L). 4000. 5570. 6000. 7500.

__ valves on the vent tubes open to let the tank vent or close to prevent fuel in the vent tubes. Surge tank drain check. Fuel vent float. Baffle rib check. Fuel sump drain.

The __ decrease the flow of vent air into the vent system. fuel vent crossflow check valves. baffle rib check valves. vent tubes. surge tank pressure relief valves.

__ in the surge tanks provide a small positive pressure to the tanks when the airplane has forward airspeed. Vent scoops. Check valves. Vent tubes. Fuel sump drain valves.

The pressure refueling system includes the __. Refueling Control Panel (RCP). Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS). Engine Fuel Feed System (EFFS). Refuel door proximity sensor.

The __ gives a signal that the RCP door is open. Refuel adapter. Refuel valve body. Refuel valve actuator. Refuel door proximity sensor.

The __ controls the pressure refueling system. Fuel Control Panel (FCP). Refueling Control Panel (RCP). Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS). Engine Fuel Feed System (EFFS).

The __ give a mechanical connection between the refuel valve actuators and the refuel valve body and driveshaft. Refuel valve adapters. Refuel adapters. Refuel door proximity sensors. Refuel/jettison manifold components.

The refuel/jettison manifold drain valves are used to __. Let the fuel drain from the manifold to the center tank. Transfer fuel from one tank to another. Control the refuel valve actuators. Provide pressure to the refuel valve body and driveshaft.

The __ sends data to open and close the refuel valve body and driveshaft with the refuel valve actuators. RCP. FQMS. FCP. EFFS.

Fuel from the refuel/jettison manifold tubes goes to the __. Refuel valve body and driveshaft. Refuel adapters. Refuel valve actuators. Refuel door proximity sensor.

To transfer fuel from one tank to a different tank, you use the __. Refuel door proximity sensor. Refueling Control Panel (RCP) and the Fuel Control Panel (FCP). Refuel adapters and refuel valve actuators. Surge tank and center tank.

The engine fuel shutoff valves close when the __. Fuel control switch is set to RUN. Fuel control switch is set to CUTOFF. Engine fire control switch is set to NORMAL. Engine start switch is set to START.

The __ open the engine fuel shutoff valves. Fuel control switch set to RUN. Engine fire control switch set to NORMAL. Engine start switch set to START and released to NORM, when on the ground. All of the above.

When the fire handle is set to the FIRE position, the __. Fuel control switch is set to RUN. Engine fuel shutoff valve closes. Engine start switch is set to START. Refuel/jettison manifold opens.

APU fuel feed is not controlled by the APU Controller (APUC) and the Fuel Quantity Management System (FQMS) function. True. False.

The left aft boost pump comes on regardless of the APU switch position when AC power is available. True. False.

The APU DC pump can supply fuel to both the left and right engines. True. False.

How does the NGS air conditioning system increase pressure and regulate temperature of the cabin air supply?. By increasing pressure/temperature using MDC. By regulating temperature of MDC discharge air with HX and ram air control valve. By utilizing HX to get air through ground cooling valve on ground. By allowing ram air flow from right air conditioning ram air duct through ram duct check valve.

What is the purpose of the software monitoring the NEA generated by the ASM for oxygen content?. To detect a degraded ASM condition. To control flow control valve position when NGS operates in O2 concentration mode. To modulate position of ram air control valve to ensure correct temperature for ASM efficiency. To regulate the flow rate of NEA to fuel tanks.

NGS components are controlled by RPDUs and RDCs. True. False.

The ground cooling valve closes at startup. True. False.

The Motor cooling SOV opens after MDC starts. True. False.

How is the fire protection system categorized?. Fire detection and fire extinguishing. Smoke detection and fire extinguishing. Fire detection and smoke extinguishing. Smoke detection and smoke extinguishing.

Which areas does the fire detection system monitor for smoke, overheat, or fire conditions?. Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, MLG, Lavatories, Crew Rests. Cockpit, Wings, Fuselage, Galley. Fuel Tanks, Wingtips, Cabin, Cargo doors. Engines, APU, Wings, Cargo Compartments.

How many fire detection channels does each engine have?. One. Two. Three. Four.

What sends signals to the main engine data concentrator (MEDC)?. Remote data concentrator (RDC). Fire detector elements. Flight control system. Engine control module.

How does overheat detection differ from fire detection in terms of cockpit indications?. Master caution shows instead of master warning. Master warning shows instead of master caution. Caution aural warning bell instead of fire bell. Caution aural warning bell instead of fire bell.

What does the cargo fire detection system (CFDS) provide capability for within each lower cargo compartment?. Fire detection, Overheat detection. Smoke detection, Fire detection. Overheat detection, Smoke suppression. Fire suppression, Overheat detection.

What indication occurs when the pressure in the APU fire extinguishing bottle is low?. EICAS messages and indicator lights. Master caution light. Master warning light. Fire bell aural warning.

Where is the remote APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch located?. On the P40 panel on the NLG strut. On the flight deck. On the cargo fire/engine control panel. On the APU compartment.

What action is required to arm the APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE switch?. Pushing in the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch. Pulling the fire switch out. Turning the fire switch left or right. Pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch.

How is the APU fire extinguishing bottle discharged manually?. By turning the fire switch left or right. By pressing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch. By pulling the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch. By pushing the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN switch.

Where is the APU compartment located in the aircraft?. In the aft fuselage. In the nose cone. In the wings. In the main cabin.

What are the APU flight deck controls?. APU selector, APU maintenance switch, APU fire switch. Engine start switch, Engine shutdown switch, APU fire switch. APU start button, APU stop button, APU reset button. Engine control switch, Engine reset switch, APU fire switch.

What components make up the APU oil indicating system?. APU oil level sensor, APU oil level sight glass, APU oil temperature sensor. APU oil temperature sensor. APU oil level sight glass. Gearbox sump.

Which interface does the APU oil level sensor communicate with?. Gearbox sump. APU controller (APUC). APU oil level sight glass. APU oil temperature sensor.

What is the function of the oil temperature sensor in the APU oil indicating system?. It measures the level of the oil. It shows the oil level. It senses the temperature of the oil. It provides an indication of the oil quantity to maintenance personnel.

What is the function of the duplex fuel nozzles in the APU fuel system?. To supply fuel for APU start and continued operation. To control the fuel flow from the fuel module. To filter the fuel before it enters the fuel module. To provide electrical power to the APU fuel system.

Which component of the fuel system controls the operation of the fuel pump?. Fuel pump motor controller. DC electric motor. Fuel filter. Primary and secondary fuel solenoid valves.

What is the function of the engine nacelle?. Engine protection, ventilation, noise reduction, reverse thrust. Controls engine speed and thrust. Supplies fuel to the engine. Monitors engine performance.

How is the inlet cowl anti-iced?. Hot engine bleed air. Electric heating elements. Hydraulic heating system. Heated fuel.

What type of material is used to manufacture the fan cowls?. Aluminum. Carbon fiber reinforced plastic. Titanium alloy. Stainless steel.

Where is the fan cowl chine located?. On the outboard fan cowl. On the inboard fan cowl. At the 12:00 position. At the 6:00 position.

How many quick-release hinge pins attach the fan cowls to the engine strut?. Two. Four. Six. Eight.

What is the purpose of the chevrons on the thrust reverser sleeves?. Improve aerodynamic performance. Reduce engine noise. Increase engine thrust. Decrease fuel consumption.

Which system operates the fan cowls and thrust reversers for maintenance access?. Manual lever system. Electrical motor system. Powered Door Opening System (PDOS). Pneumatic system.

The nacelle supplies a smooth airflow around the ____. engine and its accessories. landing gear. fuselage. tail section.

The nacelle includes the ____. air inlet cowl, fan cowl doors, thrust reverser cowls, and exhaust system. landing gear doors, fuselage panels, tail section, and wings. engine mounts, control surfaces, flaps, and slats. cockpit, passenger cabin, cargo bay, and tail section.

The area below the fan cowl is designated as ____. zone 1, a fire compartment. zone 2, an aerodynamic compartment. zone 3, a thermal compartment. zone 4, a structural compartment.

The fan cowls are manufactured from ____. carbon fiber reinforced plastic. aluminum alloy. titanium composite. stainless steel.

The ______ connects to the drains collector tank to supply fuel during engine shutdown. fuel manifold. oil tank. external gearbox. tail bearing housing.

If the fuel drains tank ejector is defective, a drain tube lets the fuel go overboard at the ______. tail bearing housing. engine zone 2. wing pylon. drain mast.

Drain tubes from the ______ give an indication of defective internal seals. fuel injectors. VSV actuators. oil tank. airplane wing pylon.

The dump valve in the ______ starts and stops the flow of fuel to the tank. VSV actuator. hydraulics EDP. HMU. VFSG.

The IP compressor case 1-4 is positioned between the ______ and the stage 5-8 case. oil tank. combustor. LP compressor. front bearing housing (FBH).

The HP compressor stages 1 to 3 are integrated bladed rotors called ______. turbines. vanes. blisks. discs.

The combustor controls and mixes the compressed air and ______ for combustion. water. fuel. oil. nitrogen.

The HP turbine module is an integral part of the ______ module. LP compressor. IP compressor. HP system. LP turbine.

The exhaust gas goes through and turns the ______ HP turbine rotor. single-stage. two-stage. three-stage. four-stage.

The LP turbine module has a ______ stage turbine. single. two. four. six.

The primary function of the LP turbine is to extract mechanical energy from the ______. oil flow. air pressure. exhaust gas. fuel flow.

The LP turbine section turns in the ______ direction as its associated compressor. opposite. same. vertical. horizontal.

Before the LPT stage, a set of ______ directs the gas flow correctly into the turbine blades. fan blades. compressor blades. Nozzle Guide Vanes (NGV). oil pumps.

The Turbofan Power Ratio (TPR) indicating subsystem includes the P20/T20 probe and ______. Pressure Transducer. Turbine Gas Temperature (TGT) thermocouples. Fuel Flow Sensor. Oil Pressure Sensor.

The components of the shaft speed indication include LPC, IPC, and ______ speed probes. Fuel Flow. Oil Temperature. High Pressure Compressor (HPC). Engine Vibration.

One of the advantages of TPR is that it is less sensitive to ______ than EPR or N1 indications. Humidity. Altitude. Fuel Flow. Oil Pressure.

The temperature correction in TPR calculations is from TGT and ______ data. P30. N2. T20. N1.

The EMU calculates engine vibration and balance solutions and sends vibration data to the ______. EICAS. LPC. HPC. Oil Pump.

The EMU consists of a single channel of electronics that connects to the ______. EEC Channel A. Fuel Pump. LPC. HPC.

The throttle lever position sends a command signal for a specified ______. fuel flow rate. engine power level. EGT level. N1 speed.

The throttle levers connect to throttle ______ that measure the position of the throttle lever. actuators. sensors. resolvers. controllers.

The EEC sends a signal to the ______ to control the quantity of fuel going to the combustion chamber. fuel pump. Fuel Flow Meter. Hydro-Mechanical Unit (HMU). Fuel Temperature Sensor.

The fuel and control indicating system provides data on the ______ display and engine maintenance pages. Flight Control. EICAS. Multi-Function. Primary Flight.

The fuel and control indicating system has components such as the LP fuel filter differential pressure transducer and the ______. High Pressure (HP) fuel pump. LP centrifugal fuel pump. Fuel Flow Meter. fuel injectors.

The fuel and control indication system interfaces with the EEC for control and ______. fuel distribution. power management. display. thrust control.

The TCM includes PCBs and an ARINC 429 interface housed in ______ enclosures. plastic. aluminum. steel. titanium.

Each fuel control switch has a ______ to permit replacement without removal of the TCM. connector. cap. handle. cover.

The T/R lever is blocked when the forward thrust lever is forward of idle by ______. 2 degrees. 3 degrees. 4 degrees. 5 degrees.

Each lever operates two isolated ______ through a dual gear/linkage drive. actuators. solenoids. resolvers. sensors.

The thrust management system controls the ______ servo drive. auto-throttle. fuel control. EEC. TCM.

The servo drive system provides two-way communication with the auto-throttles on the ______ interface. ARINC 410. ARINC 420. ARINC 429. ARINC 430.

Built-In Test (BIT) is included in the ______ system. fuel control. auto-throttle servo drive. resolver. RDC.

The electronics box is environmentally sealed for ______. insulation. protection. cooling. safety.

The thrust control module supplies control for forward and ______ thrust of the engines. idle. maximum. reverse. reduced.

The auto-throttle servo drive system communicates using the ______ interface. ARINC 420. ARINC 429. ARINC 430. ARINC 431.

The HP turbine section extracts mechanical energy from the ______ to drive the compressors. fuel flow. exhaust gas. oil pressure. bypass air.

The primary function of the HP turbine is to ______. increase air pressure. decrease fuel flow. extract mechanical energy. increase oil pressure.

The LP turbine blades are ______. hollow. solid and welded in pairs. made of ceramic. replaceable.

The LP turbine module bolts to the ______ support structure. combustor. tail bearing housing (TBH). IP compressor. fuel pump.

The LP turbine shaft attaches to the stage 5 disc with a ______ and a curvic coupling. drive arm. fan disc. rotor. bearing.

The engine indicating system parameters are shown on the ______ display. Flight Control. Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS). Primary Flight. Multi-Function.

Primary engine indications include TPR, N1, and ______. N2. N3. Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT). Oil Pressure.

Secondary engine indications include N2, N3, and ______. Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT). Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). Oil Pressure. Thrust.

The Engine Electronic Controller (EEC) calculates TPR using inputs from P20, T20, and ______. P30. P50. N2. Oil Pressure.

TPR uses the temperature corrected overall compressor pressure ratio of ______ to P20. T20. P30. N2. N1.

The Turbofan Power Ratio (TPR) indication system interfaces with the ______. Fuel Control System. Hydraulic System. Common Core System (CCS). Environmental Control System.

The EEC calculates engine TPR from inputs including TGT and ______. N2. P30. N1. Oil Pressure.

The engine oil is stored in a reservoir that supplies oil to the ______ and pressure filter housing. oil pump. fuel pump. hydraulic pump. coolant pump.

The scavenge pump elements remove the oil from the bearing compartments and gearboxes and return it to the ______. oil tank. fuel tank. coolant tank. hydraulic tank.

Sensors send oil pressure and temperature data to the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC) and an oil quantity transmitter sends oil quantity data to the ______. Fuel Control Module (FCM). Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC). Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE). Engine Monitoring Unit (EMU).

The oil tank contains the necessary quantity of engine oil and serves as the oil system servicing point with an oil fill cap at the opening in the top of the oil tank, which is the oil system ______ point. maintenance. inspection. servicing. refilling.

A graduated oil level sight glass on the side of the oil tank shows the ______ of oil in the oil tank. color. quality. temperature. quantity.

The engine oil storage system has interfaces with other engine oil system components through tubing and with the Common Core System (CCS) through the Main Engine Data Concentrator (MEDC) connection to the oil ______ transmitter. pressure. temperature. quantity. flow.

The oil pump assembly contains a pressure pump and ______ scavenge pumps. 5. 8. 10. 12.

The oil goes from the Engine Oil Surface Coolers (EOSC) or the surface cooler Bypass Valve (BPV) to the engine Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (FOHE) and then through the last-chance oil ______ to the bearing compartments and gearboxes. strainers. filters. screens. coolers.

Excitation power for the high pressure oil filter differential pressure transducer comes from channel A of the Engine Electronic Controller (EEC), while channel B of the EEC gives excitation power to the scavenge oil filter differential pressure transducer. Power for the Oil Debris Signal Conditioner (ODSC) and the Oil Debris Sensor (ODS) comes from channel A of the ______. EEC. HMU. MEDC.

The oil goes through the pressure oil filter to remove particle contamination, and this filter is monitored for ______. flow rate. temperature. pressure. differential pressure.

The scavenge air/oil mixture goes through the oil debris separator and the scavenge filter before it goes back to the ______. oil pump. oil tank. oil cooler. oil filter.

The core flow is used for combustion, driving the turbine sections, making some forward thrust, turbine cooling and sealing, Engine Section Stator (ESS) anti-icing, and High Pressure Compressor (HPC) servo air for valve control muscle pressure. The internal engine cooling and sealing gets air from IPC stage 8 - IP8, HPC stage 3 - HP3, and HPC stage 6 - ______. HP6. HP5. HP4. HP7.

A Secondary Air System (SAS) gets air from the compressor section. When selected, it uses this air to cool the engine (turbine) internally and seal and pressurize the main bearing ______. shaft. compartments. casings. chambers.

An airflow control system maintains stable airflow through the IPC and HPC over a wide range of speeds by changing the guide vane airflow angle of the IPC inlet air and opening compressor ______ valves at low speed and when airflow is disrupted. bypass. bleed. relief. exhaust.

The engine anti-icing system is designed to prevent any ice accretion that may occur, particularly in and around the areas of the ESS vanes at the inlet to the Intermediate Pressure Compressor (IPC), and the Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) that guide the airflow into the ______. ESS. IPC. HPC. fan.

Zone 1 is ventilated by ram air through an inlet in the inlet cowl and goes out through a vent that is combined with the right VFSG access door. Zone 2 fan air goes into the zone through inlets at the front edge of the core fairings and returns to the fan stream through outlets at the 3:00 and 9:00 positions near the A frame root. Zone 3 fan air goes into the zone through tubes on the thrust reverser inner wall and goes out between the aft edge of the thrust reverser inner wall and the ______. nacelle. exhaust sleeve. thrust reverser. fan stream.

The EEC sends start parameter data to the EICAS during the start sequence. True. False.

The EICAS Start mode indications include AUTORESTART. True. False.

The stable idle green tick mark disappears after the start sequence is complete. True. False.

AUTOSTART is displayed above the N2 display during the engine start sequence. True. False.

Monitoring oil pressure increase is unnecessary during the engine start sequence. True. False.

EGT increase and maximum should be monitored during the engine start sequence. True. False.

N1 and N3 increase should not be monitored during the engine start sequence. True. False.

The ignition system for each engine contains these components: Exciter box, High tension ignition lead, and ______. Ignition coil. Spark plug. Igniter plug. Starter motor.

Each ignition lead supplies the electrical output from the related ignition exciter to its ______. ignition coil. spark plug. igniter plug. starter motor.

The EEC sends a signal for a high-energy output voltage from the exciter when necessary. One of the two ignition systems operates at each ground start to prevent one plug from becoming more worn than the other and to ensure no ______. engine flooding. fuel leakage. system faults. performance issues.

The exhaust nozzle, forming the outer contour of the exhaust system, attaches to the outer flange of the Low Pressure Turbine (LPT), providing protection to the aft pylon with a ______. fire seal. heat shield. thermal barrier. insulation layer.

The forward and aft centerbody sections, part of the primary exhaust system, attach to each other and to the LPT case, forming the inner annulus of the exhaust system to streamline the gas flow from the LPT away from the engine, thus contributing to the generation of ______. reverse thrust. forward thrust. engine cooling. exhaust gases.

How does the air conditioning distribution system move air to different areas?. Via overhead crew rest distribution and LGV system. Through main distribution and recirculation air distribution. By utilizing alternate ventilation system and AVS. Using compact mixers and plenum/manifold for passenger cabin.

What is the purpose of the CAC's Add Heat Valve (AHV) in the air conditioning cooling subsystem?. To regulate the speed of the motor-driven compressor. To ensure sufficient outlet air temperature from CAC. To control the flow rate of air through the variable diffuser. To increase the pressure and temperature of the air during compression.

How does the upper recirculation system contribute to the air movement within the passenger cabin?. It filters moist air from the mix bay to the main distribution system. It moves crown air to different parts of the passenger cabin. It removes smoke from the related crew rest. It decreases the temperature of the power electronics cooling system.

What subsystem helps to decrease the temperature of the power electronics cooling system (PECS) cooling fluid?. Overhead crew rest distribution syste. Lavatory/galley ventilation (LGV) system. Main distribution system. Alternate ventilation system (AVS).

Which component of the air conditioning distribution system controls the amount of air flow to different areas?. Sidewall returns air grilles and decompression vents. Orifices at duct connections. Crown dryer system. Personal air outlet (PAO) system.

How is conditioned air supplied to the flight compartment?. From plenum/manifold where left and right pack outlet air mixes. From compact mixers mixed with trim valve hot air. Through main distribution and recirculation air distribution. Via alternate ventilation system and AVS.

What are the subsystems involved in the air conditioning cooling system?. Main distribution, Recirculation air distribution, AVS. Conditioned air, FCAC, ICS. Overhead crew rest distribution, LGV system, Crown dryer. Trim air system, Ozone converter, Air separation system.

How many CACs are there for each pack bay in the air conditioning system?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

What is the purpose of the AHV in the CAC subsystem?. To ensure sufficient outlet air temperature. To regulate the speed of the air bearings. To control the flow rate of the air. To increase the pressure of the air.

Which component of the air distribution system regulates air flow to different areas?. Orifices at duct connections. Sidewall returns air grilles. Personal air outlet system. Crown dryer system.

Which system helps to decrease the temperature of the power electronics cooling system?. LGV system. Overhead crew rest distribution system. Main distribution system. AVS system.

How does the conditioned air reach the flight compartment?. From compact mixers mixed with trim valve hot air. From plenum/manifold. Through main distribution and recirculation air distribution. Via trim air system and Ozone converter.

What function does the ICS serve in the air conditioning system?. It uses refrigeration to make cold cooling fluid. It controls the temperature in the cargo compartment. It increases the pressure and temperature of the air. It provides a larger temperature control range in the cargo compartment.

What is the primary function of the pylons on an aircraft?. Transfer engine loads to the wings. Generate lift for the wings. Carry passengers and cargo. Act as fuel tanks for the engines.

Which components connect the airplane systems to the engines through the pylons?. Fuel, hydraulics, and electrical systems. Landing gear and brakes. Avionics systems. Oxygen supply systems.

What is the role of the engine mounts in relation to the pylons?. Absorb engine thrust and vertical and side loads. Provide attachment points for landing gear. Generate lift for the wings. Regulate engine fuel flow.

What can cause changes in tap sound during inspection?. Differences in material composition. Differences in surface temperature. Differences in thickness. Differences in surface texture.

How can inspectors differentiate between undamaged areas and areas with delamination or disbonding?. Undamaged areas make a sharp sound. Areas with delamination or disbonding make a sharp sound. Areas with delamination or disbonding make a dull sound. Undamaged areas make a dull sound.

What is the primary purpose of the pylon structure?. To support the engine. To connect the wing to the engine. To distribute fuel to the engine. To carry hydraulic fluid to the engine.

What materials are used for the engine attach fittings on the torque box?. Titanium. Aluminum. Stainless steel. Carbon fiber.

What systems have connections to the pylon in the engine-topylon connections?. Electrical, hydraulic, fuel. Navigation, communication, entertainment. Landing gear, brake, steering. Wing flap, slat, aileron.

What is each layer of composite material called?. Layer. Tow. Ply. Bundle.

Where do composite plies come from?. Rolls. Sheets. Blocks. Molds.

What are the two types of composite plies mentioned?. Fabric, Tape. Film, Sheet. Mesh, Ribbon. Yarn, Thread.

What is the main difference between fabric and tape plies?. Direction of fiber bundles. Thickness of the material. Color of the material. Type of resin used.

What are prepregs?. Plies impregnated with uncured resin. Finished composite parts. Composite plies made from recycled materials. Tools used in composite manufacturing.

What determines the grade of tape plies?. Thickness. Color. Length. Width.

Which type of composite plies constitute the majority of the 787 structure?. Tape. Fabric. Prepregs. Film.

How do weave styles of fabric affect its properties?. Strength and ability to conform to shape. Color and texture. Thickness and weight. Conductivity and flexibility.

What is the purpose of IWWF in composite fabrication?. Increase conductivity of the skin. Improve flexibility. Enhance visual appeal. Reduce weight and increase strength.

What advantage does adding phosphor bronze wires to the outer layer of the fuselage provide?. Decreases structural damage from a lightning strike. Increases the weight of the fuselage. Enhances aerodynamic performance. Improves thermal insulation.

What are the three subsystems involved in the equipment cooling system?. Forward electronic equipment (EE) cooling, Aft EE cooling, Miscellaneous EE cooling. Flight deck cooling, Cabin cooling, Cockpit cooling. Avionics cooling, Engine cooling, Hydraulic system cooling. Oxygen system cooling, Fuel management cooling, Electrical system cooling.

How does the forward EE cooling system operate in terms of airflow?. Push-pull procedure. Circular airflow. Vertical airflow. Horizontal airflow.

What is the function of the supply override valve in the equipment cooling system?. Pushes air through the supply fan. Pulls air from the left sidewall through a barrier filter. Pulls air from the electronic equipment through hoods and piccolo ducts. Pushes air around a smoke detector.

Where is the primary application of the EE cooling application software located?. In GPM L1. In GPM R1. In the cockpit. In the flight deck.

What components are part of the forward cargo compartment heating system?. Forward cargo heat electric heater, Forward cargo heat supply valve, Forward cargo heat supply duct temperature sensor. Oxygen system, Avionics cooling, Electrical system. Fuel management system, Hydraulic system, Engine cooling system. Cockpit heating, Cabin heating, Lavatory heating.

How does the forward cargo compartment heating system control the temperature in the cargo compartment?. By moving warm air mixed with air from below the cargo compartment floor through an in-line duct heater. By circulating cold air from the flight deck cooling system. By adjusting the pressure in the cargo compartment. By activating the exhaust fan to remove excess heat.

What role does the CCS play in controlling the forward cargo compartment heating system?. It monitors the pressure in the cargo hold. It regulates the flow of oxygen in the cargo compartment. It controls the operation of the flight deck cooling system. It uses the forward cargo duct temperature sensor and the two cargo compartment temperature sensors to calculate control of the heater.

Which components are part of the forward cargo compartment heating system?. Forward cargo heat electric heater, Forward cargo heat supply valve, Forward cargo heat supply duct temperature sensor. Oxygen system, Avionics cooling, Electrical system. Fuel management system, Hydraulic system, Engine cooling system. Cockpit heating, Cabin heating, Lavatory heating.

What is the purpose of the forward cargo air conditioning (FCAC) system?. To supply temperature control of 40F (4C) to 80F (26C) in the forward cargo compartment to protect animals and perishable cargo. To provide cooling for the flight deck. To regulate the temperature of the avionics. To control the pressure in the cargo hold.

How does the FCAC system decrease the relative humidity of the air in the cargo compartment?. By as much as 70%. By as much as 50%. By as much as 90%. By as much as 30%.

What action does the FWD CARGO A/C switch perform when moved away from the OFF position?. Turns on the FCAC. Turns on the forward cargo heat electric heater. Activates the cargo compartment exhaust fan. Initiates the forward cargo heat exhaust shutoff valve.

Which panel allows control of the forward cargo compartment temperature?. P5 CARGO TEMP panel. P5 COOLING panel. P5 AVIONICS panel. P5 CABIN panel.

What components are part of the flight compartment equipment?. Captain seat. First officer seat. First observer seat. Second observer seat.

What type of adjustments can be made to the captain and first officer seats?. Electrical and manual. Hydraulic and manual. Pneumatic and electrical. Mechanical and automated.

How is electrical power supplied to the captain and first officer seats?. Remote power distribution units (RPDU). Battery cells. Power generators. Inverter systems.

Where are the manual controls for the captain and first officer seats located?. On both sides of the seats. On the armrests. On the back of the seats. On the ceiling of the flight compartment.

What is the function of the harness reel lock control on the seats?. Releases the harness lock mechanism. Adjusts the seat position. Controls the seat recline. Adjusts the lumbar support.

How are the captain and first officer seats powered for adjustment?. Electrically and manually. Hydraulically and manually. Pneumatically and automatically. Mechanically and automatically.

What is the primary material used to construct the captain and first officer seats?. Metal. Carbon fiber reinforced plastic (CFRP). Wood. Plastic.

The left armrest of the first observer seat moves out of the usual position for __________. storage. comfort. adjustments.

The right armrest of the first observer seat includes a fold-out __________. work table. tray. console.

Manual adjustments for the first observer seat include horizontal, vertical, recline, __________, armrest, and headrest. lumbar. tilt. height.

Manual adjustments for the first observer seat include horizontal, vertical, __________, lumbar, armrest, and headrest. recline. tilt. height.

The passenger compartment seats attach to the __________ on the floor. seat tracks. overhead bins. partitions.

In-flight entertainment (IFE) connections between seats are in the __________. passenger seat track covers. overhead bins. PSUs.

There are different lengths of passenger seat track covers for different __________ between passenger seats. distances. materials. widths.

Attendant seats give flight attendants a location to stay in during __________. flight. takeoff. landing.

Each attendant seat has an attendant switch panel (ASP) and a cabin attendant __________ (CAH). handset. screen. console.

The attendant seats attach to the seat tracks on the __________. floor. ceiling. walls.

Galleys receive 115V AC, 3-phase, variable frequency power from electrical power distribution panels and __________ power from remote power distribution units (RPDU). 28V DC. 115V DC. 230V AC. 400V AC.

Lavatories receive 115V AC power (right or left AC bus) and 28V DC power (right or left DC bus) from different remote power distribution units (RPDU), typically connecting to the __________. right AC and DC buses. left AC and DC buses. both AC and DC buses. either AC or DC buses.

Typical lavatory interfaces include lights, speakers, smoke detector, fire extinguisher, water and waste system, oxygen system, and __________. ventilation system. heating system. cooling system. filtration system.

The water and waste interface connections go into the lavatory through the __________ panel. floor. ceiling. side. rear.

The emergency descent devices are located in a compartment above the first observer seat on the flight deck and are used to __________. assist in cabin decompression. provide an escape route for passengers. help flight crew members descend out of the flight deck overhead door. signal cabin crew in case of decompression.

The decompression warning horn in the OFCR alerts the flight crew in the OFCR about __________. emergency evacuation. cabin decompression. impending turbulence. engine failure.

Seat track fittings attach the entrance enclosure module to seat tracks in the floor, while tie rods provide lateral support and attach the top part of the module to the airplane. What does the door at the cabin floor level have?. A keypad for emergency communication. An electronic lock activated by the pilot. A manual latch that opens with an airline-set code. A touchpad for crew access.

The crew oxygen subsystem uses __________ to supply oxygen to the flight crew at the correct pressure for the altitude. single-use pressurized cylinders. gaseous oxygen source. liquid oxygen cylinders. oxygen concentrators.

The passenger oxygen subsystem delivers oxygen in pulses from __________ to passengers located in various areas of the aircraft. oxygen masks. portable oxygen tanks. overhead storage compartments. oxygen concentrators.

How does the portable oxygen subsystem supply oxygen to users during emergencies?. Through continuous flow from the cylinder. Through a pulsed delivery system. Through oxygen concentrators. Through liquid oxygen cylinders.

Which of the following is a component of the passenger oxygen system?. Emergency oxygen masks only. Oxygen cylinders, masks, PSU doors, and Oxygen control unit. Oxygen concentrators only. High-pressure regulators only.

What triggers the flow of oxygen in the passenger oxygen system?. Manual activation by the cabin crew. Manual activation by the passengers. Sensing of breathing through the mask. Cabin altitude reaching 14,500 feet.

How does the oxygen system ensure oxygen supply to passengers and cabin crew?. Oxygen continuously flows once the mask is worn. Oxygen flows intermittently in pulses. Oxygen is released manually by the cabin crew. Oxygen is released automatically at high cabin altitudes.

How does the passenger oxygen system regulate oxygen flow to users?. Through manual adjustment by the flight crew. By releasing pulses of oxygen with each user breath. By continuously flowing oxygen until the cylinder is empty. By monitoring cabin pressure and adjusting flow accordingly.

What is the function of the PASS OXYGEN switch on the P5 panel?. To activate the oxygen system for passengers. To control the cabin air conditioning. To initiate the landing gear deployment. To enable the emergency lighting system.

Where is the manual control for the passenger oxygen system located?. On the flight deck. In the passenger cabin. In the galley area. In the lavatories.

What is the purpose of the PED latch mechanism?. To keep the door closed, latched, and locked. To operate the hold-open handle. To control the vent door. To disarm the EPAS.

What role does the PED external handle fairing play?. It covers the external handle mechanism. It controls the mode select handle. It releases the hold-open handle. It activates the EPAS.

When can the mode select handle not operate?. When the PED is in the lifted open position. When the door is closed. When the EPAS is armed. When the vent door is open.

What is the purpose of the hold-open handle?. To manually release the door from the fuselage hook. To engage the EPAS. To operate the vent door. To disarm the mode select handle.

What must be done to the hold-open handle to close the door?. It must be manually released. It must be rotated 180 degrees. It must be disarmed. It must be pulled outward.

What are the interfaces of the forward and aft cargo doors?. Airplane structure, Door indication system. Emergency exit, Oxygen system. Water system, Waste system. Electrical system, Lighting system.

What type of operation controls the usual operation of the forward and aft cargo doors?. Electric motor operates a hydraulic pump. Manual operation. Pneumatic system. Gravity system.

Where are the controls located for the normal operation of the forward and aft cargo doors?. External fuselage or in the cargo compartment. Flight deck. Passenger cabin. Undercarriage.

What are the two types of composite construction mentioned?. Sandwich and Solid laminate. Carbon and Fiberglass. Aluminum and Titanium. Steel and Copper.

What are the components of sandwich construction?. Two thin facesheets around a honeycomb core. Multiple plies of fiberglass or carbon. Solid laminate construction. Edgebands where the sandwich panels attach to the substructure.

What is the primary advantage of CFRP mentioned in the text?. Strong and stiff. Less weight than almost all other common aircraft materials. Does not corrode. Used more than any other material on the 787.

What is a disadvantage of CFRP according to the text?. Can cause adjacent aluminum parts to corrode (if not sealed). High cost. Strong and stiff. Less weight than almost all other common aircraft materials.

Which type of composite construction was most common before the 787?. Sandwich. Solid laminate. Carbon fiber reinforced plastic (CFRP). Fiberglass.

What are examples of components made using sandwich construction on the 787?. Radome, fairings, spoilers, wing LE and TE panels, floor panels, elevators, rudders, landing gear doors, and interior structure. Carbon and Fiberglass. Solid laminate construction. Aluminum and Titanium.

What is the characteristic of CFRP mentioned in the text?. Used more than any other material on the 787. The stiffest of the composites used on Boeing commercial aircraft. High cost. Can cause adjacent aluminum parts to corrode (if not sealed).

What material is used to make the fuselage skin?. Aluminum. Carbon tape and fabric. Titanium. Composite materials.

What is the primary function of fuselage stringers?. Prevent skin buckling. Carry cabin pressurization loads. Support the passenger floor. Carry body bending loads.

What is the material used to make fuselage frames on the -8?. Braided carbon. Aluminum. Titanium. Composite materials.

What component carries loads from the floors to the skin?. Fuselage frames. Fuselage skin. Shear ties. Wing ribs.

What role do floor beams play in the aircraft structure?. Support the passenger floor. Carry wing vertical loads. Prevent wing skin buckling. Stabilize the stringers and transfer loads.

What is the material used for the wing skin?. Aluminum. Titanium. Composite materials. Carbon tape and fabric.

What function do wing spars serve in the aircraft?. Carry wing bending loads. Carry wing vertical loads. Stabilize the stringers and transfer loads. Support the passenger floor.

What material are wing ribs typically made from?. Carbon fiber reinforced plastic (CFRP). Aluminum. Titanium. Composite materials.

What materials are the pylons typically made from?. Carbon fiber reinforced plastic (CFRP) tape and fabric. Aluminum. Titanium. Composite materials.

What purpose do the forward and aft fairings and nacelle cowlings serve in relation to the pylons?. Give a smooth airflow along the nacelle and pylon. Generate additional engine thrust. Prevent wing skin buckling. Stabilize the aircraft in turbulence.

What should be the maximum distance between taps during a full inspection?. No more than one third the allowable damage limit size. Half the allowable damage limit size. Twice the allowable damage limit size. Equal to the allowable damage limit size.

Why is it important to tap along contours of constant structure and thickness during inspection?. Differences in thickness can cause errors in finding damage. It helps identify areas with varying thickness. It speeds up the inspection process. It prevents damage during the tap test.

What is the purpose of drawing lines on the surface during inspection of large areas?. To mark areas that need repair. To ensure no area is overlooked during inspection. To determine the extent of existing damage. To guide the inspector's movements during inspection.

What materials are used in the construction of the strut torque box?. Titanium, aluminum, and corrosion-resistant steel. Carbon fiber and fiberglass. Aluminum and stainless steel. Magnesium and titanium.

What components make up the torque box in the pylon structure?. Spar webs, spar chords, side skins, frames. Bulkheads, ribs, stiffeners, spars. Bulkheads, ribs, spar webs, attachment hardware. Ribs, stiffeners, frames, attachment hardware.