Diferencias don B

PREG 1 : Can the APU be shutdown by any other means than by the flight deck switches?. B) Yes. B) Yes.

PREG 2 : The battery switch must be ON in order to have engine and APU fire extinguishing capability. B) False. B) Yes. B) False.

PREG 3 : It is not necessary to stop N1 rotation prior to initial engine start. A) True. B) False.

PREG 4 : What is max crosswind component for takeoff?. A) 25 Kt. B) 30 Kt. C) 35 Kt.

PREG 5 : What is max crosswind component for landing?. A) 25 Kt. B) 30 Kt. C) 35 Kt.

PREG 6 : What is additive to approach, landing and missed approach speed?. A) 05 Kt. B) 07 Kt. C) 09 Kt.

PREG 7 : Approach and threshold speeds should be increased in gusty wind conditions, how much?. A) ½ the gust factor +10 knots. B) Gust factor, but not more than +10 knots. C) Gust factor.

PREG 8 : Takeoff in crosswind greater than 25 knots from a direction of 55° or more off the runway heading, following procedure must comply: A) No flex power, static takeoff is required. B) A rolling flex power is recommended if runway length is sufficient. C) Do not use flexible trust, perform a rolling takeoff, and do not set takeoff power until aircraft ground speed approximates to the wind speed.

PREG 9 : Your actions in case either or both wing tank fuel quantity falls to 200 lbs. A) Select X-feed OPEN and common feed OPEN. B) Select all fuel pumps ON, including the left and right STBY PUMPS. C) Use flaps 24 for approach and landing.

PREG 10 : On approach ILS & GSL captured, after you have past OM the LOC transmitter fails (Flag warning), what happens?. A) Autopilot disengages. B) Autopilot will turn the aircraft to the right. C) Autopilot will remain coupled. The flight director will bias from view, and the mode light will not extinguish.

PREG 11 : If the fuel quantity in any feed tank is less than 300 lbs, flaps should be limited to: A) 18° for approach. B) 24° for approach and landing. C) No such limitation exists, but all fuel-pumps must operate, include the fuel STBY PUMPS.

PREG 12 : The function of the STBY fuel pumps is: A) To deliver fuel to the fuel-control, so the engines can run if the normal fuel-pumps are lost. B) To operate the jet-pumps, which transfer fuel to the inner feed tanks. C) The STBY fuel-pumps are powered from the yellow hydraulic system, and are also used for fuel balance.

PREG 13 : The STBY GEN is driven by?. A) Engine N° 3 hydraulic pressure. B) Green hydraulic pressure. C) Answer (a) and (b) are both correct.

PREG 14 : The STBY GEN starts when?. A) Switched to override. B) Switch placed in ARM position and loss of AC power to AC1 and AC2 bus bar occurs. C) Answer (a) and (b) are both correct.

PREG 15 : The inner wing DE-ICE should not be used above?. A) 10.000 ft. B) FL 150. C) FL 260.

PREG 16 : When should the inner wing DE-ICE be selected OFF during icing conditions?. A) At 200' AAL on final approach. B) After landing. C) At missed approach point or after landing, whatever is applicable?.

PREG 17 : During approach in icing conditions, your Vref is 109 knots, what is your approach speed?. A) Vref. B) Vref + 5 Kt (114 Kt). C) Vref + 12 Kt (121 Kt).

PREG 18 : Anti skid is not operative below?. A) 20 Kt. B) 15 Kt. C) Always operative when selected to ON.

PREG 19 : The landing factor for cockpit- and cabin crew is?. A) 4 index units per landing. B) 5 index units per landing. C) 6 index units per landing.

PREG 20 : Only the pilot in command decides to discontinue a takeoff whether he occupies the left or right seat. A) True. B) False.

PREG 21 : One extra Cabin Attendant is required for every 12 physically handicapped passengers in exes of the maximum number on ordinary flights. A) True. B) False.

PREG 22 : The Company flight plan must be approved by P-I-C before the flight. A) True. B) The commander must also check the Weight and Balance figures are within limit, before airborne. C) A and B are both correct.

PREG 23 : With ground power (AC) connected it is possible: . A) To start the APU with any selection of the BATT switch. B) BATT switch must be on prior to APU start. C) It is not possible to start the APU on ground power AC) only, since fire protection and all safety-devices are lost, when BATT switch is OFF.

PREG 24 : When Start MASTER switch has been selected to ON, the following changes has taken place in the electrical power system. A) The EMERGENCY DC BUS will be connected to the ESS DC BUS. B) Neither GEN1 nor GEN4 can com on line if START POWER is at EXT DC. C) Answer (a) and (b) are both correct.

PREG 25 : Main engine starting power comes from?. A) GPU 115/200 V & 400 Hz and APU GEN. B) Must be supplied from TR1 and TR2. C) One TR is enough for engine start.

PREG 26 : With APU fire warning ON, does the APU shut down automatically when the aircraft is airborne?. a) Yes. B) NO. C) Always when fire warning is on.

PREG 27 : The SBY GEN will run automatically when: A) SBY GEN switch is selected to ARM position, and either AC1 or AC2 is lost. B) EMERGENCY DC power is lost. C) If AC1 and AC2 is lost and SBY GEN switch is in ARM position CC.

PREG 29 : In the event of FUEL PUMPS failure, gravity feed will ensure a supply of fuel up to an altitude of at least?. A) 20.000 ft. B) 30.000 ft. (max altitude). C) Gravity feeding is not possible, for this safety reason, the aircraft is equipped with 4 main FUEL PUMPS, 2 SBY FUEL PUMPS and 14 jet FUEL PUMPS.

PREG 28 : The function of the standby FUEL PUMPS is: A) To deliver fuel to the FUELCONTROL so the engines can run, if the normal FUEL PUMPS are lost. B) To operate the JET PUMPS, which transfer fuel to the inner feed tanks. C) The standby FUEL PUMPS are powered from the green HYD system, and are mainly used for fuel balance.

PREG 30 : Normally the engines are fed fuel by?. A) Electrically powered FUEL PUMPS, situated in each four feed tanks. B) Hyd powered FUEL PUMPS in the outer feed tanks. C) By jet pumps in the engine manifold.

PREG 31 : In the event of a go-around at low fuel quantity and either wing tank quantity falls to 200 lbs. Your action should be: A) CROSSFEED to OPEN. B) COMMON FEED to OPEN. C) None of the above answers is correct, land as soon as possible.

PREG 32 : Each wing tank vent's to the atmosphere trough a surge box in the respective wing-tip. How is the center-tank vented?. A) The center-tank is vented trough the left wing surge box. B) The center-tank has its own surge box. C) The center-tank is not vented at all, but overflow goes to the right wing tank trough a one way valve.

PREG 33 : The baulk gate (Flap) gets speed information from: A) Air Data Unit. B) P3 (AUX Pitot) pitot system. C) A 220 kt airspeed switch.

PREG 34 : When should the INNER WING DE-ICE be selected ON during icing conditions?. A) At any time during approach. B) At intercept of the ILS GLIDE SLOPE. C) At 200 kt prior FLAPS selections.

PREG 35 : The hydraulic AC PUMP is cooled by?. A) An AC powered fan. B) Hydraulic fluid from the green system. C) Hydraulic fluid from the yellow system and an AC powered fan.

PREG 37 : Which system services are operating on both green and yellow hydraulic systems?. A) Flaps, Airbrakes and Rudder. B) Lift Spoilers, Fuel Pumps and Flaps. C) Lift Spoilers, Rudder and Wheel Brakes.

PREG 36 : The AC PUMP FAIL annunciator light comes ON when?. A) The AC PUMP fails or is switched OFF during flight. B) The AC PUMP is running despite being selected OFF. C) As in answer (b), but also if the AC PUMP fails when it is selected ON.

PREG 38 : Normally there is no airflow from one wing to the other in the pneumatic system, but if?. A) With TAIL ANTI-ICE ON, there will be a slight crossfeedof air from one wing to the other if there is an imbalance of air supply between wings. B) All AIR-SWITCHES are ON, and the pneumatic system runs on one PACK, it is normal a slight crossfeed of air is taking place. C) Answer (a) and (b) are both wrong.

PREG 39 : Critical engine for take-off is?. A) Engine No 4. B) Engine No 1. C) Outer Engine on upwind side.

PREG 40 : Flight in severe turbulence, it is recommended to: A) Fly a fixed speed 250 knots/0.60 IMN, whichever is lower, regardless of pitch attitude of the aircraft. B) Select CONT IGN A and B ON before entering turbulence. C) Always use a fixed pitch attitude, regardless if there is heavy fluctuating of airspeed.

PREG 41 : For descent it is recommended to use following N2 power-setting, for cabin ventilation: A) FL 300 to 250................70% N2 minimum. B) FL 300 to 200................65% N2 minimum. C) FL 300 to 000................Flight Idle.

PREG 42 : The maximum and minimum airport altitudes for take-off or for landing are?. A) 9000 and -1 200 ft. B) 9000 and -1 000 ft. C) 8000 and -1 000 ft.

PREG 43 : The maximum Runway slope for take-off is?. A) 1.5% uphill and 1.5% downhill. B) 2.0% uphill and 2.0% downhill. C) 2.5% uphill and 2.0% downhill.

PREG 44 : The BAe146 aircraft must not be dispatched in ground ambient temperatures less than? C.°. A) -35 C.°. B) -40 C.°. C) -45.

PREG 45 : When flexible thrust is used, the following must be observed: A) N1 Flex must not be less than 78% N1. B) N1 Flex must not be less than N1ref -8.0%. C) Statement (a) and (b) are both correct.

PREG 46 : The maximum normal differential pressure for the cabin is?. A) 6.75 PSI. B) 6.65 PSI. C) 6.55 PSI.

PREG 47 : During flight you observe WING NOT DE-ICED: A) This indicate you forgot to retract your flaps after take-off. B) Severe icing exist, the system cannot cope with the situation. C) No de-ice fluid in the de-ice system, change flight level soon as possible.

PREG 48 : When you are flying a coupled ILS, at 600' Radar Alt. you normally get green annunciator CAT 2 on. It is also possible to cancel CAT 2 by pushing the annunciator light, what happens if you do so?. A) The autopilot is flying the ILS normally, and you observe nothing unusual. B) The CAT annunciator shows CAT 1 (amber light) on all the time, until the CAT 1 is canceled by pushing the annunciator or you are on a coupled ILS and below 600' Radar Alt. then the CAT 1 light reverts to CAT 2 (green light). C) The CAT 2 AMS (Approach Monitoring System) is not able to monitor the ILS approach down to 100' Radar Alt. in conjunction with the autopilot.

PREG 49 : To get green light on the CAT 2 annunciator, following conditions must comply: A) No 1 and 2 glideslope and localizer valid, and tuned. Landing gear down NAV selector not in split position. B) Less than 600', but greater than 100' Radar Alt. C) Autopilot coupled and all 3 radio altimeter valid.

PREG 50 : During CAT 2 approach you observe CAT 2 green light on the annunciator panel, what parameters must be within certain limits?. A) GSL < 1 dot deviation, LOC <1/3 deviation. B) Radar Alt. between 600' and 100'. C) Answer A and B are both correct.

PREG 51 : During coupled ILS approach at 500' AGL you get invalid GS signal, what happens?. A) Autopilot remain engaged. B) Autopilot turn the aircraft in to a slightly right turn. C) Autopilot disengages.

PREG 52 : If an asymmetry of 1½º or greater is sensed between the yaw damper actuators, what happens?. A) Both yaw damper will be frozen, and amber YD light warning comes on. B) Aircraft will be oscillating. C) Both yaw damper disconnect.

PREG 53 : The APU fuel consumption is approximately 80 lbs at idling power sealevel, what is the consumption at full load (Air and Electrical ON)?. A) 120 lbs. B) 130 lbs. C) 160 lbs.

PREG 54 : Is the BAe-146 aircraft certificated for flight in severe icing conditions?. A) Yes. B) No. C) Only certificated for flight in known icing conditions.

PREG 55 : Is there interconnection between left and right wing ducts, for anti-icing the wings?. A) Yes. B) No.

PREG 56 : A ICE DETECT light annunciator is situated on the main annunciator panel, for how long time will the warning be maintained after icing encounter has passed?. A) 30 seconds. B) 45 seconds. C) 60 seconds.

PREG 57 : The autopilot disengages whenever?. A) A pitch rate of 4º per. second or more is sensed. B) A pitch rate of 3½º per. second or more is sensed. C) A pitch rate of 4½º per. second or more is sensed.

PREG 58 : A MAN SPLR FAULT annunciator will indicate: A) Ifthere is a fault on one of the squat switch systems. B) Expect an unsymmetrical spoiler deployment when selected on landing. C) Spoilers does not deploy when selected on landing.

PREG 59 : Your flap indicator is inoperative, how can you check the flap setting?. A) By checking the FLAP BAULK OVRD leaver. B) By visual check of RH flap track #1 from cabin. C) By visual check of LH flap track #2 from cabin.

PREG 60 : When flap is restricted to 24º, what is the approximate increase in landing distance in %: A) 40%. B) 30%. C) 20%.

PREG 61 : The increase in landing distance due to inoperative airbrakes and lift spoilers is: A) 40%. B) 30%. C) 20%.

PREG 62 : The normal Oxygen system pressure for any flight is?. A) 1850 psi. at 21ºC sea level. B) Minimum dispatch pressure is 1275 psi. C) Depending on number of passengers carried.

PREG 63 : TMS is Selected in TO mode, but the display flashes, what is the probable cause?. A) DE-ICE selected ON. B) Engine Anti Ice selected ON. C) The altitude is above 15000 feet.

PREG 64 : TMS is in SYNC Mode N2, Master 2 ON, and the aircraft is at cruise FL 290, when you select Master 1, N2 % changes, what is the probable cause?. A) The Power Leaver is not properly set. B) TMS in SYNC, the Master actuator is always centered, the other actuators are slaved, so when changing Master, the TMS get a new datum. C) Fuel Control's are not matched.

PREG 65 : You are on ground with all systems running in normal conditions, You observe Q FEEL HTR FAIL light, what does this indicate?. A) A fault in the annunciator light system. B) A fault in the air/ground sensor system. C) This is normal since the SCREEN HEAT switches are OFF.

PREG 66 : Generators can normally be reset in flight, except for one fault?. A) Over current. B) Over voltage. C) Under frequency.

PREG 67 : The APU supplies the entire electrical demand and all busses if it has to?. A) Only in Emergency. B) On ground only. C) When airborne only.

PREG 68 : With smoke in the cabin, the PAX oxygen System should always be used to prevent smoke inhalation?. A) True. B) False.

REG 69 : Electrical heated ice protection are: A) Pitot heads, Q-feel mast and C windscreens. B) Static ports forwards, Q-feel pitot head. C) Airflow direction sensor vanes, engine air intake.

PREG 70 : The six windscreen panels are heated by?. A) Electrical power alone. B) Electrical power and hot air. C) Only 4 panels are heated by electrical power.

PREG 71 : When are the static vent plate and the Q-pot heated?. A) When the aircraft is powered (electrically). B) When airborne and electrical power in normal condition. C) When aircraft is on ground or airborne with minimum one generator running.

PREG 72 : You are on the ground with all systems running in normal conditions, and you observe a light Q FEEL HTR FAIL, this indicates?. A) A fault in the annunciator light system. B) A fault in the air-ground sensor system. C) This is quite normal as the SCREEN HEAT switches are off.

PREG 73 : The hydraulic AC PUMP is cooled by?. A) An AC powered fan. B) Hydraulic fluid from green system. C) Hydraulic fluid from yellow system and an AC powered fan.

PREG 74 : Which system services are operating on both green and yellow hyd. systems?. A) Flaps, airbrakes and rudder. B) Lift spoilers, fuel pumps and flaps. C) Lift spoilers, rudder and wheel brakes.

PREG 75 : Within each pylon there is an isolation valve sensing different parameters for controlling the bleed airflow, which?. A) Airflow and over temperature. B) Under pressure and temperature. C) Overpressure and over temperature.

PREG 76 : When pressing the AP disconnect switch on the control wheel twice you obtain following result?. A) Autopilot disconnect. B) Autopilot disconnect and FD diverts into go-around mode. C) Autopilot disconnect and the FD command bars will command wings level and 15º pitch-up attitude.

PREG 77 : The electrical elevator trim may not be used if: A) Only half of eighter trim switch will operate the system. B) Autopilot is engaged. C) In turbulence.

PREG 78 : The following starter limit must be observed: A) Maximum 3 starter attempts in a row. B) Duty cycles for starting is 60 sec on / 20 sec off. C) No limits when using ground power.

PREG 79 : The APU supplies the entire electrical demand if it has to?. A) Only in an emergency. B) On ground only. C) When airborne only.

PREG 80 : APU automatic shut-down in flight is provided for the following conditions: A) Overspeed, EGT overtemperature and fire. B) High oil temperature, overspeed and engine oil low pressure. C) EGT over temperature, engine oil low pressure and overspeed.

PREG 81 : With AC ground power connected/engaged it is possible: A) Only to start APU with BATT ON selected. B) To start APU with any selection off BATT switch. C) Not possible to start APU, it must be started on BATT power with ground power disconnected.

PREG 82 : During a CAT 2 approach you observe a green annunciation light starting CAT 2, what parameters must be within certain limits?. A) GSL< 1/3 dot deviation. B) RA < 600 feet, altitude > 100 feet. GSL < 1 dot deviation. C) Answer A and B are both correct.

PREG 83 : With autopilot engaged the AIL amber annunciator light indicates when lit?. A) Aileron out of trim, fuel asymmetry should be checked. B) Aileron and/or rudder out of trim, retrim aircraft. C) Autopilot receiving signals demanding more than 25º of bank for intercept of LOC.

PREG 84 : How much X-wind correction is the AFGS able to apply in mode LOC ON COURSE?. A) 10º. B) 25º. C) 30º.

PREG 85 : The autopilot disengages whenever?. A) A pitch rate of 3º per second or more is sensed. B) A stall warning is sensed. C) Answer A and B are both correct.

PREG 86 : When an amber caption light FLAP INOP is lit on the MWS panel you can expect?. A) Flaps to move at only half speed, full speed or total loss of drive. B) Flaps to be locked. C) Total hydraulic failure as a leakage has drained the hydraulic fluid from both hydraulic systems, and back up hydraulic is lost as well.

PREG 87 : The manual lift spoiler handle must not be moved to the LIFT SPLR position while in flight?. A) But for short field landings should lift spoiler handle be selected to the LIFT SPLR position prior to touch down. B) Correct. C) Lift spoilers are for ground operation only, and deployment is controlled by the squat switches.compression of both main gear struts only, will allow deployment of the green system spoilers.

PREG 88 : How are the brake fans checked?. A) By an external check when the fans are switched on. B) Not possible to check the fans in AUTO as they run in auto- mode when temperature is within specified limits. C) Answer (a) and (b) are both correct.

PREG 89 : Anti skid is not operative below?. A) 20 kts. B) 15 kts. C) Always operative when selected ON.

PREG 90 : Approach and threshold speeds should be increased during gusty wind condition, how much?. A) 1/2 the gust factor plus 10 kts. B) Gust factor but max 10 kts. C) Gust factor.

PREG 91 : Fuel transfer from center tank in AUTO select?. A) Always possible when there is fuel in the center tank. B) Only possible when airborne. C) Only possible on ground when fuel is above center-tank low level switches.

PREG 92 : During coupled ILS approach at 500' AGL you get invalid GS signal, what happens?. A) Autopilot remain engaged. B) Autopilot turn the aircraft in to a slightly right turn. C) Autopilot disengages.

PREG 93 : Q pot "fir cone" device which limit the rudder travel is linked to rudder trim and full rudder authority is only available when?. A) The emergency rudder disconnect has been pulled. B) An "in trim" condition exist. C) Q pot only works with aileron and elevator for artificial feel and maximum travel. Not secure.

PREG 94 : How is FLAP BAULK OVRD lever tested?. A) By pressing the FLAP BAULK TEST switch situated in the electrical equipment bay. B) By pressing the FLAP BAULK OVRD lever situated in front of FLAP selector handle. C) Is self testing whenever airspeed falls below 220 kt.