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What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the. minimums specified for the approach procedure selected. alternate minimums shown on the approach chart. minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of 'IFR Alternate Minimunms.'.

(Refer to Figure 136.) As you emerge from the clouds during an instrument approach and make visual contact with the runway environment, you see PAPI lights corresponding to those depicted in illustration 12. You are. on the glidepath. above the glidepath. below the glidepath.

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?. MALSR. HIRL. REIL.

(Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an 'on glidepath' indication?. 8. 10. 11.

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. Separation from all aircraft. Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude. Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?. Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach. 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not C less than the minimum visibility for the approach.

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?. DP or transition name and altitude to maintain. Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude. Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

What is meant when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to a victor airway?. You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment. Radar service is terminated. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

(Refer to Legend 27 and Figure 182.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet for RWY 22 as specified on the instrument departure procedure?. 916 feet per minute. 886 feet per minute. 380 feet per minute.

Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?. To VFR-On-Top. Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top. VFR Over-the-Top.

(Refer to Figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?. Location sign. Mandatory instruction sign. Direction sign.

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will. allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions. be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile. allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?. Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of. 500 feet per minute. 400 feet per nautical mile. 200 feet per nautical mile.

(Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?. 250 feet. 500 feet. 750 feet.

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time. the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by. the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix. an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors. direct route only.

(Refer to Figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having. yellow lettering with a black background. white lettering with a red background. black lettering with a yellow background.

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.). Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. Destination airport, altitude, and DP name, number, and/or transition, if appropriate. Clearance limit, and DP name, number, and/or transition, if appropriate.

'Runway hold position' markings on the taxiway. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited. allows an aircraft permission onto the runway. identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the 'taxiway directional sign' indicates. direction to the takeoff runway. designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?. The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively. The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. Indicates direction to take-off runway.

(Refer to Figures 163 and 164.) Using an average ground speed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,800 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure for RWY 32?. 800 feet per minute. 400 feet per minute. 600 feet per minute.

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide. rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced yisibility. warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the x takeoff or approach position. rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What route should you take if cleared for the RENO Nine Departure with filed routing to V6, takeoff from Runway 25?. Climb on heading 254 degrees to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing right turn heading 340 degrees and expect radar vectors to V6. Climb on runway heading to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing right turn heading 340 degrees to 9,700 feet MSL, then direct V6. Climb on heading 254 degrees to 5,000 feet MSL, then climbing left turn to intercept V6.

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?. Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level. Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR Part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

(Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a 'slightly low' (2.8) indication?. 9. 10. 11.

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?. Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot. The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC. If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description.

(Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?. 1,000 feet. 500 feet. 250 feet.

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-top clearance?. VFR only. VFR and IFR. VFR when 'in the clear' and IFR when 'in the clouds.'.

What does the ATC term 'radar contact' signify?. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight- following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?. Solid lines. Striped lines. Both solid and striped lines.

An abbreviated departure clearance '...CLEARED AS FILED...' will always contain the name. and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

(Refer to Figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?. 2.75. 3.00. 3.25.

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting. the airport is located next to a restricted or prohibited area. the only standard approach procedure is GPS.

In the movement area of an airport, what does a "Destination" sign indicate?. Direction to the takeoff runway. Direction from taxiway to runway. Direction from ramp to taxiway.

In which airspace is VFR-on-top operation prohibited?. Class B airspace. Class E airspace. Class A airspace.

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR- on-top in a nonradar environment?. The same reports that are required for any IFR flight. normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes. Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?. 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility. 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. 1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum enroute altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to 'RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.' This phrase means that. you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports. you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

When on a VFR-on-top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on. true course. magnetic course. magnetic heading.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads '...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?. The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

During a flight, the controller advises 'traffic two o'clock 5 miles southbound.' The pilot is holding 20% correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?. 40 to the right of the aircraft's nose. 20 to the right of the aircraft's nose. Straight ahead.

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?. DPs, STARs, and contact approaches. Contact and visual approaches. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?. Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2). The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?. 210. 450. 490.

(Refer to Figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?. 2.3. 2.75. 3.0.

(Refer to Figure 185.) What is identified by HS 1 and HS 2 on the PDX airport diagram?. Hot Spot. Increased Helicopter Activity. Restricted Area.

(Refer to Figure 259.) While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?. D. G. H.

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?. If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white. If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white. If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

When operating under IFR with a VFR-on-top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?. The last IFR altitude assigned by ATC. An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown. A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.

The 'No Entry' sign identifies. the exit boundary for the runway protected area. an area that does not continue beyond intersection. paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

A runway exit sign. points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway. designated an intersection of two or more runways. indicates the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway.

(Refer to Figure 155.) Which restriction to use the BRICK transition would be applicable to the Grand Junction Six Departure (JNC6.BRICK)?. Minimum climb of 300 feet per NM to 9300. Dual VOR receivers. DME.

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?. Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace. Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists. Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.

(Refer to Figure 162.) You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates. you are on the centerline for your assigned runway. you are too low on the approach. you have lined up with the wrong runway.

(Refer to Figure 189.) Using an average ground speed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the instrument departure procedure?. 425 feet per minute. 580 feet per minute. 641 feet per minute.

(Refer to Figure 211.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?. 11,800 feet MSL. 10,800 feet MSL. 10,200 feet MSL.

(Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?. 500 feet. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before. takeoff. entering IFR conditions. entering Class E airspace.

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments. entering weather conditions in any airspace. entering controlled airspace.

(Refer to Figures 182 and 183.) All transitions on the GROMO Three Departure require. a minimum climb to 8100. DME. climb-in-hold to 8100 before proceeding on course.