Cuestionario Técnico de Sistemas de Aeronave Boeing 767-300

What is the primary function of the Door Operated Sequence Valve regarding Main Landing Gear retraction?. It ensures hydraulic power is only available for retraction when the gear is fully down and locked. It sequences the main gear doors to lock closed once the retract cycle is complete. It ensures hydraulic power is restricted from retraction before the main gear door is fully open.

What condition must be met for the Stick Pusher actuator to extend and apply a column forward force for stall recovery?. Only one Stall Warning Computer is required, provided the autopilot is disconnected. Both Stall Warning Computers must signal a stall warning while the flaps and slats are retracted. Windshear detection is active and the airplane is in the air mode, regardless of flap/slat position.

How many total proximity sensors are dedicated to monitoring the position of the Main and Nose Landing Gear Doors?. Ten proximity sensors are used monitoring uplocks and door positions. Six proximity sensors monitor the gear door position (3 Blue/3 Yellow). Eight proximity sensors monitor the door position (System 1 and System 2 for 4 doors total).

What specific hydraulic system provides pressure to operate the landing gear and each main gear door?. The Left hydraulic system provides primary extension and retraction power. Both Left and Right hydraulic systems provide independent pressure for gear operation. The Center hydraulic system pressure is used for landing gear and main gear door operation.

How is the Nose Gear (NG) strut movement utilized to operate the forward nose gear doors?. The nose gear doors are controlled by an electric actuator linked to the alternate extend system. They are mechanically sequenced by cranks and rods held in place to open when the gear is extended or retracted. The nose gear doors are operated hydraulically by a dedicated door actuator.

During lateral control spoiler operation, what is the role of the LVDTs within each Power Control Actuator (PCA)?. LVDTs transmit the command voltage from the SCM back to the RVDTs for redundancy checking. LVDTs provide feedback on the position of the spoiler surfaces to the spoiler control modules. LVDTs are responsible for actuating the spoiler surfaces based on commands from the SCM.

What systems receive hydraulic pressure from the Right system?. Landing gear primary extension, nose wheel steering, and Alternate Brakes. Elevator feel computers, Flap PDU, and the Auxiliary PTU pump. Ailerons, Spoilers, Lateral LCCAS, Rudder, Elevator, Autopilots PCAs and Normal Brakes.

What mechanism primarily locks the Main Landing Gear (MLG) in the UP (retracted) position?. The MLG is locked up by the main gear door linkage interlocking with the uplock hook. The MLG is locked up by the hydraulic pressure applied to the retract actuator. The MLG is locked up by an over-center locking mechanism on the side and drag braces.

Which CSEU modules provide the computation and control functions for Yaw Damping and Stabilizer Trim?. Two Yaw Damper/Stabilizer Trim Modules (YSMs) handle key pitch and yaw functions. Six Spoiler Control Modules (SCMs) interface with the autopilot servos. Four Power Supply Modules (PSMs) are utilized for essential interface computations.

Which specific modules are included in the Control System Electronic Unit (CSEU) collection on new B767-300 airplanes, besides the PSMS?. Two Yaw Damper/Stabilizer Trim Modules (YSM) and six Spoiler Control Modules (SCM). Four Stabilizer Trim Modules and four Rudder Control Authority modules. Two Yaw Damper Modules, five Spoiler Control Modules, and one Stabilizer Trim Module.

Which hydraulic pump draws fluid from the standpipe installed in the Left and Right system reservoirs?. The EDP (Engine Driven Pump) draws fluid from the standpipe, while the ACMP draws from the bottom. Both the EDP and ACMP are supplied with hydraulic fluid from the standpipe to prevent cavitation. The ACMP (AC Motor Pump) draws fluid from the standpipe, while the EDP draws from the bottom.

What is the primary function of the Rudder Ratio Changer (RRC) mechanism in relation to flight conditions?. It provides mechanical feedback to the control pedals, increasing feel force relative to the commanded yaw rate. It electronically adjusts the trim actuator travel based on stabilizer position inputs during takeoff phases. It limits rudder authority as a function of increasing airspeed to prevent potential structural overloads.

What four EICAS Level A messages are generated for improper takeoff configuration?. FLAPS, STABILIZER, PARKING BRAKE, and SPOILERS messages are generated. LE SLAT, TE FLAP ASYM, SPEEDBRAKE, and PARKING BRAKE status messages. CONFIG, MASTER WARNING, THRUST, and FLIGHT CONTROLS messages.

Which hydraulic systems supply power to the two Stabilizer Trim Control Modules (STCMs)?. Both STCMs are powered by the Center system, but the left STCM uses the PTU reservoir. Both STCMs receive power exclusively from the Center hydraulic system. Both STCMs are powered by the Center system, but the left STCM uses the PTU reservoir supplemented by the Right system via the PTU. The Left STCM receives power from the Left hydraulic system, and the Right STCM from the Center system.

Why are the outboard ailerons locked out at high speed, and what mechanism achieves this?. They are locked out to increase roll control effectiveness and reduce pitch oscillations. They are locked out to prevent hinge damage caused by high dynamic pressure loads. They are locked out to reduce roll control sensitivity about the longitudinal axis of the airplane.

What minimum flow rate (GPM) is required from the ADP or ground hydraulic power to perform the RAT backdrive test procedure?. A flow rate of 20 gpm is mandated to achieve sufficient RPM for testing. A flow rate of 10 gpm is the minimum required to test the RAT fully. A flow rate of 16 gpm is the minimum required to test the RAT.

What input source provides Mach and computed airspeed data for the Mach Trim function handled by the YSM?. The Flight Control Computers (FCCs) transmit air data via the Flight Management Computers. The Flap/Slat Position Module (FSPM) provides the required speed inputs for Mach Trim logic. The Air Data Computer (ADCs) input necessary Mach and Computed Airspeed.

What are the activation criteria for the Speedbrake Autospeedbrake system regarding airplane weight and airspeed for the 767-300?. Airspeed above 300 knots and leading edge devices extended, regardless of gross weight. Gross weight above 320,000 lbs and airspeed greater than 320 knots, coupled with a pitch-up maneuver. Gross weight above 340,000 pounds and airspeed greater than 320 knots during a pitch-up maneuver in excess of 2.5 G.

Where are the heat exchangers located to cool the pump case drain fluid for the Left and Right hydraulic systems?. They are integrated within the EDP filter module located in the engine strut bays. They are located in the lower inboard end of the left and right wing fuel tanks. They are located in the auxiliary center fuel tank.

Which dual modules control the electric lockout actuators for the outboard ailerons using speed inputs from the Air Data Computers (ADC)?. The Rudder Ratio Changer Modules (RRCM) and the Stabilizer Trim Aileron Lockout Module (SAM) electronically control the actuators. The Spoiler Control Modules (SCM) handle the lockout function in conjunction with speed brakes. The Yaw Damper/Stabilizer Trim Modules (YSM) provide the necessary high speed signals.

What primary function does the Power Supply Module (PSM) perform within the Control System Electronic Unit (CSEU)?. It generates excitation signals exclusively for the hydraulic Power Control Actuators (PCAs). The PSM receives 28v DC power and outputs unregulated 115v AC power for redundancy. The PSM supplies the CSEU with necessary DC regulated and AC unregulated power.

When the shutoff valves are not fully open, what indication appears on the upper EICAS display?. A cautionary level message, "HYDRAULIC VALVE," is immediately displayed on the P5 panel and upper EICAS display. A specific caution message regarding hydraulic pressure loss is displayed immediately. A single "FLT CONT VALS" advisory message appears if more than one valve is affected.

What unit automatically engages to provide hydraulic power for stabilizer movement in the event both Left and Center hydraulic systems fail?. The stabilizer trim system defaults to an emergency electrical trim system powered by the battery bus. The Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump (AHP) automatically engages and supplies pressure from the Center reservoir. The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is commanded ON automatically to provide hydraulic power.

What are the maximum steering angles commanded by the steering tiller and the rudder pedals, respectively, for nose wheel steering?. Tiller: 75 degrees L/R; Rudder: 8 degrees L/R. Tiller: 65 degrees L/R; Rudder: 7-1/2 degrees L/R. Tiller: 45 degrees L/R; Rudder: 15 degrees L/R.

What approximate breakout force range is required at the rudder pedals due to the mechanical feel system in the aft quadrant assembly?. A fixed breakout force of 25 lb is applied through the aft quadrants until hydraulic pressure stabilizes the actuator. A nominal centering force of 4 lb is constantly applied by springs, overcoming friction up to 41 lb at the stops. A minimum force of 14 lb is required at the pedals, increasing up to 77 lb at the maximum rudder deflection input.

What criteria defines the activation of the Antiskid Locked Wheel Protection, and under what condition is this function inhibited?. If a wheel speed drops below 50 knots, pressure is applied to the adjacent wheel, inhibited during touchdown. Activation occurs when wheel speed is below 30 knots and deceleration exceeds 7 m/s², inhibited during landing gear compression. The system activates when wheel speed is below 20 knots and the wheel is locked, inhibited if the aircraft is airborne.

What mechanism physically links the pilot's and first officer's control columns and dictates the force required for operation if a jam occurs in one system?. The aft quadrant override mechanism, which requires a minimum 25 lb force at the column for breakout. The tension regulator quadrants, designed to maintain constant cable tension and requiring a force of 14 lb at maximum rotation. The mechanical feel spring and cam, which provides a constant centering force of approximately 5 lb at breakout.

How many Power Control Actuators (PCAs) are utilized to operate the elevator surfaces, and from which hydraulic systems do they receive power?. Six PCAs total (three per side), powered by three independent hydraulic systems. Three PCAs total (one for each elevator segment), driven exclusively by the Center Hydraulic System. Two sets of dual-tandem actuators, each utilizing dedicated Left and Right system hydraulic power sources.

What detection mechanism ensures system shutdown in the Flap Asymmetry Protection System?. A difference in resolver degree input equivalent to 12% of total Slats drive shaft travel between monitored positions. A difference of more than 100 drive shaft revolutions detected over five consecutive seconds. A difference in resolver degree input revolutions between monitored positions resolvers equivalent to 43 1/4 drive shaft revolutions.

Which systems input to the anticipation logic circuits to determine when the ACMP would operate in AUTO mode?. All three ACMPs, Elevator Feel Computer, and Rudder Ratio Changer Modules (RRCM). Engine fire switches, Hydraulic Shutoff Valves, and ACMP Mach inputs. Speedbrake lever, Flap / Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU), and Hydraulic Motor Generator status.

What mechanism is mounted below of each inboard aileron to lower or droop the ailerons via trailing edge flap system operation?. The Aileron Droop Mechanism (ADM) adjusts the inboard aileron angle. The Lateral Control Trim Mechanism (LCTM) controls symmetric aileron deflection. The Aileron Alignment Actuator (AAA) controls the aileron position relative to the flaps.

What is the primary hydraulic source for the Normal Brake System and its accumulator?. The Right hydraulic system provides high pressure to the normal brake system and center hydraulic system to the accumulator. The Center hydraulic system pressurizes the normal brake system. The Right hydraulic system pressurizes the normal brake system and the accumulator.

How many total hydraulically operated Power Control Actuators (PCA) are employed for the primary flight controls?. Exactly thirty-two actuators are used, including the three leading edge control actuators (LCCAs). A total of twenty-four actuators are used for the primary flight controls. There are eighteen actuators for the primary flight controls, divided between the three hydraulic systems.

In the event of Center hydraulic system failure, which reserve component provides segregated hydraulic power for alternate braking and nose wheel steering?. The C-1 ACMP pump draws fluid from the reservoir supply below the standpipe level. The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) automatically activates to supply isolated pressure from the Right hydraulic system. The Air Driven Pump (ADP) automatically engages using pneumatic pressure if both main ACMPs are OFF.

In the high lift system, how are the Trailing Edge (T E) Flaps powered during normal operation, and what system provides this power?. By a Power Drive Unit (PDU) driven by a hydraulic motor powered by the Center hydraulic system. By a mechanical drive unit operated by the Left hydraulic system. By dual electric motors powered by the 115 VAC bus through the Flap/Slat Electronic Unit.

What component contains an autopilot servo and hydraulic booster that powers the wing cables for the aileron system?. The PCA (Power Control Actuator) includes an integral autopilot servo for control redundancy. The FSPM (Flap/Slat Position Module) incorporates the LVDT necessary for system synchronization. The LCCA (Lateral Control Cable Actuator) is primarily responsible for autopilot control inputs.

Where is the service station for the hydraulic reservoir located?. In the main equipment center next to the Center Hydraulic System pumps. In the right-hand aft body fairing area immediately aft of the RH wheel well. In the forward cargo compartment, accessible via a small floor panel.

What is the function of the Nose Gear Priority Valve during a gear retraction cycle?. The valve ensures pressure builds to 1500 psi before allowing flow to the retract actuator. It is free flowing for gear retraction but requires 1500 psi pressure before extension flow. It delays hydraulic flow to the lock actuator until the gear is fully centralized.

What is the necessary action if the nose gear turn angle is expected to exceed 65 degrees during a towing operation, according to procedure?. The nose gear steering torsion links must be disconnected prior to the commencement of the tow operation. The bypass valve on the Nose Wheel Steering Metering Module must be manually actuated to the open position. The cable compensating pin must be removed to prevent damage to the upper cables; then the nose gear steering torsion links must be disconnected prior to the commencement of the tow operation.

What type of devices move the main flight controls of the B767-300, and what is notable about manual reversion capability?. Dual electric motor drive units providing continuous control with limited cable input. Center hydraulic system power with a limited mechanical reversion capability. Hydraulic actuators powered by independent systems, offering full mechanical reversion.