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Fecha de Creación: 11/06/2024

Categoría: Otros

Número Preguntas: 150
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What type of joint is designed to withstand tensile forces? Shear-loaded joints Tension-loaded joints Compression-loaded joints Thermal expansion joints.
Why should bolts in tension be avoided in critical load paths? They are more expensive They can easily corrode They may fail under dynamic loads They are difficult to install.
What safety factor is typically used for designing joints to withstand ultimate loads? 1.2 times the limit load 1.5 times the limit load 2 times the limit load 3 times the limit load.
For high shear transfer, which type of bolts are used whenever possible? Steel bolts Aluminum bolts Titanium bolts Copper bolts.
n low shear transfer applications with minimal tension loads, what type of fasteners are typically used? Steel bolts Aluminum alloy rivets Titanium bolts Stainless steel rivets .
Why are aluminum alloy rivets favored in low shear transfer applications? They are stronger than titanium They are cheaper and lighter They have higher corrosion resistance They provide better aerodynamics.
When are steel fasteners used in shear loading applications? When high shear transfer without tension is required Only in non-critical areas Where significant tension loads are expected When weight saving is critical.
What should be avoided during structural repairs to maintain the integrity of the joint? Using aluminum fasteners Changing the primary type of loading Reducing the number of fasteners Increasing the size of the fasteners.
In tension loading applications, what type of bolts are commonly used for most structural needs? High strength steel bolts Intermediate head titanium bolts Stainless steel bolts Copper bolts.
What feature of high strength steel tension bolts helps reduce stress concentrations in critical areas such as landing gear attachments? A thin head design A large fillet radius under the forged head A hollow core An elongated shaft.
In a shear-loaded joint, what must be ensured about the fasteners to prevent static strength failure? They are lightweight They will not shear They are easy to install They are made of stee.
What must be considered to prevent the joint plates from failing in tension or overload? They are flexible They have a large fillet radius They are properly sized They have high thermal resistance.
How are combined tension and shear loads in structural joints typically addressed? By increasing the number of fasteners By using thicker plates By using interaction curves By reducing the load limits.
Why is it important to account for eccentric loading in joint design? To simplify the design process To ensure maximum fastener shear loading and minimum hole edge landings To reduce material costs To improve the aesthetic appearance.
What must be included in the joint design to allow for potential oversize repairs? Aesthetic considerations Weight reductions Sufficient reserve Additional fasteners .
Where do fatigue cracks in aircraft structures typically initiate? In the middle of the joint plate At or near the fastener holes Along the edge of the plates At the surface of the fasteners.
What is the primary benefit of interference fit and cold working of fastener holes? Reducing installation time Generating residual compressive stresses Increasing joint flexibility Lowering material costs .
What type of fasteners are known to improve fatigue life but are more expensive and difficult to install? Aluminum rivets Taper shank fasteners Standard steel bolts Composite fasteners.
Why is fatigue particularly important in the design of metallic joints? Metallic joints are heavier Failure can occur below static strength levels Metals have high thermal expansion Joints are easier to inspect.
How does cold working of fastener holes benefit the initial design? It reduces manufacturing costs It simplifies the design process It increases the design threshold inspection interval or allows higher stress levels It makes the structure more flexible .
What must tensile loading stresses overcome to prevent failure in interference fit and cold worked holes? Residual compressive stresses Fastener material strength Joint plate flexibility Edge distances.
What is a factor that can affect fatigue performance related to fastener installation? Installation speed Bolt material Pre-load generated Fastener color.
What does the edge margin in a joint design refer to? The thickness of the material The distance from the fastener hole center to the nearest edge The distance between adjacent fastener holes The diameter of the fastener hole.
Why are the values for edge margin and pitch typically greater in composite joints compared to metallic joints? Composite materials are cheaper Composite joints have higher load capacity Composite materials have lower bearing strength and different failure modes Composite joints are easier to manufacture.
What is required if the edge margin or pitch in a joint falls outside the minimum values specified in the Structural Repair Manual (SRM)? Increase the number of fasteners Apply additional sealant Replacement of parts or addition of structural support plates Use smaller fasteners.
What is the main reason for ensuring proper edge margin and pitch in joint design? To reduce manufacturing costs To ensure proper load distribution and prevent localized stress concentrations To make the joint visually appealing To simplify the assembly process.
What happens if the edge margin is too small in a joint design? The material may deform or fail under load The joint will be more flexible The fasteners will be easier to install The joint will have higher fatigue resistance.
Why must composite joints have greater values for edge margin and pitch? They are less expensive They are lighter than metallic joints They must account for lower bearing strength and different failure modes They require fewer fasteners.
What document provides the minimum values for edge margin and pitch in joint design? Structural Repair Manual (SRM) Assembly Guide Maintenance Manual Manufacturing Specifications.
Which component is primarily used to attach fuselage skin panels in aircraft? Solid rivets Blind bolts Taper-LOK pins Swaged pins.
What material is used for low-strength aluminum alloy solid rivets? Material 2024 Material 1100 Material 7050 Material 2117.
Which type of solid rivet is used without heat treatment in steel, titanium, or aluminum alloy assemblies? Titanium Monel Aluminum Alloy 1100 Aluminum Alloy 2024.
In what condition are aluminum alloy solid rivets made of Material 2024 supplied? T3 T4 T6 T7.
Which type of blind rivet is available with a frangible mandrel? Huck IMEX Cherrymax Cherrylock.
What is a key characteristic of Cherrylock blind rivets for thin sheet applications? Made from titanium Special corrosion-resistant coating Unique design for larger blind head Used without heat treatment.
What is the primary usage area for blind rivets in aircraft? High heat areas High-strength areas Areas with access to only one side Corrosion-prone areas.
Which blind rivet type consists of four parts, including a driving anvil? Huck Cherrymax IMEX AVDEL.
What material can the body of AVDEL blind rivets be made from? Monel Steel alloy Titanium Aluminum alloy.
Which component of blind bolts typically includes a tapered end and an internal thread? The sleeve The pin The body The collar.
Which type of fastener is noted for improving fatigue life by interference and stress transfer? TAPER-LOK pins Threaded Pin Swaged Pin Cherrylock.
What material is typically used for collars in Swaged Pin fasteners? Titanium Aluminum alloy Steel alloy Corrosion-resistant steel .
Which fastener is commonly used in commercial equipment and furnishings in airplanes? Huck IMEX Cherrymax Swaged Pin .
How is the upset head of a solid rivet formed? By welding By screwing By deformation of the shank By adhesive bonding.
What are the three main parts of an AVDEL blind bolt? Body, threaded pin, cylindrical sleeve Body, pull grooves, nut Hollow body, pin, locking collar Head, sleeve, nut.
Which component is used to lock bolts in aircraft structures? Washers Screws Nuts Rivets.
What type of fastener is generally used to attach parts of the secondary structure? Bolts Fully threaded screws Rivets Anchor nuts.
Which type of nut is locked by a split-pin? Self-locking nut Plain nut Anchor nut Castellated nut.
What is a feature of anchor nuts? They are self-locking They prevent leakage of liquids They are used when the screw head is accessible They do not require washers.
Which tool type is specifically mentioned for bolt head recesses in aircraft structures? Allen wrench Torq-set Wrench Socket.
What are the sources of damage experienced by aircraft structures? Fatigue damage and accidental damage Corrosion and environmental damage Wear and tear Lightning strikes and bird impact.
How is fatigue damage prevented during the Design Service Goal (DSG) of an aircraft? By regular maintenance checks By keeping the aircraft stationary By designing the aircraft to be free of significant fatigue cracking By applying protective coatings.
What do protective treatments aim to prevent on aircraft structures? Mechanical wear Corrosion Fatigue cracking Environmental damage.
In which zone of the aircraft structure is there a high probability of initial lightning attachment? Zone A Zone B Zone C Zone D.
Which type of fastener is commonly used when access to one side of the assembly is impossible? Bolts Screws Solid rivets Blind rivets.
What is the main component of Huck blind rivets? Frangible mandrel Locking collar Hollow body with a manufactured head Stem.
How is the impact protection of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) leading edge achieved? Metallic cover plate Titanium fasteners Paint scheme Galvanic protection.
Which type of rivet is used to attach aluminum alloy components requiring high strength? Rivets made of US material 1100 Rivets made of US material 2024 Rivets made of US material 2117 Monel solid rivets.
Which fasteners are often used in areas where only one side of the assembly is accessible? Solid rivets Screws Bolts Blind rivets.
What type of protection is applied to external surfaces of the pylon made of corrosion-resistant materials? No protection needed Special coating Paint scheme Galvanic protection.
How are the fasteners in Zone 2 of the aircraft protected? Metallic grid Titanium fasteners Paint scheme Galvanic protection.
What type of damage should be avoided during handling and/or maintenance operations of composite structures? Chemical strippers Impact damage Fatigue damage Corrosion.
Which area of the aircraft structure is divided into zones based on the probability of lightning strikes? Engine compartments Aircraft fuselage Aircraft surfaces Landing gear.
What is used to achieve galvanic corrosion protection of aluminum alloy parts in contact with carbon fiber parts? Glass fiber layers Titanium fasteners Interfay sealant All of the above .
What is one of the purposes of the scheduled structure inspection programs? Detect any accidental damage Detect any fatigue cracking Check for environmental deterioration Verify surface protections.
How are composite structures protected against environmental aggressions? By applying chemical strippers By using a correct paint scheme By avoiding maintenance operations By leaving the surface exposed.
What is the primary purpose of the metallic cover plate on the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) leading edge? To enhance aerodynamic performance To protect against lightning strikes To provide impact protection To prevent corrosion.
Which area of the aircraft structure is not typically divided into zones based on the probability of lightning strikes? Wingtips Fuselage Landing gear Engine nacelles.
What type of damage can chemical strippers cause to composite structures? Corrosion Fatigue cracking Delamination Surface abrasion .
How are fasteners typically protected in Zone 3 of the aircraft structure? By applying a metallic grid By using titanium fasteners By applying a paint scheme By using galvanic protection.
What is the main purpose of the Automatic Flight System (AFS)? Increase aircraft speed Reduce pilot workload and enhance safety Minimize fuel consumption Control in-flight entertainment.
Which of the following is a fundamental component of the AFS? Autopilot SFCC Ailerons Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) .
What is the primary function of the MCDUs? Short-term aircraft control Engine control Ground navigation control Long-term interface between the crew and FMGCs.
What does the FCU stand for? Flight Crew Unit Fuel Control Unit Flight Control Unit Fast Communication Unit.
How many Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) are there in the AFS? 1 2 3 4.
What is the purpose of the FAC engagement P/BSWs? Engine control Rudder control Landing gear control Airspeed control.
What part of the AFS is used for the short-term control of the aircraft? FCU MCDUs FMGCs FACs .
How many parts does each FMGC consist of? 1 2 3 4.
What functions are primarily managed by the Flight Management (FM) part of the FMGC? Rudder control Engine maintenance Flight plan definition and monitoring In-flight entertainment.
What is the primary role of the Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS)? Long-term flight planning Short-term aircraft control Maintenance failure information centralization Passenger entertainment.
Which display primarily shows guidance commands and flight mode status? ND FCU PFDs MCDUs.
How is ventilation air supplied to lavatories and galleys? From external sources only From cabin distribution ducts Through the cockpit From avionics equipment.
In the open circuit configuration, under what conditions is avionics equipment cooled with ambient air? While in-flight When the skin temperature is decreasing On the ground with increasing skin temperature On the ground with skin temperature below 12°C.
What does the Cargo Heating Controller regulate? Ventilation air distribution Cabin ambient temperature Cargo compartment temperature Extraction fan operation.
What does the AFT ISOL VALVE P/B control? Cargo ventilation controller Extraction fan in the cockpit Isolation valves and extraction fan Cargo heating controller.
What action does the HOT AIR P/B switch take when set to OFF? It opens the isolation valves It regulates the trim air valves It starts the extraction fan It closes the pressure regulating valve.
What controls the operation of the avionics equipment ventilation system? Crew intervention Skin temperature Aircraft configuration Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC).
Which configuration allows cooling of avionics equipment using ambient air? Open Circuit Configuration Closed Circuit Configuration Partially Open Circuit Configuration No configuration allows cooling using ambient air.
What does the skin exchanger outlet bypass valve help reduce? Avionics bay noise Skin temperature Ambient air Duct temperature.
What determines the FCV position in the main operating mode? Flow setting on panel 30VU Differential pressure Torque motor position Main operation switch.
In which aircraft conditions is the HIGH FLOW configuration used? Take-off and landing Single pack operation APU bleed air supply for pack operation Cruise altitude .
What happens if an FCU component malfunctions? ACSC energizes Solenoid 2, pack enters BACK-UP mode FCV opens fully FCU switches to MAIN mode ACSC energizes Solenoid 1.
What is the purpose of the RESET key in the cabin ATTND stations? Resets the interphone function Initiates an emergency call Initiates a PA announcement Resets the system power.
How are calls from the cockpit initiated using the CALLS panel? By using the CABin key and knob By using the ACP pushbuttons By using the ATT key on the AIP By using the PA ALL key .
The upper row of the AIP display is used for the indication of information concerning the cabin and flight crew interphone system. The outer left section is used to show the __________ information. cabin interphone system status handset.
To select an announcement using the handmic, the Passenger Address (PA) transmission key located on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) must be pressed and held. It comes on green and __________ the microphone audio to the PA system. connects disconnects transmits blocks.
To make an announcement using the boomset or the oxygen mask, the PA transmission key must be pressed and held on the ACP. It comes on green. The handmic has also the __________ priority. same higher lower equal .
A handset is mounted on the cockpit center pedestal and contains a PTT SW. Pressing on the PTT SW keys the PA system, __________ lower priority PA sources and broadcasting the speech over all PA loudspeakers and PAX headsets. overriding avoiding enhancing silencing.
The conference mode is used for the communication between __________ interphone sources. two more than two all specific.
How is speech communication established from the cockpit using the SVCE INT jacks? Pressing the CABin key Using the Audio Control Panel (ACP) Pressing the SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton Using the Audio Management Unit (AMU).
What indication is displayed on Attendant Indication Panels (AIPs) when cabin stations initiate communication using the SVCE INT jacks? "SERV INT" "CABIN CALL" "CABIN COMM" "SERV COMM" .
Which component digitizes audio signals from cabin stations and transmits them to the directors? DEUs AMU LGCIUs ACP.
If AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost above a given airspeed, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will automatically ________________. retract extend turn off decrease speed.
In the case of Generator 1 LINE OFF, which component opens? Generator Line Contactor (GLC) 1 Battery Contactors External Power Contactor (EPC) Generator Control Unit (GCU).
The emergency generator is powered by the ________________. blue hydraulic system green hydraulic system yellow hydraulic system red hydraulic system .
The Ground and Auxiliary Power Control Unit (GAPCU) interfaces only with the Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). True False.
The GAPCU can transmit GCU fault data to the CFDIU via ARINC 429 data bus. True False.
Maintenance tests on the GAPCU and GCUs can be initiated in-flight for diagnostic purposes. True False.
The Constant Speed Motor/Generator (CSM/G) operates at 50 Hz frequency. True False.
What is the priority sequence for supplying the two normal AC BUSes (AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2)? Onside generator (IDG), external Power, APU GEN, offside generator External Power, APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG) APU GEN, offside generator, onside generator (IDG), external Power Offside generator, onside generator (IDG), ext.
What is the purpose of the 115/26V AUTO TRANSFORMER in the AC distribution system? Convert AC power to DC power Supply power to the APU GEN Connect AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 1 Convert 115V AC to 26V AC.
How is DC generation achieved in the aircraft's electrical system? By Transformer Rectifiers (TRs) Through a generator driven by the APU By converting AC power to DC power Through an external power unit.
Which power source replaces a faulty main TR to supply the DC ESS BUS? APU GEN Battery 1 Battery 2 External Power.
To open a cockpit sliding window from the inside, push down the black push button on top of the _____ handle. locking opening closing emergency.
The inflation and deployment sequence of the slide raft for the FWD and rear cabin doors is automatically initiated when the door is opened in the _____ configuration. closed locked armed open.
The red manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the _____ side of the girt bar. left hand right hand top bottom.
In case of a ditching, the survival kit must be connected to the slide raft before opening the _____ cockpit window cabin door overhead bin emergency exit .
One or more Escape Slide/Slide Raft Cabin Passenger Door may be inoperative provided the associated door is considered _____. operational closed locked inoperative.
The lower deck of the A318 is divided into three cargo compartments: the forward cargo compartment, the aft cargo compartment, and the bulk _____ compartment. storage cargo overhead passenger.
The inflation and deployment of the escape slide for the forward and aft cabin doors are manually initiated. False True .
The manual inflation handle for the escape slide is located on the left-hand side of the girt bar. False True.
The emergency exit escape slides on the A319, A320, and A321 are stowed in containers in the aft cargo compartment. True False.
The slide raft is pneumatically pushed open as soon as the cabin door handle is lifted. True False.
The automatic inflation of the escape slide can be manually initiated by pulling the manual inflation handle. True False.
The cargo compartment fire-extinguishing agent is discharged into the FWD compartment through __________ nozzles. one two three.
What causes the engine or APU to shut down when the FIRE pushbutton is released? Loss of fuel supply Electrical failure Fire extinguishing Thrust reduction.
What are the roles of the AGENT P/BSW switches in the fire extinguishing system? Control extinguisher discharge Control engine thrust Monitor cabin temperature Monitor avio.
What action is taken on the ground when an APU FIRE warning occurs? APU is automatically shut down APU continues normal operation APU fire bottles are discharged APU is restarted immediately.
What does the avionics SMOKE detector specifically detect? Fire in the cabin Smoke from the engines Overheating of avionics equipment Smoke from the lavatories.
How is the cargo compartment smoke detection system monitored? By the AEVC By the FWC By the AGENT P/BSW switches By the smoke detectors .
How many smoke detectors are installed in each cavity of the cargo compartments? One Two Three Four.
What triggers the automatic discharge of the fire extinguisher in the lavatory waste bin? Fire in the adjacent lavatory High cabin temperature Presence of smoke Impact with an object.
How does the FDU generate a fire warning signal in case of a flame or hot gas detected? Closes the INTEGRITY switch Opens the ALARM switch Sends inert gas Generates a fault signal.
How many detection loops does the engine Fire Detection Unit (FDU) have? One Two Three Four.
What does the FDU do if both loops are broken due to a torching flame? Generates fire warning signal Generates fault warning signal Shuts down the engine Sends inert gas.
What is the role of the sidestick in the aircraft's control system? It controls the rudder It sends electrical orders to ELACs and SECs It operates the ailerons It controls the THS.
The Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC) sends roll commands directly to the SECs. True False.
Spoilers 1 are used for roll control. True False.
In case of a hydraulic power loss, spoiler surfaces remain extended. True False.
What is the purpose of the ground spoiler function? To increase lift during landing To decrease lift during landing To increase lift during take-off To decrease drag during flight.
Which components control the slat and flap systems on the A320 family aircraft? Slats Flaps Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs) .
How many positions are there for the FLAPS lever on the aircraft? 2 3 4 5 .
A computer failure can engage a lateral ___________ configuration. Abnormal Normal Direct Alternate.
In case of loss of both ELevator Aileron Computers (ELACs) only ___________ are available. Elevators Ailerons Spoilers Rudder.
If the normal law of both ELACs fails, the ___________ law takes over. Normal Direct Alternate Mechanical.
When half speed is detected, a level 1 caution is generated and a fault message is displayed on the ___________. Landing Gear Control ECAM control panel EWD Mechanical trim.
In this example Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) 2 flap channel is inoperative and SFCC 1 operates normally. Each flap channel lane of SFCC 1 generates ___________ signals. Pitch Command Drive Hydraulic.
Two flap disconnect sensors are fitted on the interconnecting strut between inner and outer flaps on each wing. The flap disconnect sensors are ___________ sensors. Pressure Proximity Hydraulic Temperature.
Two engine Low Pressure (LP) valves in the A318/A319/A320 close when their related engine __________. is running is refueled stops overheats.
The cross feed valve in the A318/A319/A320 divides the main fuel pump system into two parts, one for each __________. fuel tank wing engine pump.
The wing fuel feed pumps in the A318/A319/A320 are replaced from the __________. cockpit belly fairing wing upper surface wing lower surface.
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