Departure

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR-on-top in nonradar enviroment?. The same reports that are required for any IFR flight. N/A. N/A.

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to. entering controlled airspace. N/A. N/A.

When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate. N/A. N/A.

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ´taxiway directional sign´ indicates. designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Legend 27 and Figure 182.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet for RWY 22 as specified on the instrument departure procedure?. 886 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having. white lettering with a red background. N/A. N/A.

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?. When the pilot requests it. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 189.) Using an average ground speed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the instrument departure procedure?. 641 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should. level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path. N/A. N/A.

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?. 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 184.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the Class D service for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?. 0600 to 2200 local. N/A. N/A.

When can a VFR-on-top clearance be assigned by ATC?. Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable. N/A. N/A.

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. N/A. N/A.

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if. the only standard approach procedure is GPS. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) Of the following, which is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per minute) to meet the takeoff minimums for Runway 25 with a departure ground speed of 140 knots?. 1,167 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°?. 12. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 165.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the Cascade Approach/Departure Control when flying into Medford Airport?. 0600 - 2330. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?. 4. N/A. N/A.

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?. 490. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes useable on V343 for a VFR-on-top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection?. 15,500 and 17,500 feet. N/A. N/A.

When is an IFR plan required?. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace. N/A. N/A.

The ILS critical area markings denote. where you are clear of the ILS critical area. N/A. N/A.

To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropiate ATC clearance prior to. entering controlled airspace. N/A. N/A.

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume uppon entering VFR conditions?. To see and avoid other traffic. N/A. N/A.

In which airspace is VFR-on-top operation prohibited?. Class A airspace. N/A. N/A.

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. N/A. N/A.

When may VFR waypoints be used on an IFR flight plan?. Never. N/A. N/A.

´Runway hold position´ markings on the taxiway. identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway. N/A. N/A.

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropiate ATC clearance received?. Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 211.) At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate?. At STAKK intersection. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 211.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure for RWY 9?. 968 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?. Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft. N/A. N/A.

During a flight, the controller advises ´traffic two o´clock 5 miles southbound´. The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?. 40° to the right of the aicraft´s nose. N/A. N/A.

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches. N/A. N/A.

An abbreviated departure clearance ´...CLEARED AS FILED...´ will always contain the name. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. N/A. N/A.

When sould your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?. At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC. N/A. N/A.

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-top clearance?. Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropiate to altitude selected. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?. 5. N/A. N/A.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ´...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...´ ?. It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. N/A. N/A.

A runway exit sign. points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway. N/A. N/A.

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine... To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport intended landing,. then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. N/A. N/A.

ATC has approved your request for VFR-on-top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you. must fly appropiate VFR altitudes. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the begininning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?. 500 feet. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 163 and 164.) Using an average ground speed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,800 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure for RWY 32?. 800 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan. and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace. N/A. N/A.

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?. When assigned a VFR-on-top clearance. N/A. N/A.

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as. white and the far bar as red. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 254.) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?. Top red. N/A. N/A.

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?. The landing minimums for the approach to be used. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 155.) Which restriction to use the BRICK transition would be applicable to the Grand Junction Six Departure (JNC6.BRICK)?. DME. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?. 500 feet. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 216.) Departing Runway 34L or 34R with weather minimums for takeoff and climb groundspeed of 150 knots, what minimum rate of climb would be required to 8,700 feet?. 1200 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What procedure should be followed if communication is not established with departure control 1 minute after takeoff from Runway 34L?. Maintain 330 degrees heading up to 10,000 feet MSL, then right turn direct FMG VORTAC, the via assigned route. N/A. N/A.

What is meant when departure control instructs you to ´resume own navigation´ after you have been vectored to a victor airway?. You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment. N/A. N/A.

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?. When operating in Class A airspace. N/A. N/A.

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?. Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an ´on glidepath´ indication?. 10. N/A. N/A.

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?. As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, an then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude. N/A. N/A.

During takeoff into VFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?. When advised by the tower. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 211.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?. 10,200 feet MSL. N/A. N/A.

Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?. To VFR-On-Top. N/A. N/A.

What does the ATC term ´radar contact´ signify?. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?. Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 162.) You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates. you have lined up with the wrong runway. N/A. N/A.

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?. 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. N/A. N/A.

A ´CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET´ clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to. vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 182 and 183.) All transitions on the GROMO Three Departure require. DME. N/A. N/A.

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergecy even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 256.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using RWY 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to Runway 16". Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller´s instructions. 5 (Five). N/A. N/A.

What altitude may a pilot on a IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR-on-top clearance?. Any appropiate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 185.) What is identified by HS 1 and HS 2 on the PDX airport diagram?. Hot spot. N/A. N/A.

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a ´slightly low´ (2.8°) indication?. 11. N/A. N/A.

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. N/A. N/A.

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will. constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 259.) While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass wich sign?. H. N/A. N/A.

When operating under IFR with a VFR-on-top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?. A VFR cruising altitude appropiate to the magnetic course being flown and as restriced by ATC. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 136.) As you emerge from the clouds during an instrument approach and make visual contact with the runway environment, you see PAPI lights corresponding to those depicted in illustration 12. You are. below the glidepath. N/A. N/A.

During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure. when the tower instructs the change. N/A. N/A.

What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?. Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance. N/A. N/A.

You have been issued a clearance void time for an IFR departure at a non-towered airport but are not yet airborne within the prescribed time. You must notify ATC of your failure to depart. as soon as possible. N/A. N/A.

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?. REIL. N/A. N/A.

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by. an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors. N/A. N/A.

Where are VFR-on-top operations prohibited?. In Class A airspace. N/A. N/A.

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR-on-top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course if 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.). An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. N/A. N/A.

Which information is always given in abbreviated departure clearance?. Name of destination airport or specific fix altitude. N/A. N/A.

The ´No Entry´ sign identifies. paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited. N/A. N/A.

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before. entering Class E airspace. N/A. N/A.

What cruising altitude is appropiate for VFR-on-top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?. Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What route should you take if cleared for the RENO Nine Departure with filed routing to V6, takeoff from Runway 25?. Climb heading 254 degrees to 5,000 MSL, then climbing right turn heading 340 degrees and expect radar vectors to V6. N/A. N/A.

For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF .... No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. N/A. N/A.

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be. minimums specified for the approach procedure selected. N/A. N/A.

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ´... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...´ ?. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot´s discretion. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 94.) What colors are runway holding position signs?. White with a red background. N/A. N/A.

Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?. Both solid and striped lines. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 163 and 164.) Departing runway 32 for takeoff with an average groundspeed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate of 6,800 feet as specified on the instrument departure procedure?. 800 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively. N/A. N/A.

What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?. 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. N/A. N/A.

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?. The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR. N/A. N/A.

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?. Arrows leading to the threshold mark. N/A. N/A.

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?. If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white. N/A. N/A.

For aircraft other than helicopters, under what conditions are you not required to list alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if 14 CFR Part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport?. When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport. N/A. N/A.

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide. rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility. N/A. N/A.

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-top clearance?. VFR and IFR. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?. 1,000 feet. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?. 3.0°. N/A. N/A.

If you are performing a VFR practice instrument approach and radar approach control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?. advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds. N/A. N/A.

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?. The point of first intended landing. N/A. N/A.

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?. Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower. N/A. N/A.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. N/A. N/A.

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?. Enter ´No DP´ in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figures 216 and 216A.) What is the minimum rate of climb per NM to 9,700 feet departing Runway 25?. 500 feet. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?. 7. N/A. N/A.

Which approach and landing objective is assure when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area. N/A. N/A.

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?. When departing from a runway intersection. N/A. N/A.

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?. If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description. N/A. N/A.

When on a VFR-on-top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on. magnetic course. N/A. N/A.

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will. allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions. N/A. N/A.

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ´RESUME OWN NAVIGATION´. This phrase means that. you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation. N/A. N/A.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles. N/A. N/A.

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?. When weather conditions permit, regardless of weather operating under IFR or VFR. N/A. N/A.

Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. N/A. N/A.

The ´runway hold position´ sign denotes. an entrance to runway from a taxiway. N/A. N/A.

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from the. AFSS publications. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?. 3.00°. N/A. N/A.

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. N/A. N/A.

What is the pilot in command´s responsability when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.). Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 190.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Santa Barbara Muni (SBA)?. 0600 - 2300. N/A. N/A.

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?. Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute. N/A. N/A.

In the movement area of an airport, what does a "Destination" sign indicate?. Direction to takeoff runway. N/A. N/A.

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that. the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. N/A. N/A.

(Refer to Figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?. Mandatory instruction sign. N/A. N/A.

Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of. 200 feet per nautical mile. N/A. N/A.

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.). Destination airpotrt, altitude, and DP name, number, and/or transition, if appropiate. N/A. N/A.

On the runup pad, receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT ... An abbrevuated clearance, such as this, will always contain. destination airport and route. N/A. N/A.