CUESTIONARIO TALLER AVIONICA

1 What are some potential risks associated with electrical current according to the safety practices. Skin irritation and dizziness. Serious flesh burns and muscle contractions. Hair loss and joint pain. Vision impairment and respiratory issues.

2 What is electrical current defined as in a closed electrical circuit?. The flow of negative charges from negative to positive. The flow of positive charges from positive to negative. The flow of negative charges from positive to negative. The flow of positive charges from negative to positive.

3 Which of the following are the four circuit elements found in every electrical circuit?. Current, Energy, Capacitance, Frequency. Voltage, Resistance, Power, Inductance. Current, Voltage, Resistance, Power. Amperage, Conductance, Impedance, Wattage.

4 According to the Law of Electrical Charges, which of the following statements is true?. Two positive charges will attract each other. Two negative charges will attract each other. A positive charge will repel a negative charge. A negative charge will repel a positive charge.

5 What is the force that causes current to flow in an electrical circuit?. Voltage. Resistance. Power. Electromotive Force.

6 Which type of current is produced by most sources and flows in only one direction through the circuit. Alternating current (AC). Pulsating current (PC). Direct current (DC). Oscillating current (OC).

7 What is the purpose of a rectifier circuit in electrical equipment?. To increase resistance in the circuit. To convert AC voltage to DC voltage. To decrease the flow of current. To generate alternating current.

8 What is the unit of measurement for resistance in an electrical circuit?. Ampere (A). Volt (V). Ohm (Ω. Watt (W).

9 Which of the following is a common type of fixed resistor used in electrical circuits?. Variable resistor. Rheostat. Carbon composition resistor. Potentiometer.

10 What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?. Watt. Ohm. Ampere. Volt.

11 Why is it important to consider the wattage rating of electrical components in circuit design?. To determine the physical size of the component. To ensure proper heat dissipation and prevent damage. To regulate the voltage levels in the circuit. To control the resistance of the component.

12 What is the purpose of a multimeter in electrical measurements?. To measure only resistance in a circuit. To measure only voltage in a circuit. To combine the functions of a voltmeter, ohmmeter, and ammeter. To generate electrical signals for testing purposes.

13 What precaution should be taken to ensure accurate ammeter readings and prevent electrical shocks?. Exceeding the capabilities of the meter. Setting the range selector switch to the lowest range. Disconnecting the circuit from the power source before measuring current. Keeping the circuit connected to the power source during measurements.

14 According to Ohm's Law, if the voltage applied to a circuit is increased, how is the current affected?. Current increases. Current decreases. Current remains the same. Current becomes zero.

15 In a circuit with 120V and 1,200 ohms of resistance, how much current will flow (in milliamps)?. 10 mA. 100 mA. 1 mA. 1,000 mA.

16 What is the purpose of an attenuator in a circuit?. To increase voltage. To decrease current. To decrease signal strength. To increase resistance.

17 Define resistance and explain the unit of measurement for resistance. Resistance limits current flow; measured in volts. Resistance opposes current flow; measured in ohms. Resistance controls voltage; measured in watts. Resistance regulates power; measured in amperes.

18 What is the difference between a fixed resistor and a variable resistor?. Fixed resistors have changing values; variable resistors have constant values. Fixed resistors have constant values; variable resistors have changing values. Fixed resistors are used in series circuits; variable resistors are used in parallel circuits. Fixed resistors are used in parallel circuits; variable resistors are used in series circuits.

19 What is the purpose of a diode rectifier in an electrical circuit?. To amplify signals. To regulate voltage. To convert AC to DC. To store electrical energy.

20 How is a potentiometer different from a rheostat?. Potentiometers have fixed resistance values. Rheostats have three terminals. Potentiometers control voltage. Rheostats control current.

21 How should operators protect ESD sensitive devices before opening a protective container?. Wear gloves. Ground the operator's body. Use a metal tool. Increase humidity levels.

22 Why is it important to check tools used in electrical installations regularly?. To increase the weight of the tools. To ensure tools are functioning correctly. To change the color of the tools. To reduce the number of tools used.

23 What components can be part of Line Replaceable Units (LRUs) in aircraft systems?. Engines and landing gear. Computers, sensors, and actuators. Passenger seats and overhead bins. In-flight entertainment systems.

24 Why are LRUs in aircraft systems continuously monitored?. To control the cabin temperature. For entertainment purposes. For safety reasons and troubleshooting. To adjust the aircraft's altitude.

25 What is the purpose of Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) in aircraft systems?. To serve as a coffee maker for the crew. To monitor the weather conditions. To conduct diagnostic tests and troubleshoot issues. To play music for passengers.

26 How can you determine the wire type and gauge for a connector in the ESPM?. Refer to the Aircraft Maintenance Manual. Check the Electrical Standard Practices Manual index. Consult the Aircraft Wiring Manual (AWM). Contact Airbus customer service.

27 What is the main purpose of the MIL-STD-202H standard?. To create new electronic components for military use. To establish uniform methods for testing electronic and electrical components. To define the production process for military equipment. To provide guidelines for military training exercises.

28 Which components are covered by the MIL-STD-202H standard?. Large machinery and vehicles. Small component parts like capacitors, resistors, and switches. Software and firmware used in military applications. Communication protocols for military networks.

29 What is the weight limit for components tested under MIL-STD-202H?. 100 pounds. 200 pounds. 300 pounds. 400 pounds.

30 What is the maximum root mean square (RMS) test voltage specified in MIL-STD-202H?. 10,000 volts. 20,000 volts. 30,000 volts. 50,000 volts.

31 MIL-STD-202H test methods apply to which parts besides those covered by military specifications?. Only parts that have been previously tested. Parts covered by commercial specifications. Parts not covered by any approved specification or standard. Parts that exceed 300 pounds in weight.

32 What is the purpose of the ESD control program standard ANSI/ESD S20.20-2021 ?. To design new electronic components. To provide administrative and technical requirements for an ESD control program. To train employees on ESD safety. To replace outdated testing methods.

33 When should the sanitation procedure for the espresso maker be conducted?. Before the Final Inspection Procedure. At any random time during production. At the beginning of the Final Inspection Procedure. At the end of the Final Inspection Procedure.

34 How many Long Coffee functions should be performed for each water outlet during sanitation?. Three for the single version and one for the double version. Two for the single version and three for the double version. Five for the single version and one for the double version. One for the single version and two for the double version.

35 What is the purpose of the OCM LOADER SOFTWARE V5 ?. To cook food in the oven. To communicate with an oven and exchange data between the oven and a personal computer. To repair the oven. To control the temperature of the oven.

36 What is one function of the OCM LOADER SOFTWARE V5 ?. Playing music. Downloading recipes. Uploading new settings and software to the unit. Sending emails.

37 What types of data can be exchanged using the OCM LOADER SOFTWARE V5?. Audio files. Videos. Data and logs. Text messages.

38 What type of memory does the SSFDR use for recording flight data?. Hard disk drive. Magnetic tape. Solid-state flash memory. Optical disc.

39 How long can the SSFDR store aircraft parameters in its crash survivable memory module?. 10 hours. 15 hours. 20 hours. 25 hours.

40 What configurations are available for the SSFDR to accommodate various customer demands?. Input power source and memory module size. Form factor size and ULB installation. OMS interface and CSMU capacity. All of the above.

41 At what data rate can the SSFDR store the last 25 hours of flight data?. 32 WPS. 64 WPS. 128 WPS. 256 WPS.

42 What is the primary function of the SSFDR?. To provide real-time flight data. To receive aircraft parameter data from a DFDAU and store it for future retrieval. To control aircraft systems. To transmit data to ground stations.

43 How is access to the stored information in the SSFDR typically achieved?. Via a USB interface. By use of the SSFDR RS422 interface with GBE. Through a direct data link. By using a wireless connection.

44 For units with an OMS interface, how can stored data be accessed?. By using a PDL or ADL. By using a direct cable connection. By using a Wi-Fi network. Through a satellite link.

45 What additional system is supplied with the SSFDR for diagnostic purposes?. A GPS system. An internal BITE system. A remote monitoring system. An external backup battery.

46 Which component is responsible for the main control functions in the SSFDR?. Power supply regulator A2. Memory module. Controller A1. Power supply filter A3.

47 What does the PN 722-4005 device do in the SSFDR system?. Filters power input. Stores aircraft parameter data. Provides main control functions. Regulates power supply.

48 What is the purpose of the J1 GBE connector in the SSFDR?. To program the firmware PROM. To interface with the power supply. To download data to ground-based equipment. To monitor SSFDR activity.

49 Which connector is used for power supply interfacing in the SSFDR?. J2. J3. J4. J5.

50 What does the memory module in the SSFDR use for data storage?. Magnetic tape. FLASH memory technology. Optical discs. Hard disk drive.

51 What happens to the SSFDR data if the power is interrupted for more than 200 ms?. The recorder enters Power Down Mode. The data is lost. The SSFDR stops recording immediately. Data is transferred to an external device.

52 How is the SSFDR initialized after power application or command?. It performs a self-test. It enters Continuous Monitor Mode. It starts recording data. It enters Download Mode.

53 In which mode does the SSFDR record data in parallel with RS-422 communications?. Test Mode. Download Mode. Monitor Mode. Record Mode.

54 What occurs if no ARINC 717 data stream is present for more than five seconds in Record Mode?. The SSFDR enters Monitor Mode. The SSFDR stops recording and activates the system status flag. The SSFDR begins a system reboot. The SSFDR performs a power cycle.

55 Which SSFDR mode is used for initial acceptance tests and subsequent return-to-service tests?. Record Mode. Monitor Mode. Test Mode. Download Mode.

56 What is the primary function of the local microprocessor (80C198) in the SSFDR system?. To supply the power for the system. To manage system operations and data flow. To interface with external devices. To record flight data directly.

57 What data transfer rates can the SSFDR accept from the ARINC 573/717 interface?. 64, 128, or 256 bits per second. 64, 128, or 256 words per second. 64, 128, or 256 megabytes per second. 64, 128, or 256 bytes per second.

58 What happens if the ARINC 717 data stream is interrupted for more than 5 seconds?. Recording stops and the status discrete is asserted. The SSFDR switches to Monitor Mode. The SSFDR automatically reboots. The SSFDR starts a self-test.

59 How is memory chip failure managed during normal recording?. The SSFDR stops recording if a memory chip fails. Failed memory locations are identified and mapped out until capacity falls below 25 hours. The system ignores failed memory chips completely. Data is compressed to accommodate failed memory.

60 Which pins on the rear connector are used to select the data transfer rate for the SSFDR?. Pins 15 and 16. Pins 17 and 18. Pins 19 and 20. Pins 21 and 22.

61 What is the maximum data storage capacity for a "4X" memory module in the SSFDR?. 9 Mb. 18 Mb. 36 Mb. 72 Mb.

62 What is the role of the input sync words in the SSFDR data recording process?. They are detected and processed for significance. They are recorded but not given any significance. They trigger data compression. They are used to synchronize the input data stream.

63 How does the SSFDR handle a mismatch between the selected data rate and the actual input rate?. It stops recording immediately. It sets the status flag and maintenance flag. It reconfigures itself to match the input rate. It alerts ground-based equipment.

64 What is the function of the J1A-17 and J1A-18 pins on the rear connector?. To connect the SSFDR to the power supply. To identify the data rate expected from the FDAU. To download data to ground-based equipment. To interface with the ARINC 717 transceiver.

65 What occurs when the SSFDR operates in a configuration with mismatched pin selection and data rate?. The recorder reboots to correct the mismatch. The status flag is set and the maintenance flag is activated if the mismatch persists. The system automatically adjusts the data rate. The SSFDR enters Test Mode.

66 What is the primary material used in the construction of the Beverage Maker?. Stainless steel. Cast aluminum-magnesium-titanium. Plastic composite. Carbon fiber.

67 How is the Beverage Maker typically detached from its installation in the aircraft galley?. By unscrewing several bolts. By releasing a locking pin. By disconnecting electrical wires. By removing the housing platen.

68 What aspect of the Beverage Maker’s design ensures precise connection to the aircraft systems?. The modular construction. The hot water tank's design. The casting's rear framework. The removable rail assembly.

69 What does The Beverage Maker use to heat water for tea or other uses, in addition to coffee?. A separate water heater. An additional tank. Optional controls. A specialized brewing module.

70 How many watt immersion heaters are used by The Beverage Maker to heat the water in the tank?. Two 900 watt heaters. Three 900 watt heaters. One 900 watt heater. Three 500 watt heaters.

71 What is the function of the 15 watt WARMER mounted in the bottom of the platen in The Beverage Maker?. To boil water quickly. To maintain liquid temperature between 165° F to 195° F. To cool down the water. To filter impurities from the water.

72 When should an insulated server not be used with The Beverage Maker?. When the WARMER is off. When the BREW button is not pressed. When the brew handle is up. When the WARMER is on.

73 What is the purpose of the brew chamber's seal during the brew cycle in The Beverage Maker?. To prevent water from leaking. To retain grounds if the coffee bag is torn or broken. To ensure the coffee is brewed faster. To maintain temperature stability.

74 How is the server and brew cup secured during flight with The Beverage Maker?. By locking them with bolts. By placing them in a special compartment. By the brew handle being in the down position and server retainer covering the server. By using a vacuum seal.

75 What does the vent valve on The Beverage Maker allow for?. Manual refilling of the tank. Automatic filling or draining when interfaced with the aircraft water system. Cooling the tank quickly. Quick access for maintenance.

76 What power supply is required for the operation of The Beverage Maker?. Single-phase 115 VAC, 60 Hz. Three-phase 115 VAC, 400 Hz. Single-phase 230 VAC, 50 Hz. Three-phase 230 VAC, 60 Hz.

77 What should be done if the LOW WATER indicator light comes on in The Beverage Maker?. Press the BREW button. Fill the tank with water. Turn off the power supply. Replace the water tank.

78 How long does the BREW button light stay on after the brew solenoid valve closes in The Beverage Maker?. 5-10 seconds. 10-20 seconds. 30 seconds. 1 minute.

79 What is the cautionary note regarding the use of the WARMER with an insulated server?. The WARMER should be used only with a metal server. The WARMER can make the server's outer surface very hot. The WARMER should be turned off when not in use. The insulated server should be avoided entirely.

80 How is power applied to the optional WARMER in The Beverage Maker?. By pressing the POWER button and the BREW button. By pressing the POWER button and the WARMER button to ON. By turning the WARMER knob to the ON position. By pressing the POWER and TEA buttons simultaneously.

81 What is the temperature range maintained by the WARMER in The Beverage Maker for approximately 30. 150° F (65° C) to 180° F (82° C). 160° F (71° C) to 190° F (88° C). 165° F (74° C) to 195° F (91° C). 170° F (77° C) to 200° F (93° C).

82 What prevents The Beverage Maker from operating if the internal tank temperature is outside of specified. Control circuits. Resettable over temperature thermostats. The coffee level sensor. The LOW WATER indicator light.

83 What happens if the water tank external temperature exceeds 225° F (107° C) in The Beverage Maker?. The coffee level sensor activates. Power to the heaters is automatically removed by thermostats. The WARMER automatically turns off. The phase loss detection activates.

84 What is the factory setting for the pressure relief valve in The Beverage Maker?. 70 to 75 psig (4.83 to 5.17 barg). 75 to 80 psig (5.17 to 5.52 barg). 80 to 85 psig (5.52 to 5.86 barg). 85 to 90 psig (5.86 to 6.21 barg).

85 What occurs when the water level drops below the low water sensor in The Beverage Maker?. The POWER button light blinks. The LOW WATER indicator light comes ON. The brew cycle continues until the server is refilled. The WARMER button automatically turns off.

86 What is the function of the coffee level sensor in The Beverage Maker?. To measure the water temperature. To control the liquid level in the server and stop the brew cycle. To detect phase loss in the circuit. To reset the over temperature thermostats.

87 What happens when the tank temperature goes above 225° F (107° C) in The Beverage Maker?. The LOW WATER indicator light turns on. The safety latch is tripped and the POWER button light blinks. The WARMER automatically shuts off. The coffee level sensor activates.

88 What does the triple-blink mode of the POWER button light indicate in The Beverage Maker?. A low water level. Phase loss in the circuit. Over temperature condition. The WARMER is malfunctioning.

89 What is the first step to prepare The Beverage Maker to brew coffee?. Press the TEA button. Press the BREW button. Press the POWER button. Press the WARMER button.

90 How should the pillow pack of coffee be placed in the brew cup for The Beverage Maker?. Compress it slightly to fit. Ensure it is folded neatly. Place it with its seam down, without compression or folding. Place it with the seam facing up.

91 What should be done if the pillow pack is torn or broken during the brew cycle in The Beverage Maker?. Replace it immediately. Ignore it and continue brewing. Clean the brew cup with water. The coffee grounds will not be retained.

92 What does pressing the BREW button do in The Beverage Maker?. Starts the preheat cycle. Starts the brewing process when the water reaches the right temperature. Activates the WARMER for the coffee. Begins a cleaning cycle.

93 What is the recommended waiting time for brewing coffee from a cold start in The Beverage Maker?. Approximately one minute. Approximately three minutes. Approximately five minutes. Approximately ten minutes.

94 When is it appropriate to use the WARMER button with The Beverage Maker?. When using an insulated server. When using a non-insulated server. When the server is empty. When the brew handle is lifted.

95 What should be done after the brew cycle is complete and the BREW button light goes OFF in The Beverage Maker?. Remove the brew cup and discard the used pillow pack. Wait for the water to cool down. Refill the brew cup with coffee. Start the brewing process again.

96 What is the purpose of the TEA button in The Beverage Maker?. To brew coffee. To brew tea. To start the preheat cycle. To activate the WARMER.

97 What precautions should be taken when disassembling The Beverage Maker for testing purposes?. Ensure all components are protected and use tools correctly. Operate the Beverage Maker at high temperatures. Disassemble it without any specific precautions. Test it with an insulated server.

98 What is required before performing any tests on The Beverage Maker according to the testing procedures?. A clean and well-organized work area. A detailed knowledge of the illustrated parts list. A fully operational Beverage Maker. A visual inspection of the exterior components.

99 What is the nominal voltage of the battery 40678-2?. 24 V. 28 V. 43 Ah. 20 V.

100 How many cells does battery 40678-2 contain?. 10. 15. 20. 25.

101 What material are the battery 40678-2 cases made of?. Stainless steel. Polyamide. Nickel-plated copper. Silicone elastomer.

102 What is the electrolyte used in battery 40678-2?. KOH. H2SO4. NaCl. HCl.

103 At what temperature can battery 40678-2 operate?. -40 to +71 °C. -20 to +50 °C. 0 to +100 °C. -10 to +60 °C.

104 How much electrolyte is consumed per cell in battery 40678-2?. 25 cm3 (3 in3). 30 cm3 (4 in3). 20 cm3 (2 in3). 15 cm3 (1 in3).

105 What is the rated capacity of battery 40678-2 at 1-hour rate?. 43 A. 24 V. 43 Ah. 20 V.

106 How many cells need to be tested in the polarization test for battery 40678-2?. All. 5. 10. None.

107 At what pressure should the vent valve of battery 40678-2 operate?. 0.5 bar (7.25 psi). 1 bar (14.5 psi). 2 bar (29 psi). 0.1 bar (1.45 psi).

108 When should the electrolyte level in battery 40678-2 be adjusted?. During the last 30 minutes of charge. During maintenance. During discharge. During polarization test.

109 What should be done if a cell in battery 40678-2 has a voltage less than 1.5 V at the end of the charge?. Discard the cell. Recharge the cell. Check the connections. Adjust the temperature.

110 What could cause zero battery open-circuit voltage in battery 40678-2?. Defective electrical connector. Low insulation. Leakage of electrolyte. Fully discharged battery.

111 What should be done if battery 40678-2 has low insulation?. Do an insulation check. Charge the battery again. Clean the battery. Tighten the nuts.

112 How long should battery 40678-2 be kept in "open-circuit" condition during the polarization test?. 1 hour. 2 hours. 0.5 hour. 3 hours.

113 What is the weight of battery 40678-2?. 38.6 kg (85.1 lbs). 30 kg (66.1 lbs). 40 kg (88.2 lbs). 35 kg (77.2 lbs).

114 What action should be taken if the gap between the latch lever and the base of the battery box cover latch assembly exceeds 0.025" (0.635 mm)?. Leave it as is. Increase the gap. Lightly squeeze the latch lever. Replace the latch assembly.

115 What is the nominal voltage of the SAFT Battery 1658-6?. 12 V. 24 V. 28 V. 36 V.

116 How many vented nickel-cadmium cells does the battery contain?. 10. 15. 20. 25.

117 For which of the following purposes is the SAFT Battery 1658-6 NOT used?. Starting the engine. Powering cabin lights. Starting the APU. Backup power during flight malfunctions.

118 What is the rated capacity of the battery 1658-6 ?. 10 Ah. 17 Ah. 20 Ah. 24 Ah.

119 What material are the battery cases made of?. Polypropylene. Polyamide. Polyethylene. Polystyrene.

120 What type of electrolyte is used in the SAFT Battery 1658-6?. Sulfuric acid. Hydrochloric acid. KOH solution. NaOH solution.

121 What should be done if the open circuit voltage of a cell is found to be 0 V during the polarization test?. Replace the battery. Replace the cell. Perform a supplementary test. Recharge immediately.

122 During the vent valve test, what is the pressure range within which the vent valve should open?. 0.14 to 0.5 bar. 0.1 to 0.14 bar. 0.14 to 0.7 bar. 0.1 to 0.5 bar.

123 What should be added to a cell with an unusually high voltage at the start of the charge?. 5 cm³ of distilled water. 10 cm³ of distilled water. 5 cm³ of electrolyte. 10 cm³ of electrolyte.

124 At what temperature should a cell with a voltage of less than 1.5 V be charged to identify damaged separators?. 20 °C. 25 °C. 30 °C. 35 °C.

125 If a cell has zero voltage when the battery circuit is open, what is the probable cause?. Low electrolyte level. Short-circuited cell. Overcharging. Incorrect maintenance.

126 What is the procedure if a cell shows a reversed voltage after a discharge of 1 hour at 1 C1A?. Increase charging current. Replace the cell. Decrease charging current. Adjust electrolyte level.

127 What is the consequence of charging a cell with insufficient electrolyte?. Increased temperature. Reduced voltage. Increased capacity. Short-circuiting.

128 What should be done if the electrolyte compound comes into contact with the skin?. Wipe it off immediately. Neutralize with acetic solution. Cover with a bandage. Apply antiseptic cream.

129 What unit is used to describe the capacity of a cell or battery?. Volt. Ampere Hours. Watt. Ohm.

130 How is "Capacity to battery " generally expressed?. In Joules. In Amperes. As a percentage of nominal capacity. In Kilowatt Hours.

131 What does constant current charging involve?. Applying a fixed voltage. Applying a fixed current. Applying a variable voltage. Applying a variable current.

132 In constant potential charging, what happens to the charge current as the battery voltage increases?. It remains constant. It increases. It decreases. It fluctuates randomly.

133 What is the purpose of a trickle charge?. To fully charge a battery quickly. To maintain a battery in a fully charged condition. To discharge a battery completely. To charge a battery intermittently.

134 What is meant by the "C" rate of a battery?. The charging rate in volts. The rate of charge in percentage. The discharge rate in nominal amperes. The rate of current in amperes.

135 How is the state of charge usually expressed?. In voltage. In amperes. As a percentage of full capacity. In watts.

136 What is the electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery?. Sulfuric acid solution. Hydrochloric acid solution. Sodium Hydroxide solution. Potassium Hydroxide solution.

137 What does the end-of-charge voltage measure?. Voltage at the start of the charge. Voltage while the battery is on charge. Voltage after the battery is disconnected. Voltage during discharge.

138 What term describes the loss of capacity due to minimal overcharge cycling?. Fading. Corrosion. Electrolyte depletion. Separator damage.

139 What is the function of a separator in a battery?. To store energy. To conduct electricity. To prevent metallic contact between plates. To recombine oxygen.

140 What is a gas barrier in a battery?. A separator that prevents oxygen recombination on the negative plate. A conductor for ion movement. A device to release excess gas. A charger component.

141 What is the nominal voltage of a fully charged 20-cell nickel-cadmium battery?. 12 volts. 20 volts. 24 volts. 28 volts.

142 How is the open circuit voltage of a battery measured?. While the battery is charging. While the battery is discharging. With no current flowing. During deep discharge.

143 What procedure involves a deep discharge followed by a constant current charge to correct cell imbalance?. Trickle charging. Reconditioning. Constant potential charging. Short-circuiting.

144 What must be done before beginning the discharge of the battery (P/N 2758)?. Remove the vent-valves. Tighten the vent-valves. Check the electrolyte level. Remove all jewelry.

145 What can cause severe burns during battery maintenance (P/N 2758)?. Tilting the battery. Tightening vent-valves. Using insulated tools. Wearing protective shoes.

146 What should you do if the electrolyte comes into contact with the skin (P/N 2758)?. Call a doctor immediately. Neutralize with a base solution. Flush affected part with water and neutralize. Induce vomiting.

147 How should the battery area be prepared before installing a Saft nickel-cadmium battery (P/N 2758)?. Painted with an acid resistant paint. Cleaned with water only. Washed with a neutralizing agent and painted. Cleaned with a degreaser.

148 What should be done if the battery (P/N 2758) has been stored for longer than 3 months?. Install directly into the aircraft. Perform a charge procedure. Refer to Servicing after discharged storage. Disassemble and reassemble.

149 How is the rated capacity of aircraft batteries (P/N 2758) defined?. According to specific local conditions. Based on the manufacturer's recommendation. According to international standards. Based on the type of aircraft.

150 What is the procedure if electrolyte comes in contact with the eyes (P/N 2758)?. Flush with water for at least 5 minutes. Neutralize with baking soda. Flush with water for at least 15 minutes. Call a doctor only if pain persists.

151 What should you do if electrolyte is ingested (P/N 2758)?. Neutralize with a base solution. Flush affected part with water and neutralize. Induce vomiting. Call a doctor immediately.

152 Which tool type should be used when handling the battery (P/N 2758)?. Insulated tools. Regular tools. Battery-specific tools. Non-metallic tools.

153 What should be checked before placing a new battery (P/N 2758) into service?. Electrolyte level only. Visual inspection and torque check. Only the charge procedure. Only the insulation test.

154 What is Saft's recommendation for the disposal of end of life cells (P/N 2758)?. Return to manufacturer. Follow EASA regulations. Follow FAA guidelines. Follow local and national regulations.

155 What does Saft emphasize regarding environmental matters (P/N 2758)?. Battery maintenance. Proper recycling of nickel-cadmium batteries. Battery installation. Use of protective equipment.

156 What is the maximum operating temperature for the battery (P/N 2758)?. +37°C. +55°C. +60°C. +98°F.

157 What is the first step in the constant current charge procedure for the battery (P/N 2758)?. Check cell voltage. Remove vent cap covers. Connect battery to current source. Start charging immediately.

158 What must be done if a cell voltage rises above 1.5 V immediately during charging of battery (P/N 2758)?. Continue charging. Remove the battery. Stop the charge. Replace the cell.

159 What should be done during the cleaning of a disassembled battery (P/N 2758)?. Use petroleum spirits. Use a stiff brush and fresh water. Use solvents containing chlorine. Skip the cleaning.

160 When cleaning the battery (P/N 2758), what should you avoid using?. Sodium bicarbonate solution. Sulfamic acid solution. Trichloroethylene. Baking soda solution.

161 According to the text, what is a risk associated with nickel in the battery (P/N 2758)?. Chronic eczema. Chest pain. Vomiting. Throat damage.

162 What should be done to cells (P/N 2758) before disposing of them?. Washed thoroughly. Fully discharged. Recharged. Painted with acid resistant paint.

163 Which regulation requires that end of life cells (P/N 2758) must not be returned to service?. FAA regulations. Local regulations. EASA 'Part 145' regulations. Saft company policy.

164 What material is used for the construction of the Beverage Maker?. Cast aluminum-magnesium-titanium. Stainless steel. Plastic. Copper.

165 What component heats the water in the Beverage Maker?. Three 900 watt immersion type heaters mounted in the bottom of the tank. Brew handle. Platen heater. Server cavity.

166 What is the purpose of the brew chamber in the Beverage Maker?. To retain grounds in the event of a torn or broken pillow pack. To hold the coffee or tea bags. To heat a server full of hot water. To maintain liquid temperature between 165° F to 195° F.

167 What does the LOW WATER indicator light indicate in the Beverage Maker?. Low water level in the tank. High water temperature. Full server. Brew cycle completion.

168 How is the brew cycle reset if it is interrupted in the Beverage Maker?. By pressing the POWER button OFF and ON again. By pressing the BREW button again. By lifting the brew handle. By removing the brew cup.

169 What type of material is the inner oven made of?. Stainless steel. Aluminum. Plastic. Glass.

170 Which part of the oven assembly is made of light-weight plastic?. Frame Assembly. Door Assembly. Secondary Latches. Water Container Assembly.

171 What is the purpose of the Outer Case Assembly?. To provide protection to the inner oven. To regulate the temperature inside the oven. To circulate hot air in the oven. To hold the transport handle.

172 Where is the Oven Control Module (OCM) installed?. In the inner oven. In the outer case. In the rear cover plate. In the OCM compartment at the front side of the unit.

173 What does the thermo fuse assembly provide protection against?. Unexpected overheat. Power failure. Water leakage. Overcooling.

174 What is the function of the net-filter assembly?. To improve the EMI properties of the oven. To control the pressure in the oven cavity. To provide protection against overheating. To circulate hot air in the oven.

175 What does the cooling fan do when the unit is energized?. Reduces the temperatures around the electronic components. Increases the temperatures around the electronic components. Provides additional airflow in the oven. Circulates water in the plumbing system.

176 Where is the optical door sensor installed?. On the rear cover plate assembly. On the frame assembly. On the top of the OCM guiding assembly. On the inner oven.

177 What is the purpose of the water container assembly?. Supplies potable water to the water system of the unit. Drains water from the oven cavity. Cools down the electronic components. Provides additional insulation to the unit.

178 Which valve assembly controls the water injection into the oven cavity?. NC Valve Assembly. NO Valve Assembly. Solenoid Water Pump. Condenser.

179 What does the drain-out valve (V3) do during the cooking cycle?. Drains the water that is present in the condenser. Controls the pressure in the oven cavity. Injects water into the oven cavity. Drains water from the water container assembly.

180 When does the water pump (V1) start to pump repeated shots of water into the oven cavity?. When the oven cavity reaches a temperature of ± 100°C. When the steam-out valve (V4) closes. When the drain-out valve (V3) opens. When the cooling fan is activated.

181 What is the purpose of the final test on the Unit Under Test (UUT)?. To determine the modification status of the unit. To verify the error log. To do the power-up test. To ensure the unit is ready for service.

182 What does the Airline Setting Package (ASP) support?. All the software and publications for the Unit Under Test (UUT). The installation of the unit. The maintenance tasks of the unit. The modification of the unit.

183 What should be done to verify the modification status of the unit?. Examine the Modification Record Placards and/or Amendment Placard of the unit. Apply an amendment placard to the unit. Remove the OCM from the UUT. Start the power supply to energize the UUT.

184 What is shown on the display during the power-up test?. HMI / PWR software version and the green “Ready” light. Error messages. Temperature readings. Cooking program time.

185 What type of language is the CMM written in?. English. French. Spanish. Simplified Technical English (STE).

186 What manual structure section provides a list of all the major sub-divisions and illustrations in the CMM?. Front pages (TOC). Introduction (INTRO). List of Effective Pages (LEP). List of Sections.

187 What is the purpose of the Transmittal Sheet (TS)?. It gives a list of revised pages with brief descriptions of revisions. It provides filing instructions for all the supplied pages. It contains the latest revision status and revision history of the CMM. It contains the manufacturer's masthead and initial issue date.

188 Which part number system element identifies the configuration code of the unit?. 2nd element (XX). 1st element (43XXXXX). 3rd element (XX). 4th element (XX).

189 What is the function of the Maintenance Task Oriented Support System (MTOSS)?. Permits the use of Electrical Data Processing (EDP) of maintenance data. Organizes maintenance tasks and sub tasks logically. Provides automated sorting, retrieval, and management of digitized data. All of the above.

190 How many elements does an MTOSS number have?. Seven. Five. Six. Four.

191 What type of system is the plumbing system?. Closed-loop system. Open-loop system. Hybrid system. None of the above.

192 Which valve assembly controls the pressure in the oven cavity?. NO Valve Assembly. NC Valve Assembly. Solenoid Water Pump. Condenser.

193 When does the drain-out valve (V3) open during the operation of the plumbing system?. When the oven cavity reaches a pressure of ± 55 millibar [0.8 psi]. When the oven cavity temperature is more than ± 100°C [212°F]. When the drain-out valve (V3) de-energizes. When the cooling fan is activated.

194 What is the purpose of the drain-out valve (V3)?. Drains the water that is present in the condenser to return the kept water back to the oven cavity. Controls the pressure in the oven cavity. Injects water into the oven cavity. Drains water from the water container assembly.

195 What does the Airline Setting Package (ASP) contain?. All the software and publications for the Unit Under Test (UUT). The installation instructions for the unit. The maintenance tasks for the unit. The modification procedures for the unit.

196 What is the purpose of the Transmittal Sheet (TS)?. To give a list of revised pages with brief descriptions of revisions. To provide filing instructions for all the supplied pages. To contain the latest revision status and revision history of the CMM. To contain the manufacturer's masthead and initial issue date.

197 What is the function of the Maintenance Task Oriented Support System (MTOSS)?. To permit the use of Electrical Data Processing (EDP) of maintenance data. To organize maintenance tasks and sub tasks logically. To provide automated sorting, retrieval, and management of digitized data. All of the above.

198 How many elements does an MTOSS number have?. Seven. Five. Six. Four.

199 What is the main function of a multimeter ?. Measuring only voltage in electrical circuits. Measuring current and voltage in electrical circuits. Combining several measurement functions in one unit, including voltage, current, and resistance. Measuring resistance in electronic devices only.

200 What is the main role of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC)?. To control the fuel injection system. To manage the aircraft's navigation system. To control yaw damper, rudder trim, and rudder travel. To monitor the aircraft's electrical systems.

201 How does the FAC control the rudder trim?. By direct manual input from the pilot. Through control laws after acquiring command switch position and FMGC ARINC orders. By adjusting the hydraulic pressure. Through real-time satellite data.

202 What is the function of the monitor channel in the FAC?. To receive and consolidate sensor data, and monitor servo loops. To control the aircraft's lighting system. To manage the communication systems. To override the command channel during emergencies.

203 What type of data does the command channel in the FAC receive?. Weather data. Sensor data and discrete inputs to compute control laws. Navigation data. Passenger information.

204 What happens if the monitor channel detects an issue with the servo loops?. The aircraft's engines are shut down. The FAC switches to the opposite FAC. The flight crew is alerted to take manual control. The system enters a diagnostic mode.

205 What type of recording device is the SSCVR system?. Flight data recorder. Cockpit voice recorder. Weather recorder. Engine performance recorder.

206 How many channels of audio does the SSCVR simultaneously record?. Two. Three. Four. Five.

207 What type of memory does the SSCVR use to retain recorded information?. Magnetic tape. Solid state crash survivable memory. Optical disk. Hard drive.

208 According to the text, what does the SSCVR retain in its memory?. Only audio data. Only digital communications data. Only timing correlation signals. Audio, digital communications data, and timing data.

209 What standard does the SSCVR fully satisfy?. FAA regulations. EUROCAE Document ED-56A. ICAO standards. NTSB guidelines.

210 What optional feature does the SSCVR provide for future status reporting?. Audio playback. Digital communication. Helicopter rotor speed. Status information to an OMS.

211 What are the three components of the SSCVR system as shown in Figure 1?. Controller board A1, Power supply A2, ULB. Interface and control board, CSMU, Power supply A2. SRUS, Controller board A1, ULB. Basic system chassis, CSMU, Power supply A2.

212 What is the main function of the CSMU in the SSCVR system?. Controlling states and modes. Providing power on reset and monitoring power failure. Providing storage for input and ancillary system data. Converting aircraft power to secondary power.

213 What is the purpose of the power supply in the SSCVR system?. Storing input data. Providing controlled operation. Converting aircraft power. Performing erase and test functions.

214 What additional component can be installed as an option in the SSCVR system?. Controller board A1. Power supply A2. ULB. Handle.

215 What requirements does the SSCVR comply with?. TSO C-123a and TSO C-124a. FAA regulations. EUROCAE Document ED-56A. ICAO standards.

216 How are erase and test functions initiated in the SSCVR system?. Automatically. By discrete control signals activated by push buttons. Through external systems. By power up initialization.

217 What does the SSCVR system record to crash protected memory?. Audio and digital communications data. Timing data and rotor speed data. All input data. Power on reset and power failure monitoring.

218 What is the main function of the SSCVR?. To perform erase and test functions. To record audio and digital communications data. To store power failure data. To monitor cockpit temperature.

219 How are erase and test functions initiated in the SSCVR?. Automatically. By push buttons in the cockpit. Through external systems. By power down monitoring.

220 What does the power up function of the SSCVR perform?. Performs power on BIT to determine system integrity. Records audio and digital communication data. Activates the front panel BITE indicator. Sets maintenance discrete in failure mode.

221 What data does the record, test, and status function of the SSCVR store?. Only audio data. Only digital communication data. Audio, digital communication, timing, and rotor speed data. Configuration data and error logging data.

222 What is the purpose of the background test performed in the record, test, and status function of the SSCVR?. To verify operation of the unit. To download stored data. To initialize power up. To set maintenance discrete in failure mode.

223 What happens if a failure is detected during the record, test, and status function of the SSCVR?. Front panel BITE indicator is activated, maintenance discrete is set in failure mode, and error condition is reported to OMS system. Front panel BITE indicator is deactivated, unit enters standby mode, and error condition is ignored. Front panel BITE indicator is activated, unit stops recording, and error condition is deleted. Front panel BITE indicator flashes, unit reboots, and error condition is stored in temporary memory.

224 What happens if a failure is detected during power up of the SSCVR?. Failure condition is stored in crash protected memory, front panel BITE indicator is continuously on, and maintenance discrete is set in failure mode. Failure condition is ignored, front panel BITE indicator flashes, and unit continues normal operation. Failure condition is reported to OMS system only, front panel BITE indicator is activated, and maintenance discrete is set in failure mode. Failure condition is reported to OMS system only, front panel BITE indicator is activated, and unit enters standby mode.

225 What data does the push to test function of the SSCVR check?. Audio data. Digital communication data. System integrity. Configuration data.

226 How does the SSCVR indicate a successful self-test during the push to test function?. By activating the status LED once and emitting an 800-Hz tone. By deactivating the status LED and emitting a 400-Hz tone. By activating the microphone monitor once. By displaying a message on the cockpit display.

227 The letter symbol used to represent electrical current is. I. E. R.

228 The letter symbol used to represent electrical pressure is. E. R. I.

229 The letter symbol used to represent electrical resistance is. R. I. E.

230 The point in an aircraft electrical system from which the various circuits get their power is called a. bus. an electrical load. contactor.

231 Three things that happen in an electrical circuit when current flows through it are: heat is produced in the conductor. magnetic field surrounds the conductor. voltage is dropped across the load.

232 If a 4-gage copper wire routed in free air is to be replaced with an aluminum wire that is to carry the same amount of current, a ___ -gage aluminum wire will have to be used. 2. 4. 6. 8.

233 The smallest size aluminum wire recommended for use in aircraft electrical systems is ___-gage. 4. 6. 8. 10.

234 When selecting the size wire to use in an aircraft electrical system, two things must be considered. These are: current-carrying capability. allowable voltage drop. wire length. all of the above.

235 The longer line in the symbol for a battery indicates the ___ terminal. positive. negative.

236 Electrons flowing in an electrical circuit flow in the ___ direction as the arrowheads in a semiconductor diode symbol. opposite. same. Nearby.

237 Conventional current in an electrical circuit is assumed to flow in the ___ direction as the arrowheads in a semiconductor diode symbol. same. opposite. Nearby.

238 If the bar in the symbol for a semiconductor diode is connected to the negative terminal of a battery, the diode is ___ biased. forward. afther.

239 A forward-biased diode acts as a/an ___ switch. closed. open.

240 The voltage drop across a forward-biased silicon diode is approximately ___ volt. 0.7. 0.6. 0.9.

241 The voltage drop across a forward-biased silicon diode ___ vary with the current flowing through it. does not. does.

242 A semiconductor device that can be used as a voltage sensor is a/an. zener diode. bus.

243 A zener diode used as a voltage regulator is ___ biased. reverse. Nearby.

244 An electrical relay has a ___ core. fixed. Movable. Electromagnetic.

245 A solenoid has a ___ core. Unbiased. movable. Forward. Reverse.

246 When the base of an NPN transistor has the same polarity as the collector, the transistor acts as a/an ___ switch. closed. Open.

247 When a transistor is connected in an amplifier circuit, bringing its base polarity closer to that of the collector ___. increases. decreases.

248 A semiconductor device that acts in the same way as a holding relay is a/an. silicon controlled rectifier. Thyristor. Triac.

249 In a complete series circuit, the sum of the voltage drops is the same as the applied voltage. This sentence is (true. true. False.

250 The voltage drop across an open switch in a series circuit is (zero volts or battery voltage). battery voltage. zero volts.

251 The voltage drop across a closed switch in a series circuit is (zero volts or battery voltage). zero volts. battery voltage.

252 The amount of current that flows through each path of a parallel circuit is determined by the ___ of the path. resistance. battery voltage.

253 The voltage across each path of a parallel circuit is equal to the ___ voltage. battery. resistance.

254 The reference from which all voltage is measured in an aircraft electrical system is called the ___. ground. negative.

255 Return current from devices installed in an aircraft electrical system flows back to the battery through the ___. aircraft structure. Negative bus. Ground.

256 The battery terminal that is normally grounded is the ___ (negative or positive) terminal. negative. positive.

257 Circuit breakers and fuses are installed in a circuit primarily to protect the (wiring or circuit devices). wiring. circuit devices.

258 The one circuit in an aircraft electrical system that is not required to be protected by a circuit protection device is the main ___ circuit. starter. Battery.

259 A trip-free circuit breaker (can or cannot) be manually held closed in the presence of a fault. can. cannot.

260 Automatic reset circuit breakers (are or are not) approved for use in aircraft electrical circuits. are. are not.

261 An electrical circuit that has 12 fuses rated at 30 amps is required to carry at least ___ 30-amp fuses as spares. 6. 8. 10.

262 Current that is induced into a conductor by a changing current in another nearby conductor is called ___ current. Mutual. induced.

263 The amount of current that is induced by a changing magnetic field is determined by the ___ of change of the magnetic field. rate. Frequency. Magnitude.

264 The direction of flow of induced current is ___ that of the current that caused it. opposite. positive. negative.

265 The diode that is placed across the coil of a battery contactor is ___ biased by the battery. (forward or reverse). reverse. Forward. Neutral.

266 Refer to Figure . The device that prevents the GPU from overcharging a fully charged battery is. resistor R. switch. the fuse.

267 Refer to Figure . The device that prevents the GPU from being connected to the aircraft electrical system if its polarity is incorrect is. diode Dy. switch. the fuse.

268 Refer to Figure. The device that prevents the GPU from being connected to the aircraft electrical system if there is a short in the battery is. the fuse. switch. diode.

269 The prime source of electrical power in an aircraft is the. alternator. Battery. Inverter.

270 The load current produced in a AC alternator is produced in the. stator. Armature. Field windings.

271 In an A-circuit generator, the voltage regulator is between the field terminal of the generator and (ground or the armature). ground. the armature.

272 A 20-gage wire will carry ___ current than an 18-gage wire. more. less. the same. none of the above.

273 A continuous electrical load in a 28-volt electrical system is allowed to produce a voltage drop of ___ volt/s. 0.5. 1.0. 1.5. 2.0.

274 An intermittent electrical load in a 14-volt electrical system is allowed to produce a voltage drop of ___ volt/s. 0.5. 1.0. 1.5. 2.0.

275 The contacts of a reverse-current cutout relay are normally. open. Close.

276 The contacts of a vibrator-type voltage regulator are normally. closed. open.

277 The contacts of a vibrator-type current limiter are normally. open. closed.

278 The output current produced by the two generators in a twin-engine installation are kept the same by ___ circuit in the voltage regulators. diverging. paralleling.

279 Current through the paralleling circuit in a twin-engine electrical system using carbon-pile voltage regulators is provided by the voltage drops across the. resistors. starter.

280 Many general aviation turbine-powered aircraft combine the ___ and ___ into one single unit. starter, generator. generator,starter.

281 The starter windings in a starter-generator are ___ (series or shunt) windings. series. Parallel.

282 A zero-center ammeter ___ show the amount of current the alternator is producing. does. does not.

283 A loadmeter is calibrated in ___ of the rated alternator or generator output. percentage. voltage.

284 The voltage produced in the stator windings of a DC alternator is. AC. DC.

285 DC electricity is produced in a DC alternator by the. diodes. Resistors.

286 If an alternator fails in flight and is disconnected from the main bus, the alternator field circuit should be (opened or closed). opened. Closed.

287 If an alternator produces too high a voltage, the overvoltage protector opens the ___ circuit. field. Load.

288 The load current produced in a DC generator is produced in the ___ (rotating or stationary) coils. rotating. stationary.

289 A DC alternator can produce its rated current at a lower RPM than a DC generator because of the greater number of ___ in the alternator. field poles. commutator, brushes.

290 DC electricity is produced in a DC generator by the. commutator, brushes. main power.

291 A DC alternator ___ (does or does not) require a current limiter. does not. does.

292 A DC generator ___ (does or does not) require a current limiter. does not. does.

293 A battery contactor is a/an. continuous. intermittent. constant. variable.

294 A starter solenoid is a/an (continuous or intermittent)-duty solenoid. continuous. intermittent. constant. variable.

295 Normally the only circuit in an aircraft electrical system that does not require a circuit breaker or fuse is the ___ circuit. starter. lighting. avionics. main power.

296 The navigation light circuit in Figure. is an example of a ___ circuit. series. parallel. complex. hybrid.

297 In the landing light circuit shown in Figure it ___ possible to turn on the landing light without the taxi light also coming on. is. is not. sometimes is. always is.

298 In the landing gear circuit shown in Figure , three switches that must be in the correct position for current to flow to the landing gear relay coil are: gear switch. up-limit switch. gear safety switch. all of the above.

299 In the landing gear circuit shown in Figure, the landing gear warning horn ___ sound if only one throttle is pulled back to the idle position. will. will not. sometimes will. never will.

300 When the antiskid brake system shown in Figure, is operating properly, the aircraft cannot be landed with the brakes applied because the brakes cannot be applied until weight is on the landing gear and both ___ switches are closed. gear. weight. squat. brake.

301 According to the circuit of the propeller deicing system in Figure , the prop deicer ammeter shows ___ the current flowing to the deicers when the system is operating. manually. automatically. intermittently. constantly.

302 In the turbine-engine autoignition circuit seen in Figure 7-55, the autoignition-armed light turns ___ when the compressor-discharge pressure drops low enough for its pressure switch to supply power to the ignition power relay. on. off. intermittent. constant.

303 According to the reciprocating engine starting and ignition system seen in Figure 7-56, the engine is started on the ___ magneto. left. right. both. neither.

304 Avionic equipment must be isolated from the aircraft electrical system when the engine is being started because of spikes of high ___ voltage. induced. residual. generated. constant.

305 The generators installed on large turbojet aircraft produce ___ electricity. AC. DC. both. neither.

306 Direct current is produced in the electrical system seen in Figure by the. alternator. generator. TR units. battery.

307 The frequency of the AC produced by generators driven by turbine engines is held constant by the ___ units. voltage regulator. current limiter. constant-speed drive. all of the above.

308 Three measurements that are made of the output of the three main generators in Figure are: voltage. frequency. power. all of the above.

309 Use the wire chart in Figure to find the wire size needed to carry a continuous load of 50 amps for 60 feet in a 28-volt electrical system. The wire is to be routed in a bundle. The smallest wire is a ___ -gage. 2. 4. 6. 8.

310 Use the wire chart in Figure to find the size electrical cable needed to carry an intermittent load of 150 amps for 20 feet in a 14-volt electrical system without exceeding a 1-volt drop. The smallest wire is a ___-gage. 2. 4. 6. 8.

311 The electromagnetic field surrounding wires carrying alternating current can be prevented from interfering with sensitive electronic equipment by using ___. coaxial cable. shielded wire. twisted pair. all of the above.

312 A radio transmitter is normally connected to its antenna with a ___ cable. twisted pair. shielded. coaxial. fiber optic.

313 The half of an AN or MS quick-disconnect connector that carries the power is fitted with ___. pins. sockets. both. neither.

314 A barrier-type terminal strip should not have more than ___ terminals installed on any single lug. 2. 3. 4. 5.

315 If more than four wires need to be connected to a single point on a terminal strip, two or more lugs can be connected with a metal ___. strap. bus strap. wire. connector.

316 The correct size preinsulated terminal to use on a 18-gage wire would have a ___ insulation. (what color). red. blue. yellow. green.

317 The correct size preinsulated terminal to use on a 12-gage wire would have ___ insulation. (what color). red. blue. yellow. green.

318 The type of wire terminal that should be installed on a barrier-type terminal strip is a ___ type. ring. spade. bullet. pin.

319 This wire is in the ___ system. landing gear. deicing. lighting. communication.

320 This is wire number ___ in this circuit. 1. 2. 3. 4.

321 This is the ___ segment in this wire. first. second. third. fourth.

322 This is a ___-gage wire. 18. 20. 22. 24.

323 This wire ___ go to ground. does. does not. might. always.

324 The only type lubricant that should be used when pulling a wire bundle through a piece of polyvinyl tubing is ___. silicone grease. WD-40. tire talcum. petroleum jelly.

325 Wire bundles should be secured to the aircraft structure using ___ clamps. metal. plastic. cushion. adhesive.

326 If an electrical wire bundle is routed parallel to a fuel line, the wire bundle should be ___ the fuel line. above. below. beside. inside.

327 A wire bundle should be no closer than ___ inches from any control cable unless a suitable mechanical guard is installed over the wire so the cable cannot contact it. 1. 2. 3. 4.

328 The maximum-diameter wire bundle that may be enclosed in a rigid conduit with an inside diameter of one inch is ___. 2 inches. 3 inches. 4 inches. 5 inches.

329 The edges of a hole through which a wire bundle passes must be covered with a ___. sealant. grommet. tape. adhesive.

330 A switch used to control a 3-amp continuous flow of current in a 24-volt DC incandescent lamp circuit should be rated for at least ___ amps. 3. 6. 12. 24.

331 A switch used to control a 12-volt DC motor that draws a 3-amp continuous flow of current should be rated for at least ___ amps. 3. 6. 12. 24.

332 A circuit that is wired with an 18-gage wire should be protected with a ___-amp circuit breaker. 5. 10. 15. 20.

333 The four basic rules for systematic troubleshooting are: Know the way the system should operate. Observe the way the system is operating. Divide the system to find the trouble. Look for the obvious problems first.

334 One of the first things to check if an electrical component does not operate is the ___. wire. connector. circuit breaker. switch.

335 A decision point in a logic flow chart is enclosed in a ___-shaped box. square. circle. triangle. diamond.

336 Two characteristics of a digital multimeter that make it a valuable troubleshooting tool are its: high input impedance. high degree of accuracy. portability. low cost.

337 Analog multimeters have an advantage over digital multimeters in their ease to identify ___ in voltage and current changes. trends. spikes. averages. limits.

338 Current can be measured in a circuit without having to open the circuit if a/an ___-type ammeter is used. analog. digital. clamp-on. in-line.

339 Wave form and frequency of the voltage in an electric circuit can be observed with a/an ___. multimeter. oscilloscope. ammeter. voltmeter.

340 What is the purpose of a Faraday cage with static protection enclosure?. Store materials not sensitive to ESD. Provide additional storage space. Prevent ESD damage. Avoid dust accumulation.

341 How should components be stored in approved static protection containers?. With documentation inside the container. Sealing the container with an approved static caution label. Not sealing the container. Inside a transparent plastic tube.

342 What action is recommended if evidence of mishandling or improper storage of ESD parts is found?. Return to inventory. Dispose of. Recheck. Conduct additional tests.

343 What precaution is mentioned regarding personal arrangement at the ESD workstation?. Keep the area clean. Comb hair away from the workstation. Do not wear metal jewelry. Do not comb hair near ESD materials.

344 How often should ESD workstations be certified?. Every 6 months. Annually or when moved. Every 2 years. Every 3 months.

345 What is the primary purpose of using a conductive mat in the ESD workstation?. Prevent static electricity buildup. Provide comfort. Keep the surface clean. Provide thermal insulation.

346 What is the primary purpose of an ESD wrist strap?. Protect against electrical shocks. Maintain user comfort. Provide grounding. Prevent user fatigue.

347 What is the common threshold of sensation for an ESD shock for humans?. 2,000 to 3,000 volts. 3,000 to 4,000 volts. 4,000 to 5,000 volts. 5,000 to 6,000 volts.

348 What should be done if an ESD wrist strap does not properly touch the skin?. Adjust the strap. Replace it. Apply lotion. Ignore it.

349 How should ionizing fans be positioned in relation to ESD material?. At 12 to 15 inches away. Directly over the material. 6 inches away. 20 inches away.

350 What action is recommended if evidence of rust or corrosion is found on a stored product after 5 years?. Replace bearings and relubricate. Dispose of the product. Return to inventory. Conduct additional tests.

351 What precaution should be taken when using ionizing fans at the workstation?. Regular calibration. Keep them at least 6 inches away from ESD material. Use them only with authorization. Keep them close to the ESD material.

352 What is the primary purpose of a conductive mat in the ESD workstation?. Provide comfort. Prevent static electricity buildup. Keep the surface clean. Provide thermal insulation.

353 What is the primary purpose of an ESD wrist strap?. Protect against electrical shocks. Maintain user comfort. Provide grounding. Prevent user fatigue.

354 What is the common threshold of sensation for an ESD shock for humans?. 2,000 to 3,000 volts. 3,000 to 4,000 volts. 4,000 to 5,000 volts. 5,000 to 6,000 volts.

355 What should be done if an ESD wrist strap does not properly touch the skin?. Adjust the strap. Replace it. Apply lotion. Ignore it.

356 How should ionizing fans be positioned in relation to ESD material?. At 12 to 15 inches away. Directly over the material. 6 inches away. 20 inches away.

357 What action is recommended if evidence of rust or corrosion is found on a stored product after 5 years?. Replace bearings and relubricate. Dispose of the product. Return to inventory. Conduct additional tests.

358 What precaution should be taken when using ionizing fans at the workstation?. Regular calibration. Keep them at least 6 inches away from ESD material. Use them only with authorization. Keep them close to the ESD material.